How would I prove that the determinant reduced Laplacian of a graph is independent of the choice of $i$?












2












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My homework problem gives us the definition of the Laplacian matrix $L(G)$ of the graph (the degree matrix minus the adjacency matrix) and the reduced Laplacian $L^i(G)$ (remove the $i^{th}$ row and column from the Laplacian) and asks us to prove that $det(L^i(G))$ is independent of the choice for $i$ if $G$ is simple and connected. I've written out the Laplacian for several graphs and convinced myself empirically that it's true, but I don't know how to start proving it in the general case. I also noticed that adding up any row or column will give us 0, which is pretty intuitively clear as the degree of a vertex is the sum of the neighbors, and so you'd end up with as many $-1$s in the rows or columns as the degree. But don't know how this result helps me.



Any suggestions?



Thanks!










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    $begingroup$


    My homework problem gives us the definition of the Laplacian matrix $L(G)$ of the graph (the degree matrix minus the adjacency matrix) and the reduced Laplacian $L^i(G)$ (remove the $i^{th}$ row and column from the Laplacian) and asks us to prove that $det(L^i(G))$ is independent of the choice for $i$ if $G$ is simple and connected. I've written out the Laplacian for several graphs and convinced myself empirically that it's true, but I don't know how to start proving it in the general case. I also noticed that adding up any row or column will give us 0, which is pretty intuitively clear as the degree of a vertex is the sum of the neighbors, and so you'd end up with as many $-1$s in the rows or columns as the degree. But don't know how this result helps me.



    Any suggestions?



    Thanks!










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      2












      2








      2


      1



      $begingroup$


      My homework problem gives us the definition of the Laplacian matrix $L(G)$ of the graph (the degree matrix minus the adjacency matrix) and the reduced Laplacian $L^i(G)$ (remove the $i^{th}$ row and column from the Laplacian) and asks us to prove that $det(L^i(G))$ is independent of the choice for $i$ if $G$ is simple and connected. I've written out the Laplacian for several graphs and convinced myself empirically that it's true, but I don't know how to start proving it in the general case. I also noticed that adding up any row or column will give us 0, which is pretty intuitively clear as the degree of a vertex is the sum of the neighbors, and so you'd end up with as many $-1$s in the rows or columns as the degree. But don't know how this result helps me.



      Any suggestions?



      Thanks!










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      My homework problem gives us the definition of the Laplacian matrix $L(G)$ of the graph (the degree matrix minus the adjacency matrix) and the reduced Laplacian $L^i(G)$ (remove the $i^{th}$ row and column from the Laplacian) and asks us to prove that $det(L^i(G))$ is independent of the choice for $i$ if $G$ is simple and connected. I've written out the Laplacian for several graphs and convinced myself empirically that it's true, but I don't know how to start proving it in the general case. I also noticed that adding up any row or column will give us 0, which is pretty intuitively clear as the degree of a vertex is the sum of the neighbors, and so you'd end up with as many $-1$s in the rows or columns as the degree. But don't know how this result helps me.



      Any suggestions?



      Thanks!







      linear-algebra graph-theory graph-laplacian






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      edited Jan 22 '15 at 3:43









      hardmath

      29k95298




      29k95298










      asked Oct 3 '13 at 19:02









      walkarwalkar

      2,4661024




      2,4661024






















          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          This is in fact Kirchhoff's theorem which states that $$det(L^{i}(G)) = tau(G)$$ where $tau(G)$ is the number of spanning trees of $G.$



          If this is not a sufficient argument let me know and I can prove the fact by more concrete means. The key in proving this is to observe that $L(G) = D(G)D(G)^t$ where $D(G)$ is the incidence matrix of $G.$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            This kind of our first exposure to turning graphs into matrices, and we haven't used incidence matrices or anything like that. Would there be another way to prove it?
            $endgroup$
            – walkar
            Oct 3 '13 at 19:22










          • $begingroup$
            What is wrong with using Kirchhoff theorem then? You can quickly prove it using induction. See mathoverflow.net/questions/73385/…
            $endgroup$
            – Jernej
            Oct 3 '13 at 19:25











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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          0












          $begingroup$

          This is in fact Kirchhoff's theorem which states that $$det(L^{i}(G)) = tau(G)$$ where $tau(G)$ is the number of spanning trees of $G.$



          If this is not a sufficient argument let me know and I can prove the fact by more concrete means. The key in proving this is to observe that $L(G) = D(G)D(G)^t$ where $D(G)$ is the incidence matrix of $G.$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            This kind of our first exposure to turning graphs into matrices, and we haven't used incidence matrices or anything like that. Would there be another way to prove it?
            $endgroup$
            – walkar
            Oct 3 '13 at 19:22










          • $begingroup$
            What is wrong with using Kirchhoff theorem then? You can quickly prove it using induction. See mathoverflow.net/questions/73385/…
            $endgroup$
            – Jernej
            Oct 3 '13 at 19:25
















          0












          $begingroup$

          This is in fact Kirchhoff's theorem which states that $$det(L^{i}(G)) = tau(G)$$ where $tau(G)$ is the number of spanning trees of $G.$



          If this is not a sufficient argument let me know and I can prove the fact by more concrete means. The key in proving this is to observe that $L(G) = D(G)D(G)^t$ where $D(G)$ is the incidence matrix of $G.$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            This kind of our first exposure to turning graphs into matrices, and we haven't used incidence matrices or anything like that. Would there be another way to prove it?
            $endgroup$
            – walkar
            Oct 3 '13 at 19:22










          • $begingroup$
            What is wrong with using Kirchhoff theorem then? You can quickly prove it using induction. See mathoverflow.net/questions/73385/…
            $endgroup$
            – Jernej
            Oct 3 '13 at 19:25














          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          This is in fact Kirchhoff's theorem which states that $$det(L^{i}(G)) = tau(G)$$ where $tau(G)$ is the number of spanning trees of $G.$



          If this is not a sufficient argument let me know and I can prove the fact by more concrete means. The key in proving this is to observe that $L(G) = D(G)D(G)^t$ where $D(G)$ is the incidence matrix of $G.$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          This is in fact Kirchhoff's theorem which states that $$det(L^{i}(G)) = tau(G)$$ where $tau(G)$ is the number of spanning trees of $G.$



          If this is not a sufficient argument let me know and I can prove the fact by more concrete means. The key in proving this is to observe that $L(G) = D(G)D(G)^t$ where $D(G)$ is the incidence matrix of $G.$







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Dec 10 '18 at 18:52









          Zach Langley

          9731019




          9731019










          answered Oct 3 '13 at 19:17









          JernejJernej

          2,8211939




          2,8211939












          • $begingroup$
            This kind of our first exposure to turning graphs into matrices, and we haven't used incidence matrices or anything like that. Would there be another way to prove it?
            $endgroup$
            – walkar
            Oct 3 '13 at 19:22










          • $begingroup$
            What is wrong with using Kirchhoff theorem then? You can quickly prove it using induction. See mathoverflow.net/questions/73385/…
            $endgroup$
            – Jernej
            Oct 3 '13 at 19:25


















          • $begingroup$
            This kind of our first exposure to turning graphs into matrices, and we haven't used incidence matrices or anything like that. Would there be another way to prove it?
            $endgroup$
            – walkar
            Oct 3 '13 at 19:22










          • $begingroup$
            What is wrong with using Kirchhoff theorem then? You can quickly prove it using induction. See mathoverflow.net/questions/73385/…
            $endgroup$
            – Jernej
            Oct 3 '13 at 19:25
















          $begingroup$
          This kind of our first exposure to turning graphs into matrices, and we haven't used incidence matrices or anything like that. Would there be another way to prove it?
          $endgroup$
          – walkar
          Oct 3 '13 at 19:22




          $begingroup$
          This kind of our first exposure to turning graphs into matrices, and we haven't used incidence matrices or anything like that. Would there be another way to prove it?
          $endgroup$
          – walkar
          Oct 3 '13 at 19:22












          $begingroup$
          What is wrong with using Kirchhoff theorem then? You can quickly prove it using induction. See mathoverflow.net/questions/73385/…
          $endgroup$
          – Jernej
          Oct 3 '13 at 19:25




          $begingroup$
          What is wrong with using Kirchhoff theorem then? You can quickly prove it using induction. See mathoverflow.net/questions/73385/…
          $endgroup$
          – Jernej
          Oct 3 '13 at 19:25


















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