How to prove #R + #P = #R












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I have already started this. I redefined the Reals as the Reals minus the Positive Integers (to make the two sets disjoint) so that I could prove that #(R - P) + #P = #R. I know that to prove this I will have to prove that #(R - P) = #(R). I would have to define a bijection, f:(R-P) -> R. I am having trouble coming up with a formula that will map the (R-P) to R. If anyone could point me in the right direction I would really appreciate it. Thanks










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  • $begingroup$
    Wait, so you're trying to prove $#(Bbb RbackslashBbb P)+#Bbb P=#Bbb R$ with $Bbb P:={xinBbb Z|x>0}$? Well, $#(Abackslash B)+#B=#A$ works for any sets $A,,B$ with $Bsubseteq A$, so perhaps I've misunderstood; perhaps you're trying to prove something less trivial.
    $endgroup$
    – J.G.
    Dec 8 '18 at 21:49












  • $begingroup$
    I am trying to prove #(reals) + #(positive integers) = #(reals) by defining a bijection f: (R-P) --> R. I'm really sorry if my question is confusing.
    $endgroup$
    – JaneDoe1094
    Dec 8 '18 at 22:09
















0












$begingroup$


I have already started this. I redefined the Reals as the Reals minus the Positive Integers (to make the two sets disjoint) so that I could prove that #(R - P) + #P = #R. I know that to prove this I will have to prove that #(R - P) = #(R). I would have to define a bijection, f:(R-P) -> R. I am having trouble coming up with a formula that will map the (R-P) to R. If anyone could point me in the right direction I would really appreciate it. Thanks










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Wait, so you're trying to prove $#(Bbb RbackslashBbb P)+#Bbb P=#Bbb R$ with $Bbb P:={xinBbb Z|x>0}$? Well, $#(Abackslash B)+#B=#A$ works for any sets $A,,B$ with $Bsubseteq A$, so perhaps I've misunderstood; perhaps you're trying to prove something less trivial.
    $endgroup$
    – J.G.
    Dec 8 '18 at 21:49












  • $begingroup$
    I am trying to prove #(reals) + #(positive integers) = #(reals) by defining a bijection f: (R-P) --> R. I'm really sorry if my question is confusing.
    $endgroup$
    – JaneDoe1094
    Dec 8 '18 at 22:09














0












0








0





$begingroup$


I have already started this. I redefined the Reals as the Reals minus the Positive Integers (to make the two sets disjoint) so that I could prove that #(R - P) + #P = #R. I know that to prove this I will have to prove that #(R - P) = #(R). I would have to define a bijection, f:(R-P) -> R. I am having trouble coming up with a formula that will map the (R-P) to R. If anyone could point me in the right direction I would really appreciate it. Thanks










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I have already started this. I redefined the Reals as the Reals minus the Positive Integers (to make the two sets disjoint) so that I could prove that #(R - P) + #P = #R. I know that to prove this I will have to prove that #(R - P) = #(R). I would have to define a bijection, f:(R-P) -> R. I am having trouble coming up with a formula that will map the (R-P) to R. If anyone could point me in the right direction I would really appreciate it. Thanks







cardinals integers






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asked Dec 8 '18 at 21:36









JaneDoe1094JaneDoe1094

1




1












  • $begingroup$
    Wait, so you're trying to prove $#(Bbb RbackslashBbb P)+#Bbb P=#Bbb R$ with $Bbb P:={xinBbb Z|x>0}$? Well, $#(Abackslash B)+#B=#A$ works for any sets $A,,B$ with $Bsubseteq A$, so perhaps I've misunderstood; perhaps you're trying to prove something less trivial.
    $endgroup$
    – J.G.
    Dec 8 '18 at 21:49












  • $begingroup$
    I am trying to prove #(reals) + #(positive integers) = #(reals) by defining a bijection f: (R-P) --> R. I'm really sorry if my question is confusing.
    $endgroup$
    – JaneDoe1094
    Dec 8 '18 at 22:09


















  • $begingroup$
    Wait, so you're trying to prove $#(Bbb RbackslashBbb P)+#Bbb P=#Bbb R$ with $Bbb P:={xinBbb Z|x>0}$? Well, $#(Abackslash B)+#B=#A$ works for any sets $A,,B$ with $Bsubseteq A$, so perhaps I've misunderstood; perhaps you're trying to prove something less trivial.
    $endgroup$
    – J.G.
    Dec 8 '18 at 21:49












  • $begingroup$
    I am trying to prove #(reals) + #(positive integers) = #(reals) by defining a bijection f: (R-P) --> R. I'm really sorry if my question is confusing.
    $endgroup$
    – JaneDoe1094
    Dec 8 '18 at 22:09
















$begingroup$
Wait, so you're trying to prove $#(Bbb RbackslashBbb P)+#Bbb P=#Bbb R$ with $Bbb P:={xinBbb Z|x>0}$? Well, $#(Abackslash B)+#B=#A$ works for any sets $A,,B$ with $Bsubseteq A$, so perhaps I've misunderstood; perhaps you're trying to prove something less trivial.
$endgroup$
– J.G.
Dec 8 '18 at 21:49






$begingroup$
Wait, so you're trying to prove $#(Bbb RbackslashBbb P)+#Bbb P=#Bbb R$ with $Bbb P:={xinBbb Z|x>0}$? Well, $#(Abackslash B)+#B=#A$ works for any sets $A,,B$ with $Bsubseteq A$, so perhaps I've misunderstood; perhaps you're trying to prove something less trivial.
$endgroup$
– J.G.
Dec 8 '18 at 21:49














$begingroup$
I am trying to prove #(reals) + #(positive integers) = #(reals) by defining a bijection f: (R-P) --> R. I'm really sorry if my question is confusing.
$endgroup$
– JaneDoe1094
Dec 8 '18 at 22:09




$begingroup$
I am trying to prove #(reals) + #(positive integers) = #(reals) by defining a bijection f: (R-P) --> R. I'm really sorry if my question is confusing.
$endgroup$
– JaneDoe1094
Dec 8 '18 at 22:09










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Do you know how to biject $[0,1)$ with $(0,1)$? You can then use the identity on $(-infty,0)$ and map $[n,n+1)$ to $(n,n+1)$






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    1 Answer
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    0












    $begingroup$

    Do you know how to biject $[0,1)$ with $(0,1)$? You can then use the identity on $(-infty,0)$ and map $[n,n+1)$ to $(n,n+1)$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      Do you know how to biject $[0,1)$ with $(0,1)$? You can then use the identity on $(-infty,0)$ and map $[n,n+1)$ to $(n,n+1)$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















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        0





        $begingroup$

        Do you know how to biject $[0,1)$ with $(0,1)$? You can then use the identity on $(-infty,0)$ and map $[n,n+1)$ to $(n,n+1)$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Do you know how to biject $[0,1)$ with $(0,1)$? You can then use the identity on $(-infty,0)$ and map $[n,n+1)$ to $(n,n+1)$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 8 '18 at 22:16









        Ross MillikanRoss Millikan

        296k23198371




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