How would I prove that the determinant reduced Laplacian of a graph is independent of the choice of $i$?
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My homework problem gives us the definition of the Laplacian matrix $L(G)$ of the graph (the degree matrix minus the adjacency matrix) and the reduced Laplacian $L^i(G)$ (remove the $i^{th}$ row and column from the Laplacian) and asks us to prove that $det(L^i(G))$ is independent of the choice for $i$ if $G$ is simple and connected. I've written out the Laplacian for several graphs and convinced myself empirically that it's true, but I don't know how to start proving it in the general case. I also noticed that adding up any row or column will give us 0, which is pretty intuitively clear as the degree of a vertex is the sum of the neighbors, and so you'd end up with as many $-1$s in the rows or columns as the degree. But don't know how this result helps me.
Any suggestions?
Thanks!
linear-algebra graph-theory graph-laplacian
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
My homework problem gives us the definition of the Laplacian matrix $L(G)$ of the graph (the degree matrix minus the adjacency matrix) and the reduced Laplacian $L^i(G)$ (remove the $i^{th}$ row and column from the Laplacian) and asks us to prove that $det(L^i(G))$ is independent of the choice for $i$ if $G$ is simple and connected. I've written out the Laplacian for several graphs and convinced myself empirically that it's true, but I don't know how to start proving it in the general case. I also noticed that adding up any row or column will give us 0, which is pretty intuitively clear as the degree of a vertex is the sum of the neighbors, and so you'd end up with as many $-1$s in the rows or columns as the degree. But don't know how this result helps me.
Any suggestions?
Thanks!
linear-algebra graph-theory graph-laplacian
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
My homework problem gives us the definition of the Laplacian matrix $L(G)$ of the graph (the degree matrix minus the adjacency matrix) and the reduced Laplacian $L^i(G)$ (remove the $i^{th}$ row and column from the Laplacian) and asks us to prove that $det(L^i(G))$ is independent of the choice for $i$ if $G$ is simple and connected. I've written out the Laplacian for several graphs and convinced myself empirically that it's true, but I don't know how to start proving it in the general case. I also noticed that adding up any row or column will give us 0, which is pretty intuitively clear as the degree of a vertex is the sum of the neighbors, and so you'd end up with as many $-1$s in the rows or columns as the degree. But don't know how this result helps me.
Any suggestions?
Thanks!
linear-algebra graph-theory graph-laplacian
$endgroup$
My homework problem gives us the definition of the Laplacian matrix $L(G)$ of the graph (the degree matrix minus the adjacency matrix) and the reduced Laplacian $L^i(G)$ (remove the $i^{th}$ row and column from the Laplacian) and asks us to prove that $det(L^i(G))$ is independent of the choice for $i$ if $G$ is simple and connected. I've written out the Laplacian for several graphs and convinced myself empirically that it's true, but I don't know how to start proving it in the general case. I also noticed that adding up any row or column will give us 0, which is pretty intuitively clear as the degree of a vertex is the sum of the neighbors, and so you'd end up with as many $-1$s in the rows or columns as the degree. But don't know how this result helps me.
Any suggestions?
Thanks!
linear-algebra graph-theory graph-laplacian
linear-algebra graph-theory graph-laplacian
edited Jan 22 '15 at 3:43
hardmath
29k95298
29k95298
asked Oct 3 '13 at 19:02
walkarwalkar
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2,4661024
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This is in fact Kirchhoff's theorem which states that $$det(L^{i}(G)) = tau(G)$$ where $tau(G)$ is the number of spanning trees of $G.$
If this is not a sufficient argument let me know and I can prove the fact by more concrete means. The key in proving this is to observe that $L(G) = D(G)D(G)^t$ where $D(G)$ is the incidence matrix of $G.$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
This kind of our first exposure to turning graphs into matrices, and we haven't used incidence matrices or anything like that. Would there be another way to prove it?
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– walkar
Oct 3 '13 at 19:22
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What is wrong with using Kirchhoff theorem then? You can quickly prove it using induction. See mathoverflow.net/questions/73385/…
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– Jernej
Oct 3 '13 at 19:25
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
This is in fact Kirchhoff's theorem which states that $$det(L^{i}(G)) = tau(G)$$ where $tau(G)$ is the number of spanning trees of $G.$
If this is not a sufficient argument let me know and I can prove the fact by more concrete means. The key in proving this is to observe that $L(G) = D(G)D(G)^t$ where $D(G)$ is the incidence matrix of $G.$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
This kind of our first exposure to turning graphs into matrices, and we haven't used incidence matrices or anything like that. Would there be another way to prove it?
$endgroup$
– walkar
Oct 3 '13 at 19:22
$begingroup$
What is wrong with using Kirchhoff theorem then? You can quickly prove it using induction. See mathoverflow.net/questions/73385/…
$endgroup$
– Jernej
Oct 3 '13 at 19:25
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This is in fact Kirchhoff's theorem which states that $$det(L^{i}(G)) = tau(G)$$ where $tau(G)$ is the number of spanning trees of $G.$
If this is not a sufficient argument let me know and I can prove the fact by more concrete means. The key in proving this is to observe that $L(G) = D(G)D(G)^t$ where $D(G)$ is the incidence matrix of $G.$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
This kind of our first exposure to turning graphs into matrices, and we haven't used incidence matrices or anything like that. Would there be another way to prove it?
$endgroup$
– walkar
Oct 3 '13 at 19:22
$begingroup$
What is wrong with using Kirchhoff theorem then? You can quickly prove it using induction. See mathoverflow.net/questions/73385/…
$endgroup$
– Jernej
Oct 3 '13 at 19:25
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This is in fact Kirchhoff's theorem which states that $$det(L^{i}(G)) = tau(G)$$ where $tau(G)$ is the number of spanning trees of $G.$
If this is not a sufficient argument let me know and I can prove the fact by more concrete means. The key in proving this is to observe that $L(G) = D(G)D(G)^t$ where $D(G)$ is the incidence matrix of $G.$
$endgroup$
This is in fact Kirchhoff's theorem which states that $$det(L^{i}(G)) = tau(G)$$ where $tau(G)$ is the number of spanning trees of $G.$
If this is not a sufficient argument let me know and I can prove the fact by more concrete means. The key in proving this is to observe that $L(G) = D(G)D(G)^t$ where $D(G)$ is the incidence matrix of $G.$
edited Dec 10 '18 at 18:52
Zach Langley
9731019
9731019
answered Oct 3 '13 at 19:17
JernejJernej
2,8211939
2,8211939
$begingroup$
This kind of our first exposure to turning graphs into matrices, and we haven't used incidence matrices or anything like that. Would there be another way to prove it?
$endgroup$
– walkar
Oct 3 '13 at 19:22
$begingroup$
What is wrong with using Kirchhoff theorem then? You can quickly prove it using induction. See mathoverflow.net/questions/73385/…
$endgroup$
– Jernej
Oct 3 '13 at 19:25
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This kind of our first exposure to turning graphs into matrices, and we haven't used incidence matrices or anything like that. Would there be another way to prove it?
$endgroup$
– walkar
Oct 3 '13 at 19:22
$begingroup$
What is wrong with using Kirchhoff theorem then? You can quickly prove it using induction. See mathoverflow.net/questions/73385/…
$endgroup$
– Jernej
Oct 3 '13 at 19:25
$begingroup$
This kind of our first exposure to turning graphs into matrices, and we haven't used incidence matrices or anything like that. Would there be another way to prove it?
$endgroup$
– walkar
Oct 3 '13 at 19:22
$begingroup$
This kind of our first exposure to turning graphs into matrices, and we haven't used incidence matrices or anything like that. Would there be another way to prove it?
$endgroup$
– walkar
Oct 3 '13 at 19:22
$begingroup$
What is wrong with using Kirchhoff theorem then? You can quickly prove it using induction. See mathoverflow.net/questions/73385/…
$endgroup$
– Jernej
Oct 3 '13 at 19:25
$begingroup$
What is wrong with using Kirchhoff theorem then? You can quickly prove it using induction. See mathoverflow.net/questions/73385/…
$endgroup$
– Jernej
Oct 3 '13 at 19:25
add a comment |
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