What is the relationship between a step input and an integrator?











up vote
2
down vote

favorite
3












While trying to understand control engineering from first principles I came across the following which I cannot yet explain intuitively or mathematically.



What is the relationship if any, between a step input and an integrator?
Why are they identical to each other?



I kept on seeing $1/s$ being used to both represent a step input and an integrator.




  • The Laplace transform of the unit-step function is $1/s$.

  • An integrator symbol is also $1/s$.




Step Function:



enter image description here



Integrator Block:



enter image description here





Multiplication by s in Frequency (Laplace) domain is differentiation in time.



Dividing by s in Frequency (Laplace) domain is equivalent to integration in time.



Is a step input equivalent to integrating in the time domain, or is it purely coincidental that they both have a spectrum that falls as frequency increases?



Why the Laplace transform of the integral is 1/s?



$int$ in Time Domain = $ 1/s$ in Freq Domain



AND



$mathscr{L} {1/s} = 1$










share|improve this question




















  • 1




    The step response is the integral of the impulse response.
    – jonk
    5 hours ago










  • To answer the question you just added to the bottom: yes.
    – Felthry
    4 hours ago












  • And the step input signal is the differential of a ramp input signal LOL.
    – Andy aka
    3 hours ago










  • Just to cap it off.... The impulse response is $hleft(tright)=mathscr{L}^{-1}{Hleft(sright)}$, which is the derivative of the step response, $h left( t right)= frac{ text{d} }{ text{d} t }y_{ gamma } left( t right)$. So: $y_{ gamma } left(tright)=int h left( t right) : text{d}t$.
    – jonk
    3 hours ago

















up vote
2
down vote

favorite
3












While trying to understand control engineering from first principles I came across the following which I cannot yet explain intuitively or mathematically.



What is the relationship if any, between a step input and an integrator?
Why are they identical to each other?



I kept on seeing $1/s$ being used to both represent a step input and an integrator.




  • The Laplace transform of the unit-step function is $1/s$.

  • An integrator symbol is also $1/s$.




Step Function:



enter image description here



Integrator Block:



enter image description here





Multiplication by s in Frequency (Laplace) domain is differentiation in time.



Dividing by s in Frequency (Laplace) domain is equivalent to integration in time.



Is a step input equivalent to integrating in the time domain, or is it purely coincidental that they both have a spectrum that falls as frequency increases?



Why the Laplace transform of the integral is 1/s?



$int$ in Time Domain = $ 1/s$ in Freq Domain



AND



$mathscr{L} {1/s} = 1$










share|improve this question




















  • 1




    The step response is the integral of the impulse response.
    – jonk
    5 hours ago










  • To answer the question you just added to the bottom: yes.
    – Felthry
    4 hours ago












  • And the step input signal is the differential of a ramp input signal LOL.
    – Andy aka
    3 hours ago










  • Just to cap it off.... The impulse response is $hleft(tright)=mathscr{L}^{-1}{Hleft(sright)}$, which is the derivative of the step response, $h left( t right)= frac{ text{d} }{ text{d} t }y_{ gamma } left( t right)$. So: $y_{ gamma } left(tright)=int h left( t right) : text{d}t$.
    – jonk
    3 hours ago















up vote
2
down vote

favorite
3









up vote
2
down vote

favorite
3






3





While trying to understand control engineering from first principles I came across the following which I cannot yet explain intuitively or mathematically.



What is the relationship if any, between a step input and an integrator?
Why are they identical to each other?



I kept on seeing $1/s$ being used to both represent a step input and an integrator.




  • The Laplace transform of the unit-step function is $1/s$.

  • An integrator symbol is also $1/s$.




Step Function:



enter image description here



Integrator Block:



enter image description here





Multiplication by s in Frequency (Laplace) domain is differentiation in time.



Dividing by s in Frequency (Laplace) domain is equivalent to integration in time.



Is a step input equivalent to integrating in the time domain, or is it purely coincidental that they both have a spectrum that falls as frequency increases?



Why the Laplace transform of the integral is 1/s?



$int$ in Time Domain = $ 1/s$ in Freq Domain



AND



$mathscr{L} {1/s} = 1$










share|improve this question















While trying to understand control engineering from first principles I came across the following which I cannot yet explain intuitively or mathematically.



What is the relationship if any, between a step input and an integrator?
Why are they identical to each other?



I kept on seeing $1/s$ being used to both represent a step input and an integrator.




  • The Laplace transform of the unit-step function is $1/s$.

  • An integrator symbol is also $1/s$.




Step Function:



enter image description here



Integrator Block:



enter image description here





Multiplication by s in Frequency (Laplace) domain is differentiation in time.



Dividing by s in Frequency (Laplace) domain is equivalent to integration in time.



Is a step input equivalent to integrating in the time domain, or is it purely coincidental that they both have a spectrum that falls as frequency increases?



Why the Laplace transform of the integral is 1/s?



$int$ in Time Domain = $ 1/s$ in Freq Domain



AND



$mathscr{L} {1/s} = 1$







control control-system






share|improve this question















share|improve this question













share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited 1 hour ago

























asked 6 hours ago









Rrz0

939226




939226








  • 1




    The step response is the integral of the impulse response.
    – jonk
    5 hours ago










  • To answer the question you just added to the bottom: yes.
    – Felthry
    4 hours ago












  • And the step input signal is the differential of a ramp input signal LOL.
    – Andy aka
    3 hours ago










  • Just to cap it off.... The impulse response is $hleft(tright)=mathscr{L}^{-1}{Hleft(sright)}$, which is the derivative of the step response, $h left( t right)= frac{ text{d} }{ text{d} t }y_{ gamma } left( t right)$. So: $y_{ gamma } left(tright)=int h left( t right) : text{d}t$.
    – jonk
    3 hours ago
















  • 1




    The step response is the integral of the impulse response.
    – jonk
    5 hours ago










  • To answer the question you just added to the bottom: yes.
    – Felthry
    4 hours ago












  • And the step input signal is the differential of a ramp input signal LOL.
    – Andy aka
    3 hours ago










  • Just to cap it off.... The impulse response is $hleft(tright)=mathscr{L}^{-1}{Hleft(sright)}$, which is the derivative of the step response, $h left( t right)= frac{ text{d} }{ text{d} t }y_{ gamma } left( t right)$. So: $y_{ gamma } left(tright)=int h left( t right) : text{d}t$.
    – jonk
    3 hours ago










1




1




The step response is the integral of the impulse response.
– jonk
5 hours ago




The step response is the integral of the impulse response.
– jonk
5 hours ago












To answer the question you just added to the bottom: yes.
– Felthry
4 hours ago






To answer the question you just added to the bottom: yes.
– Felthry
4 hours ago














And the step input signal is the differential of a ramp input signal LOL.
– Andy aka
3 hours ago




And the step input signal is the differential of a ramp input signal LOL.
– Andy aka
3 hours ago












Just to cap it off.... The impulse response is $hleft(tright)=mathscr{L}^{-1}{Hleft(sright)}$, which is the derivative of the step response, $h left( t right)= frac{ text{d} }{ text{d} t }y_{ gamma } left( t right)$. So: $y_{ gamma } left(tright)=int h left( t right) : text{d}t$.
– jonk
3 hours ago






Just to cap it off.... The impulse response is $hleft(tright)=mathscr{L}^{-1}{Hleft(sright)}$, which is the derivative of the step response, $h left( t right)= frac{ text{d} }{ text{d} t }y_{ gamma } left( t right)$. So: $y_{ gamma } left(tright)=int h left( t right) : text{d}t$.
– jonk
3 hours ago












2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
4
down vote













Consider what happens when an integrator gets a unit impulse as its input. What is the output waveform? What's the Laplace transform of a unit impulse?






share|improve this answer





















  • When an integrator gets a unit impulse, according to my simulink the output rises from 0 to 1 over a 1 second duration and then remains constant at 1. The Laplace transform of a unit impulse is 1, but I don't intuitively see any connection.
    – Rrz0
    5 hours ago












  • @Rrz0r. Are you sure that isn't a one sample duration?
    – Scott Seidman
    5 hours ago










  • No I am not sure about this, I am using a discrete impulse block on Simulink.
    – Rrz0
    5 hours ago






  • 2




    A discrete impulse is different from a really-o truly-o Dirac delta functional, which is an "impulse" in continuous-time signal processing. $delta(t)$ has no width, is zero everywhere except for $t=0$, and $int_{0^-}^{0^+} delta(t) dt = 1$. If you haven't seen it before and it's boggling your mind -- relax, you have company.
    – TimWescott
    4 hours ago






  • 2




    If you do the math to answer the question "what is the impulse response of an integrator?" then you will be the width of a Dirac impulse away from understanding the answer to your question.
    – TimWescott
    4 hours ago




















up vote
2
down vote














What is the relationship if any, between a step input and an
integrator?




Consider this:




  • White noise has a spectrum of "x" at all frequencies i.e. it is spectrally flat

  • A perfect amplifier with a gain of "x" has a transfer function of "x" at all frequencies.


Does anyone get in a muddle about this? Do they have a relationship?



So, a unit step has a spectrum that falls as frequency increases and an integrator also has a transfer function that happens to do the same. Should this be a big deal?






share|improve this answer

















  • 4




    While it's true that there doesn't have to be a relationship between two things, it can often be enlightening to consider why two things look similar. I don't disagree with your answer, but I think it might be too dismissive; this is, after all, the type of question that leads to great insight in mathematics. Honestly, after reading your answer, now I find myself thinking about whether there is some mathematical relationship between a perfect amplifier and white noise.
    – Felthry
    6 hours ago












  • @Felthry I insist you make this an answer!!
    – Andy aka
    6 hours ago










  • I would, but it doesn't answer the question! And I'm not currently able to write it up into a form that does so.
    – Felthry
    6 hours ago






  • 2




    Thanks for the answer. It feels as though I am still missing something fundamental, which I can't yet explain. It could be because I don't fully understand your last sentence. @Felthry I think that would actually be very helpful.
    – Rrz0
    6 hours ago












  • @Andyaka if there really is no relationship then is the thought process presented above incorrect?Am I going off on a tangent?
    – Rrz0
    4 hours ago











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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
4
down vote













Consider what happens when an integrator gets a unit impulse as its input. What is the output waveform? What's the Laplace transform of a unit impulse?






share|improve this answer





















  • When an integrator gets a unit impulse, according to my simulink the output rises from 0 to 1 over a 1 second duration and then remains constant at 1. The Laplace transform of a unit impulse is 1, but I don't intuitively see any connection.
    – Rrz0
    5 hours ago












  • @Rrz0r. Are you sure that isn't a one sample duration?
    – Scott Seidman
    5 hours ago










  • No I am not sure about this, I am using a discrete impulse block on Simulink.
    – Rrz0
    5 hours ago






  • 2




    A discrete impulse is different from a really-o truly-o Dirac delta functional, which is an "impulse" in continuous-time signal processing. $delta(t)$ has no width, is zero everywhere except for $t=0$, and $int_{0^-}^{0^+} delta(t) dt = 1$. If you haven't seen it before and it's boggling your mind -- relax, you have company.
    – TimWescott
    4 hours ago






  • 2




    If you do the math to answer the question "what is the impulse response of an integrator?" then you will be the width of a Dirac impulse away from understanding the answer to your question.
    – TimWescott
    4 hours ago

















up vote
4
down vote













Consider what happens when an integrator gets a unit impulse as its input. What is the output waveform? What's the Laplace transform of a unit impulse?






share|improve this answer





















  • When an integrator gets a unit impulse, according to my simulink the output rises from 0 to 1 over a 1 second duration and then remains constant at 1. The Laplace transform of a unit impulse is 1, but I don't intuitively see any connection.
    – Rrz0
    5 hours ago












  • @Rrz0r. Are you sure that isn't a one sample duration?
    – Scott Seidman
    5 hours ago










  • No I am not sure about this, I am using a discrete impulse block on Simulink.
    – Rrz0
    5 hours ago






  • 2




    A discrete impulse is different from a really-o truly-o Dirac delta functional, which is an "impulse" in continuous-time signal processing. $delta(t)$ has no width, is zero everywhere except for $t=0$, and $int_{0^-}^{0^+} delta(t) dt = 1$. If you haven't seen it before and it's boggling your mind -- relax, you have company.
    – TimWescott
    4 hours ago






  • 2




    If you do the math to answer the question "what is the impulse response of an integrator?" then you will be the width of a Dirac impulse away from understanding the answer to your question.
    – TimWescott
    4 hours ago















up vote
4
down vote










up vote
4
down vote









Consider what happens when an integrator gets a unit impulse as its input. What is the output waveform? What's the Laplace transform of a unit impulse?






share|improve this answer












Consider what happens when an integrator gets a unit impulse as its input. What is the output waveform? What's the Laplace transform of a unit impulse?







share|improve this answer












share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer










answered 6 hours ago









Neil_UK

72.3k274159




72.3k274159












  • When an integrator gets a unit impulse, according to my simulink the output rises from 0 to 1 over a 1 second duration and then remains constant at 1. The Laplace transform of a unit impulse is 1, but I don't intuitively see any connection.
    – Rrz0
    5 hours ago












  • @Rrz0r. Are you sure that isn't a one sample duration?
    – Scott Seidman
    5 hours ago










  • No I am not sure about this, I am using a discrete impulse block on Simulink.
    – Rrz0
    5 hours ago






  • 2




    A discrete impulse is different from a really-o truly-o Dirac delta functional, which is an "impulse" in continuous-time signal processing. $delta(t)$ has no width, is zero everywhere except for $t=0$, and $int_{0^-}^{0^+} delta(t) dt = 1$. If you haven't seen it before and it's boggling your mind -- relax, you have company.
    – TimWescott
    4 hours ago






  • 2




    If you do the math to answer the question "what is the impulse response of an integrator?" then you will be the width of a Dirac impulse away from understanding the answer to your question.
    – TimWescott
    4 hours ago




















  • When an integrator gets a unit impulse, according to my simulink the output rises from 0 to 1 over a 1 second duration and then remains constant at 1. The Laplace transform of a unit impulse is 1, but I don't intuitively see any connection.
    – Rrz0
    5 hours ago












  • @Rrz0r. Are you sure that isn't a one sample duration?
    – Scott Seidman
    5 hours ago










  • No I am not sure about this, I am using a discrete impulse block on Simulink.
    – Rrz0
    5 hours ago






  • 2




    A discrete impulse is different from a really-o truly-o Dirac delta functional, which is an "impulse" in continuous-time signal processing. $delta(t)$ has no width, is zero everywhere except for $t=0$, and $int_{0^-}^{0^+} delta(t) dt = 1$. If you haven't seen it before and it's boggling your mind -- relax, you have company.
    – TimWescott
    4 hours ago






  • 2




    If you do the math to answer the question "what is the impulse response of an integrator?" then you will be the width of a Dirac impulse away from understanding the answer to your question.
    – TimWescott
    4 hours ago


















When an integrator gets a unit impulse, according to my simulink the output rises from 0 to 1 over a 1 second duration and then remains constant at 1. The Laplace transform of a unit impulse is 1, but I don't intuitively see any connection.
– Rrz0
5 hours ago






When an integrator gets a unit impulse, according to my simulink the output rises from 0 to 1 over a 1 second duration and then remains constant at 1. The Laplace transform of a unit impulse is 1, but I don't intuitively see any connection.
– Rrz0
5 hours ago














@Rrz0r. Are you sure that isn't a one sample duration?
– Scott Seidman
5 hours ago




@Rrz0r. Are you sure that isn't a one sample duration?
– Scott Seidman
5 hours ago












No I am not sure about this, I am using a discrete impulse block on Simulink.
– Rrz0
5 hours ago




No I am not sure about this, I am using a discrete impulse block on Simulink.
– Rrz0
5 hours ago




2




2




A discrete impulse is different from a really-o truly-o Dirac delta functional, which is an "impulse" in continuous-time signal processing. $delta(t)$ has no width, is zero everywhere except for $t=0$, and $int_{0^-}^{0^+} delta(t) dt = 1$. If you haven't seen it before and it's boggling your mind -- relax, you have company.
– TimWescott
4 hours ago




A discrete impulse is different from a really-o truly-o Dirac delta functional, which is an "impulse" in continuous-time signal processing. $delta(t)$ has no width, is zero everywhere except for $t=0$, and $int_{0^-}^{0^+} delta(t) dt = 1$. If you haven't seen it before and it's boggling your mind -- relax, you have company.
– TimWescott
4 hours ago




2




2




If you do the math to answer the question "what is the impulse response of an integrator?" then you will be the width of a Dirac impulse away from understanding the answer to your question.
– TimWescott
4 hours ago






If you do the math to answer the question "what is the impulse response of an integrator?" then you will be the width of a Dirac impulse away from understanding the answer to your question.
– TimWescott
4 hours ago














up vote
2
down vote














What is the relationship if any, between a step input and an
integrator?




Consider this:




  • White noise has a spectrum of "x" at all frequencies i.e. it is spectrally flat

  • A perfect amplifier with a gain of "x" has a transfer function of "x" at all frequencies.


Does anyone get in a muddle about this? Do they have a relationship?



So, a unit step has a spectrum that falls as frequency increases and an integrator also has a transfer function that happens to do the same. Should this be a big deal?






share|improve this answer

















  • 4




    While it's true that there doesn't have to be a relationship between two things, it can often be enlightening to consider why two things look similar. I don't disagree with your answer, but I think it might be too dismissive; this is, after all, the type of question that leads to great insight in mathematics. Honestly, after reading your answer, now I find myself thinking about whether there is some mathematical relationship between a perfect amplifier and white noise.
    – Felthry
    6 hours ago












  • @Felthry I insist you make this an answer!!
    – Andy aka
    6 hours ago










  • I would, but it doesn't answer the question! And I'm not currently able to write it up into a form that does so.
    – Felthry
    6 hours ago






  • 2




    Thanks for the answer. It feels as though I am still missing something fundamental, which I can't yet explain. It could be because I don't fully understand your last sentence. @Felthry I think that would actually be very helpful.
    – Rrz0
    6 hours ago












  • @Andyaka if there really is no relationship then is the thought process presented above incorrect?Am I going off on a tangent?
    – Rrz0
    4 hours ago















up vote
2
down vote














What is the relationship if any, between a step input and an
integrator?




Consider this:




  • White noise has a spectrum of "x" at all frequencies i.e. it is spectrally flat

  • A perfect amplifier with a gain of "x" has a transfer function of "x" at all frequencies.


Does anyone get in a muddle about this? Do they have a relationship?



So, a unit step has a spectrum that falls as frequency increases and an integrator also has a transfer function that happens to do the same. Should this be a big deal?






share|improve this answer

















  • 4




    While it's true that there doesn't have to be a relationship between two things, it can often be enlightening to consider why two things look similar. I don't disagree with your answer, but I think it might be too dismissive; this is, after all, the type of question that leads to great insight in mathematics. Honestly, after reading your answer, now I find myself thinking about whether there is some mathematical relationship between a perfect amplifier and white noise.
    – Felthry
    6 hours ago












  • @Felthry I insist you make this an answer!!
    – Andy aka
    6 hours ago










  • I would, but it doesn't answer the question! And I'm not currently able to write it up into a form that does so.
    – Felthry
    6 hours ago






  • 2




    Thanks for the answer. It feels as though I am still missing something fundamental, which I can't yet explain. It could be because I don't fully understand your last sentence. @Felthry I think that would actually be very helpful.
    – Rrz0
    6 hours ago












  • @Andyaka if there really is no relationship then is the thought process presented above incorrect?Am I going off on a tangent?
    – Rrz0
    4 hours ago













up vote
2
down vote










up vote
2
down vote










What is the relationship if any, between a step input and an
integrator?




Consider this:




  • White noise has a spectrum of "x" at all frequencies i.e. it is spectrally flat

  • A perfect amplifier with a gain of "x" has a transfer function of "x" at all frequencies.


Does anyone get in a muddle about this? Do they have a relationship?



So, a unit step has a spectrum that falls as frequency increases and an integrator also has a transfer function that happens to do the same. Should this be a big deal?






share|improve this answer













What is the relationship if any, between a step input and an
integrator?




Consider this:




  • White noise has a spectrum of "x" at all frequencies i.e. it is spectrally flat

  • A perfect amplifier with a gain of "x" has a transfer function of "x" at all frequencies.


Does anyone get in a muddle about this? Do they have a relationship?



So, a unit step has a spectrum that falls as frequency increases and an integrator also has a transfer function that happens to do the same. Should this be a big deal?







share|improve this answer












share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer










answered 6 hours ago









Andy aka

235k10173400




235k10173400








  • 4




    While it's true that there doesn't have to be a relationship between two things, it can often be enlightening to consider why two things look similar. I don't disagree with your answer, but I think it might be too dismissive; this is, after all, the type of question that leads to great insight in mathematics. Honestly, after reading your answer, now I find myself thinking about whether there is some mathematical relationship between a perfect amplifier and white noise.
    – Felthry
    6 hours ago












  • @Felthry I insist you make this an answer!!
    – Andy aka
    6 hours ago










  • I would, but it doesn't answer the question! And I'm not currently able to write it up into a form that does so.
    – Felthry
    6 hours ago






  • 2




    Thanks for the answer. It feels as though I am still missing something fundamental, which I can't yet explain. It could be because I don't fully understand your last sentence. @Felthry I think that would actually be very helpful.
    – Rrz0
    6 hours ago












  • @Andyaka if there really is no relationship then is the thought process presented above incorrect?Am I going off on a tangent?
    – Rrz0
    4 hours ago














  • 4




    While it's true that there doesn't have to be a relationship between two things, it can often be enlightening to consider why two things look similar. I don't disagree with your answer, but I think it might be too dismissive; this is, after all, the type of question that leads to great insight in mathematics. Honestly, after reading your answer, now I find myself thinking about whether there is some mathematical relationship between a perfect amplifier and white noise.
    – Felthry
    6 hours ago












  • @Felthry I insist you make this an answer!!
    – Andy aka
    6 hours ago










  • I would, but it doesn't answer the question! And I'm not currently able to write it up into a form that does so.
    – Felthry
    6 hours ago






  • 2




    Thanks for the answer. It feels as though I am still missing something fundamental, which I can't yet explain. It could be because I don't fully understand your last sentence. @Felthry I think that would actually be very helpful.
    – Rrz0
    6 hours ago












  • @Andyaka if there really is no relationship then is the thought process presented above incorrect?Am I going off on a tangent?
    – Rrz0
    4 hours ago








4




4




While it's true that there doesn't have to be a relationship between two things, it can often be enlightening to consider why two things look similar. I don't disagree with your answer, but I think it might be too dismissive; this is, after all, the type of question that leads to great insight in mathematics. Honestly, after reading your answer, now I find myself thinking about whether there is some mathematical relationship between a perfect amplifier and white noise.
– Felthry
6 hours ago






While it's true that there doesn't have to be a relationship between two things, it can often be enlightening to consider why two things look similar. I don't disagree with your answer, but I think it might be too dismissive; this is, after all, the type of question that leads to great insight in mathematics. Honestly, after reading your answer, now I find myself thinking about whether there is some mathematical relationship between a perfect amplifier and white noise.
– Felthry
6 hours ago














@Felthry I insist you make this an answer!!
– Andy aka
6 hours ago




@Felthry I insist you make this an answer!!
– Andy aka
6 hours ago












I would, but it doesn't answer the question! And I'm not currently able to write it up into a form that does so.
– Felthry
6 hours ago




I would, but it doesn't answer the question! And I'm not currently able to write it up into a form that does so.
– Felthry
6 hours ago




2




2




Thanks for the answer. It feels as though I am still missing something fundamental, which I can't yet explain. It could be because I don't fully understand your last sentence. @Felthry I think that would actually be very helpful.
– Rrz0
6 hours ago






Thanks for the answer. It feels as though I am still missing something fundamental, which I can't yet explain. It could be because I don't fully understand your last sentence. @Felthry I think that would actually be very helpful.
– Rrz0
6 hours ago














@Andyaka if there really is no relationship then is the thought process presented above incorrect?Am I going off on a tangent?
– Rrz0
4 hours ago




@Andyaka if there really is no relationship then is the thought process presented above incorrect?Am I going off on a tangent?
– Rrz0
4 hours ago


















 

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