Cramer-Rao Casella Berger 7.38 for exponential family












1












$begingroup$


The question states ''let $X_{1},...X_{n}$ be random sample from $f(x|theta)=thetacdot x^{theta-1}$ for $0<x<1 ;theta > 0$. Is there a function of $theta, g(theta)$ for which there exists an unbiased estimator of $theta$ whose variance $
textbf{attains}$ the cramer-rao lower bound ? if so find it!".



so we have an exponential family, and we can interchange differentiation and integration, so the fisher information term, denominator of the Cramer-Rao lower bound, I calculated as



$E(frac{partial}{partial theta}[Ln(theta cdot x^{theta-1})])^{2} = -n*E(frac{partial^{2}}{partial theta^{2}}(Ln(theta x^{theta-1}) implies frac{theta^{2}}{n}$ taking $frac{1}{I(theta)}$



Now just taking a stab the statistic I've used is $W(X)= overline{X}$ which I calculate to be UBE since EX $=frac{theta}{theta + 1}$ and thus E$[overline{X}]=frac{theta}{theta+1}$ from my calculations (hopefully right).



similarly, if I calculate the variance I get $frac{theta}{(theta + 1)^{2}(theta+2)} geq frac{theta^{2}}{n}$ satisfies the lower bound.



If I examine the MLE I find: $frac{n}{theta} + sum_{i}Ln(x_{i}) = 0 implies hat{theta_{MLE}} = frac{-n}{sum Ln(x_{i})}$.



the attainment theory states
begin{equation}
begin{split}
frac{n}{theta} + sum_{i}Ln(x_{i}) &= a(theta)[W(vec{x})-tau(theta)]\
&=n [frac{ sum Ln(x_{i})}{n} - frac{-1}{theta}]
end{split}
end{equation}
where if W(x) satisfies the above, then it is the best estimate for $tau$. We need to use Rao-Blackwell theorem for W in the above equation to show that $frac{1}{hat{theta_{MLE}}}$ is the best.



consider Y=log(X) now applying the transformation with the jacobian we have
begin{equation}
begin{split}
f_{X}(e^{y})= theta e^{y(theta-1)}cdot e^{y} = theta e^{ytheta} = f_{Y}(y)
end{split}
end{equation}

where EY = $frac{1}{theta}$ (Which I think is an unbiased estimator ? )



using the Rao-Blackwell Theorem let $theta^{star} = E[Y_{i} | sum y_{i} = t]$ where since $f_{Y}(y)$ is an exponential family then $sum y_{i}$ can be shown to be sufficient statistic.



then
begin{equation}
begin{split}
E[theta^{star}] &= E Big [ E[Y_{i} | sum y_{i} = t] Big ] \
&= E[theta^{star}] \
&= frac{1}{theta^{star}}
end{split}
end{equation}



which really fits into the attainment equation written above! so my guess is to let $W(vec{x}) = frac{1}{theta_{MLE}^{star}}$ be the best UBE (?)










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Are you sure about the Fisher information? I end up with a Fisher information of 1 variable given by: $frac{1}{theta^2}$. Which implies $frac{theta^2}{n}$ as a CR-LB. Also, I ended up with a different variance of $X$ and $overline X$. I got $text{Var}(X) = frac{theta}{(theta+1)^2(theta+2)}$. I'm not sure about an answer on the question yet... I'll have to let it sink in :)
    $endgroup$
    – dietervdf
    May 1 '17 at 2:14










  • $begingroup$
    yes you are correct. will update.
    $endgroup$
    – sophie-germain
    May 1 '17 at 2:26










  • $begingroup$
    see the related updates, this is very close to the correct answer I reckon , using the MLE, although now it seems like I have it close. is that the function we are looking for $g(theta) = frac{1}{theta}$? which will invert the last relation?
    $endgroup$
    – sophie-germain
    May 1 '17 at 2:50


















1












$begingroup$


The question states ''let $X_{1},...X_{n}$ be random sample from $f(x|theta)=thetacdot x^{theta-1}$ for $0<x<1 ;theta > 0$. Is there a function of $theta, g(theta)$ for which there exists an unbiased estimator of $theta$ whose variance $
textbf{attains}$ the cramer-rao lower bound ? if so find it!".



so we have an exponential family, and we can interchange differentiation and integration, so the fisher information term, denominator of the Cramer-Rao lower bound, I calculated as



$E(frac{partial}{partial theta}[Ln(theta cdot x^{theta-1})])^{2} = -n*E(frac{partial^{2}}{partial theta^{2}}(Ln(theta x^{theta-1}) implies frac{theta^{2}}{n}$ taking $frac{1}{I(theta)}$



Now just taking a stab the statistic I've used is $W(X)= overline{X}$ which I calculate to be UBE since EX $=frac{theta}{theta + 1}$ and thus E$[overline{X}]=frac{theta}{theta+1}$ from my calculations (hopefully right).



similarly, if I calculate the variance I get $frac{theta}{(theta + 1)^{2}(theta+2)} geq frac{theta^{2}}{n}$ satisfies the lower bound.



If I examine the MLE I find: $frac{n}{theta} + sum_{i}Ln(x_{i}) = 0 implies hat{theta_{MLE}} = frac{-n}{sum Ln(x_{i})}$.



the attainment theory states
begin{equation}
begin{split}
frac{n}{theta} + sum_{i}Ln(x_{i}) &= a(theta)[W(vec{x})-tau(theta)]\
&=n [frac{ sum Ln(x_{i})}{n} - frac{-1}{theta}]
end{split}
end{equation}
where if W(x) satisfies the above, then it is the best estimate for $tau$. We need to use Rao-Blackwell theorem for W in the above equation to show that $frac{1}{hat{theta_{MLE}}}$ is the best.



consider Y=log(X) now applying the transformation with the jacobian we have
begin{equation}
begin{split}
f_{X}(e^{y})= theta e^{y(theta-1)}cdot e^{y} = theta e^{ytheta} = f_{Y}(y)
end{split}
end{equation}

where EY = $frac{1}{theta}$ (Which I think is an unbiased estimator ? )



using the Rao-Blackwell Theorem let $theta^{star} = E[Y_{i} | sum y_{i} = t]$ where since $f_{Y}(y)$ is an exponential family then $sum y_{i}$ can be shown to be sufficient statistic.



then
begin{equation}
begin{split}
E[theta^{star}] &= E Big [ E[Y_{i} | sum y_{i} = t] Big ] \
&= E[theta^{star}] \
&= frac{1}{theta^{star}}
end{split}
end{equation}



which really fits into the attainment equation written above! so my guess is to let $W(vec{x}) = frac{1}{theta_{MLE}^{star}}$ be the best UBE (?)










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Are you sure about the Fisher information? I end up with a Fisher information of 1 variable given by: $frac{1}{theta^2}$. Which implies $frac{theta^2}{n}$ as a CR-LB. Also, I ended up with a different variance of $X$ and $overline X$. I got $text{Var}(X) = frac{theta}{(theta+1)^2(theta+2)}$. I'm not sure about an answer on the question yet... I'll have to let it sink in :)
    $endgroup$
    – dietervdf
    May 1 '17 at 2:14










  • $begingroup$
    yes you are correct. will update.
    $endgroup$
    – sophie-germain
    May 1 '17 at 2:26










  • $begingroup$
    see the related updates, this is very close to the correct answer I reckon , using the MLE, although now it seems like I have it close. is that the function we are looking for $g(theta) = frac{1}{theta}$? which will invert the last relation?
    $endgroup$
    – sophie-germain
    May 1 '17 at 2:50
















1












1








1





$begingroup$


The question states ''let $X_{1},...X_{n}$ be random sample from $f(x|theta)=thetacdot x^{theta-1}$ for $0<x<1 ;theta > 0$. Is there a function of $theta, g(theta)$ for which there exists an unbiased estimator of $theta$ whose variance $
textbf{attains}$ the cramer-rao lower bound ? if so find it!".



so we have an exponential family, and we can interchange differentiation and integration, so the fisher information term, denominator of the Cramer-Rao lower bound, I calculated as



$E(frac{partial}{partial theta}[Ln(theta cdot x^{theta-1})])^{2} = -n*E(frac{partial^{2}}{partial theta^{2}}(Ln(theta x^{theta-1}) implies frac{theta^{2}}{n}$ taking $frac{1}{I(theta)}$



Now just taking a stab the statistic I've used is $W(X)= overline{X}$ which I calculate to be UBE since EX $=frac{theta}{theta + 1}$ and thus E$[overline{X}]=frac{theta}{theta+1}$ from my calculations (hopefully right).



similarly, if I calculate the variance I get $frac{theta}{(theta + 1)^{2}(theta+2)} geq frac{theta^{2}}{n}$ satisfies the lower bound.



If I examine the MLE I find: $frac{n}{theta} + sum_{i}Ln(x_{i}) = 0 implies hat{theta_{MLE}} = frac{-n}{sum Ln(x_{i})}$.



the attainment theory states
begin{equation}
begin{split}
frac{n}{theta} + sum_{i}Ln(x_{i}) &= a(theta)[W(vec{x})-tau(theta)]\
&=n [frac{ sum Ln(x_{i})}{n} - frac{-1}{theta}]
end{split}
end{equation}
where if W(x) satisfies the above, then it is the best estimate for $tau$. We need to use Rao-Blackwell theorem for W in the above equation to show that $frac{1}{hat{theta_{MLE}}}$ is the best.



consider Y=log(X) now applying the transformation with the jacobian we have
begin{equation}
begin{split}
f_{X}(e^{y})= theta e^{y(theta-1)}cdot e^{y} = theta e^{ytheta} = f_{Y}(y)
end{split}
end{equation}

where EY = $frac{1}{theta}$ (Which I think is an unbiased estimator ? )



using the Rao-Blackwell Theorem let $theta^{star} = E[Y_{i} | sum y_{i} = t]$ where since $f_{Y}(y)$ is an exponential family then $sum y_{i}$ can be shown to be sufficient statistic.



then
begin{equation}
begin{split}
E[theta^{star}] &= E Big [ E[Y_{i} | sum y_{i} = t] Big ] \
&= E[theta^{star}] \
&= frac{1}{theta^{star}}
end{split}
end{equation}



which really fits into the attainment equation written above! so my guess is to let $W(vec{x}) = frac{1}{theta_{MLE}^{star}}$ be the best UBE (?)










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




The question states ''let $X_{1},...X_{n}$ be random sample from $f(x|theta)=thetacdot x^{theta-1}$ for $0<x<1 ;theta > 0$. Is there a function of $theta, g(theta)$ for which there exists an unbiased estimator of $theta$ whose variance $
textbf{attains}$ the cramer-rao lower bound ? if so find it!".



so we have an exponential family, and we can interchange differentiation and integration, so the fisher information term, denominator of the Cramer-Rao lower bound, I calculated as



$E(frac{partial}{partial theta}[Ln(theta cdot x^{theta-1})])^{2} = -n*E(frac{partial^{2}}{partial theta^{2}}(Ln(theta x^{theta-1}) implies frac{theta^{2}}{n}$ taking $frac{1}{I(theta)}$



Now just taking a stab the statistic I've used is $W(X)= overline{X}$ which I calculate to be UBE since EX $=frac{theta}{theta + 1}$ and thus E$[overline{X}]=frac{theta}{theta+1}$ from my calculations (hopefully right).



similarly, if I calculate the variance I get $frac{theta}{(theta + 1)^{2}(theta+2)} geq frac{theta^{2}}{n}$ satisfies the lower bound.



If I examine the MLE I find: $frac{n}{theta} + sum_{i}Ln(x_{i}) = 0 implies hat{theta_{MLE}} = frac{-n}{sum Ln(x_{i})}$.



the attainment theory states
begin{equation}
begin{split}
frac{n}{theta} + sum_{i}Ln(x_{i}) &= a(theta)[W(vec{x})-tau(theta)]\
&=n [frac{ sum Ln(x_{i})}{n} - frac{-1}{theta}]
end{split}
end{equation}
where if W(x) satisfies the above, then it is the best estimate for $tau$. We need to use Rao-Blackwell theorem for W in the above equation to show that $frac{1}{hat{theta_{MLE}}}$ is the best.



consider Y=log(X) now applying the transformation with the jacobian we have
begin{equation}
begin{split}
f_{X}(e^{y})= theta e^{y(theta-1)}cdot e^{y} = theta e^{ytheta} = f_{Y}(y)
end{split}
end{equation}

where EY = $frac{1}{theta}$ (Which I think is an unbiased estimator ? )



using the Rao-Blackwell Theorem let $theta^{star} = E[Y_{i} | sum y_{i} = t]$ where since $f_{Y}(y)$ is an exponential family then $sum y_{i}$ can be shown to be sufficient statistic.



then
begin{equation}
begin{split}
E[theta^{star}] &= E Big [ E[Y_{i} | sum y_{i} = t] Big ] \
&= E[theta^{star}] \
&= frac{1}{theta^{star}}
end{split}
end{equation}



which really fits into the attainment equation written above! so my guess is to let $W(vec{x}) = frac{1}{theta_{MLE}^{star}}$ be the best UBE (?)







statistics estimation variance upper-lower-bounds






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited May 1 '17 at 18:40







sophie-germain

















asked Apr 30 '17 at 22:58









sophie-germainsophie-germain

416511




416511








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Are you sure about the Fisher information? I end up with a Fisher information of 1 variable given by: $frac{1}{theta^2}$. Which implies $frac{theta^2}{n}$ as a CR-LB. Also, I ended up with a different variance of $X$ and $overline X$. I got $text{Var}(X) = frac{theta}{(theta+1)^2(theta+2)}$. I'm not sure about an answer on the question yet... I'll have to let it sink in :)
    $endgroup$
    – dietervdf
    May 1 '17 at 2:14










  • $begingroup$
    yes you are correct. will update.
    $endgroup$
    – sophie-germain
    May 1 '17 at 2:26










  • $begingroup$
    see the related updates, this is very close to the correct answer I reckon , using the MLE, although now it seems like I have it close. is that the function we are looking for $g(theta) = frac{1}{theta}$? which will invert the last relation?
    $endgroup$
    – sophie-germain
    May 1 '17 at 2:50
















  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Are you sure about the Fisher information? I end up with a Fisher information of 1 variable given by: $frac{1}{theta^2}$. Which implies $frac{theta^2}{n}$ as a CR-LB. Also, I ended up with a different variance of $X$ and $overline X$. I got $text{Var}(X) = frac{theta}{(theta+1)^2(theta+2)}$. I'm not sure about an answer on the question yet... I'll have to let it sink in :)
    $endgroup$
    – dietervdf
    May 1 '17 at 2:14










  • $begingroup$
    yes you are correct. will update.
    $endgroup$
    – sophie-germain
    May 1 '17 at 2:26










  • $begingroup$
    see the related updates, this is very close to the correct answer I reckon , using the MLE, although now it seems like I have it close. is that the function we are looking for $g(theta) = frac{1}{theta}$? which will invert the last relation?
    $endgroup$
    – sophie-germain
    May 1 '17 at 2:50










1




1




$begingroup$
Are you sure about the Fisher information? I end up with a Fisher information of 1 variable given by: $frac{1}{theta^2}$. Which implies $frac{theta^2}{n}$ as a CR-LB. Also, I ended up with a different variance of $X$ and $overline X$. I got $text{Var}(X) = frac{theta}{(theta+1)^2(theta+2)}$. I'm not sure about an answer on the question yet... I'll have to let it sink in :)
$endgroup$
– dietervdf
May 1 '17 at 2:14




$begingroup$
Are you sure about the Fisher information? I end up with a Fisher information of 1 variable given by: $frac{1}{theta^2}$. Which implies $frac{theta^2}{n}$ as a CR-LB. Also, I ended up with a different variance of $X$ and $overline X$. I got $text{Var}(X) = frac{theta}{(theta+1)^2(theta+2)}$. I'm not sure about an answer on the question yet... I'll have to let it sink in :)
$endgroup$
– dietervdf
May 1 '17 at 2:14












$begingroup$
yes you are correct. will update.
$endgroup$
– sophie-germain
May 1 '17 at 2:26




$begingroup$
yes you are correct. will update.
$endgroup$
– sophie-germain
May 1 '17 at 2:26












$begingroup$
see the related updates, this is very close to the correct answer I reckon , using the MLE, although now it seems like I have it close. is that the function we are looking for $g(theta) = frac{1}{theta}$? which will invert the last relation?
$endgroup$
– sophie-germain
May 1 '17 at 2:50






$begingroup$
see the related updates, this is very close to the correct answer I reckon , using the MLE, although now it seems like I have it close. is that the function we are looking for $g(theta) = frac{1}{theta}$? which will invert the last relation?
$endgroup$
– sophie-germain
May 1 '17 at 2:50












1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

In case you are still interested...



You could have been working with the equality condition of the Cramer-Rao inequality:



$$frac{partial}{partialtheta}ln f_{theta}(x_1,ldots,x_n)=k(theta)left(T(x_1,ldots,x_n)-g(theta)right)tag{*}$$



If $(*)$ holds, then variance of the statistic $T$ attains the Cramer-Rao lower bound for $g(theta)$.



Moreover, if $T$ is unbiased for $g(theta)$, then $T$ is the UMVUE of $g(theta)$.



Here joint density of $(X_1,ldots,X_n)$ is



begin{align}
f_{theta}(x_1,ldots,x_n)&=theta^nleft(prod_{i=1}^nx_iright)^{theta-1}mathbf1_{0<x_1,ldots,x_n<1}
\implies ln f_{theta}(x_1,ldots,x_n)&=nlntheta+(theta-1)sum_{i=1}^nln x_i+ln(mathbf1_{0<x_{(1)},x_{(n)}<1})
end{align}



So,



$$frac{partial}{partialtheta}ln f_{theta}(x_1,ldots,x_n)=frac{n}{theta}+sum_{i=1}^nln x_i=-nleft(-frac{1}{n}sum_{i=1}^nln x_i-frac{1}{theta}right)$$



This implies that variance of $T=-frac{1}{n}sum_{i=1}^nln X_i$ attains the Cramer-Rao lower bound for $1/theta$.



Besides,



begin{align}
E_{theta}(T)&=-frac{1}{n}sum_{i=1}^n E_{theta}(ln X_i)
\&=-frac{1}{n}sum_{i=1}^n left(-frac{1}{theta}right)=frac{1}{theta}
end{align}



So the function you are looking for is indeed $g(theta)=theta^{-1}$, but you have worked too hard for the answer.






share|cite|improve this answer









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    1 Answer
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    active

    oldest

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    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    0












    $begingroup$

    In case you are still interested...



    You could have been working with the equality condition of the Cramer-Rao inequality:



    $$frac{partial}{partialtheta}ln f_{theta}(x_1,ldots,x_n)=k(theta)left(T(x_1,ldots,x_n)-g(theta)right)tag{*}$$



    If $(*)$ holds, then variance of the statistic $T$ attains the Cramer-Rao lower bound for $g(theta)$.



    Moreover, if $T$ is unbiased for $g(theta)$, then $T$ is the UMVUE of $g(theta)$.



    Here joint density of $(X_1,ldots,X_n)$ is



    begin{align}
    f_{theta}(x_1,ldots,x_n)&=theta^nleft(prod_{i=1}^nx_iright)^{theta-1}mathbf1_{0<x_1,ldots,x_n<1}
    \implies ln f_{theta}(x_1,ldots,x_n)&=nlntheta+(theta-1)sum_{i=1}^nln x_i+ln(mathbf1_{0<x_{(1)},x_{(n)}<1})
    end{align}



    So,



    $$frac{partial}{partialtheta}ln f_{theta}(x_1,ldots,x_n)=frac{n}{theta}+sum_{i=1}^nln x_i=-nleft(-frac{1}{n}sum_{i=1}^nln x_i-frac{1}{theta}right)$$



    This implies that variance of $T=-frac{1}{n}sum_{i=1}^nln X_i$ attains the Cramer-Rao lower bound for $1/theta$.



    Besides,



    begin{align}
    E_{theta}(T)&=-frac{1}{n}sum_{i=1}^n E_{theta}(ln X_i)
    \&=-frac{1}{n}sum_{i=1}^n left(-frac{1}{theta}right)=frac{1}{theta}
    end{align}



    So the function you are looking for is indeed $g(theta)=theta^{-1}$, but you have worked too hard for the answer.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      In case you are still interested...



      You could have been working with the equality condition of the Cramer-Rao inequality:



      $$frac{partial}{partialtheta}ln f_{theta}(x_1,ldots,x_n)=k(theta)left(T(x_1,ldots,x_n)-g(theta)right)tag{*}$$



      If $(*)$ holds, then variance of the statistic $T$ attains the Cramer-Rao lower bound for $g(theta)$.



      Moreover, if $T$ is unbiased for $g(theta)$, then $T$ is the UMVUE of $g(theta)$.



      Here joint density of $(X_1,ldots,X_n)$ is



      begin{align}
      f_{theta}(x_1,ldots,x_n)&=theta^nleft(prod_{i=1}^nx_iright)^{theta-1}mathbf1_{0<x_1,ldots,x_n<1}
      \implies ln f_{theta}(x_1,ldots,x_n)&=nlntheta+(theta-1)sum_{i=1}^nln x_i+ln(mathbf1_{0<x_{(1)},x_{(n)}<1})
      end{align}



      So,



      $$frac{partial}{partialtheta}ln f_{theta}(x_1,ldots,x_n)=frac{n}{theta}+sum_{i=1}^nln x_i=-nleft(-frac{1}{n}sum_{i=1}^nln x_i-frac{1}{theta}right)$$



      This implies that variance of $T=-frac{1}{n}sum_{i=1}^nln X_i$ attains the Cramer-Rao lower bound for $1/theta$.



      Besides,



      begin{align}
      E_{theta}(T)&=-frac{1}{n}sum_{i=1}^n E_{theta}(ln X_i)
      \&=-frac{1}{n}sum_{i=1}^n left(-frac{1}{theta}right)=frac{1}{theta}
      end{align}



      So the function you are looking for is indeed $g(theta)=theta^{-1}$, but you have worked too hard for the answer.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        In case you are still interested...



        You could have been working with the equality condition of the Cramer-Rao inequality:



        $$frac{partial}{partialtheta}ln f_{theta}(x_1,ldots,x_n)=k(theta)left(T(x_1,ldots,x_n)-g(theta)right)tag{*}$$



        If $(*)$ holds, then variance of the statistic $T$ attains the Cramer-Rao lower bound for $g(theta)$.



        Moreover, if $T$ is unbiased for $g(theta)$, then $T$ is the UMVUE of $g(theta)$.



        Here joint density of $(X_1,ldots,X_n)$ is



        begin{align}
        f_{theta}(x_1,ldots,x_n)&=theta^nleft(prod_{i=1}^nx_iright)^{theta-1}mathbf1_{0<x_1,ldots,x_n<1}
        \implies ln f_{theta}(x_1,ldots,x_n)&=nlntheta+(theta-1)sum_{i=1}^nln x_i+ln(mathbf1_{0<x_{(1)},x_{(n)}<1})
        end{align}



        So,



        $$frac{partial}{partialtheta}ln f_{theta}(x_1,ldots,x_n)=frac{n}{theta}+sum_{i=1}^nln x_i=-nleft(-frac{1}{n}sum_{i=1}^nln x_i-frac{1}{theta}right)$$



        This implies that variance of $T=-frac{1}{n}sum_{i=1}^nln X_i$ attains the Cramer-Rao lower bound for $1/theta$.



        Besides,



        begin{align}
        E_{theta}(T)&=-frac{1}{n}sum_{i=1}^n E_{theta}(ln X_i)
        \&=-frac{1}{n}sum_{i=1}^n left(-frac{1}{theta}right)=frac{1}{theta}
        end{align}



        So the function you are looking for is indeed $g(theta)=theta^{-1}$, but you have worked too hard for the answer.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        In case you are still interested...



        You could have been working with the equality condition of the Cramer-Rao inequality:



        $$frac{partial}{partialtheta}ln f_{theta}(x_1,ldots,x_n)=k(theta)left(T(x_1,ldots,x_n)-g(theta)right)tag{*}$$



        If $(*)$ holds, then variance of the statistic $T$ attains the Cramer-Rao lower bound for $g(theta)$.



        Moreover, if $T$ is unbiased for $g(theta)$, then $T$ is the UMVUE of $g(theta)$.



        Here joint density of $(X_1,ldots,X_n)$ is



        begin{align}
        f_{theta}(x_1,ldots,x_n)&=theta^nleft(prod_{i=1}^nx_iright)^{theta-1}mathbf1_{0<x_1,ldots,x_n<1}
        \implies ln f_{theta}(x_1,ldots,x_n)&=nlntheta+(theta-1)sum_{i=1}^nln x_i+ln(mathbf1_{0<x_{(1)},x_{(n)}<1})
        end{align}



        So,



        $$frac{partial}{partialtheta}ln f_{theta}(x_1,ldots,x_n)=frac{n}{theta}+sum_{i=1}^nln x_i=-nleft(-frac{1}{n}sum_{i=1}^nln x_i-frac{1}{theta}right)$$



        This implies that variance of $T=-frac{1}{n}sum_{i=1}^nln X_i$ attains the Cramer-Rao lower bound for $1/theta$.



        Besides,



        begin{align}
        E_{theta}(T)&=-frac{1}{n}sum_{i=1}^n E_{theta}(ln X_i)
        \&=-frac{1}{n}sum_{i=1}^n left(-frac{1}{theta}right)=frac{1}{theta}
        end{align}



        So the function you are looking for is indeed $g(theta)=theta^{-1}$, but you have worked too hard for the answer.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 8 '18 at 8:01









        StubbornAtomStubbornAtom

        5,97311238




        5,97311238






























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