Conditions for two linearly independent solutions of the ODE representation of a diffusion to be global...












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$begingroup$


Let $W_t$ be a Brownian Motion, $X_t$ and $M(t)$ be two stochastic processes:
$$X_t=adt+bdW_t$$
$$M(t)=e^{-lambda t}Phi(X_t)$$
where $Phi$ is a deterministic function determined from the requirement that $M_t$ is a martingale and $X_t$ assumed to have values in the interval $[L,U]$.



By applying Ito's lemma and fixing the zero drift, we get
$$lambdaPhi(X_t)=aPhi^prime (X_t)+frac{b^2}{2}Phi^{primeprime}(X_t)$$
which can be represented by the ODE $lambdaPhi(x)=aPhi^prime(x)+frac{b^2}{2}Phi^{primeprime}(x)$, which has two linearly independent solutions, $phi_1(x)$ and $phi_2(x)$, yielding two local martingales: $M_{1,2}(t)=e^{-lambda t}phi_{1,2}(X_t)$.



What else do I need in order to get that $M_{1,2}(t)$ are global martingales?
Suppose that $X_t$ does not have any singular point. Does this suffice to get that $M_{1,2}(t)$ are bounded?










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    If $X$ is bounded as you assume, then $M$, being a bounded local martingale, is a true martingale. But unless $b=0$, how can $X$ be bounded?
    $endgroup$
    – AddSup
    Dec 16 '18 at 6:33










  • $begingroup$
    @AddSup that's why I was thinking of a condition on X. This is a hitting probability exercise where the two bounds are $L$ and $U$, respectively. Absence of singular point should imply that the function is smooth.
    $endgroup$
    – FunnyBuzer
    Dec 17 '18 at 8:50
















0












$begingroup$


Let $W_t$ be a Brownian Motion, $X_t$ and $M(t)$ be two stochastic processes:
$$X_t=adt+bdW_t$$
$$M(t)=e^{-lambda t}Phi(X_t)$$
where $Phi$ is a deterministic function determined from the requirement that $M_t$ is a martingale and $X_t$ assumed to have values in the interval $[L,U]$.



By applying Ito's lemma and fixing the zero drift, we get
$$lambdaPhi(X_t)=aPhi^prime (X_t)+frac{b^2}{2}Phi^{primeprime}(X_t)$$
which can be represented by the ODE $lambdaPhi(x)=aPhi^prime(x)+frac{b^2}{2}Phi^{primeprime}(x)$, which has two linearly independent solutions, $phi_1(x)$ and $phi_2(x)$, yielding two local martingales: $M_{1,2}(t)=e^{-lambda t}phi_{1,2}(X_t)$.



What else do I need in order to get that $M_{1,2}(t)$ are global martingales?
Suppose that $X_t$ does not have any singular point. Does this suffice to get that $M_{1,2}(t)$ are bounded?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    If $X$ is bounded as you assume, then $M$, being a bounded local martingale, is a true martingale. But unless $b=0$, how can $X$ be bounded?
    $endgroup$
    – AddSup
    Dec 16 '18 at 6:33










  • $begingroup$
    @AddSup that's why I was thinking of a condition on X. This is a hitting probability exercise where the two bounds are $L$ and $U$, respectively. Absence of singular point should imply that the function is smooth.
    $endgroup$
    – FunnyBuzer
    Dec 17 '18 at 8:50














0












0








0


2



$begingroup$


Let $W_t$ be a Brownian Motion, $X_t$ and $M(t)$ be two stochastic processes:
$$X_t=adt+bdW_t$$
$$M(t)=e^{-lambda t}Phi(X_t)$$
where $Phi$ is a deterministic function determined from the requirement that $M_t$ is a martingale and $X_t$ assumed to have values in the interval $[L,U]$.



By applying Ito's lemma and fixing the zero drift, we get
$$lambdaPhi(X_t)=aPhi^prime (X_t)+frac{b^2}{2}Phi^{primeprime}(X_t)$$
which can be represented by the ODE $lambdaPhi(x)=aPhi^prime(x)+frac{b^2}{2}Phi^{primeprime}(x)$, which has two linearly independent solutions, $phi_1(x)$ and $phi_2(x)$, yielding two local martingales: $M_{1,2}(t)=e^{-lambda t}phi_{1,2}(X_t)$.



What else do I need in order to get that $M_{1,2}(t)$ are global martingales?
Suppose that $X_t$ does not have any singular point. Does this suffice to get that $M_{1,2}(t)$ are bounded?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Let $W_t$ be a Brownian Motion, $X_t$ and $M(t)$ be two stochastic processes:
$$X_t=adt+bdW_t$$
$$M(t)=e^{-lambda t}Phi(X_t)$$
where $Phi$ is a deterministic function determined from the requirement that $M_t$ is a martingale and $X_t$ assumed to have values in the interval $[L,U]$.



By applying Ito's lemma and fixing the zero drift, we get
$$lambdaPhi(X_t)=aPhi^prime (X_t)+frac{b^2}{2}Phi^{primeprime}(X_t)$$
which can be represented by the ODE $lambdaPhi(x)=aPhi^prime(x)+frac{b^2}{2}Phi^{primeprime}(x)$, which has two linearly independent solutions, $phi_1(x)$ and $phi_2(x)$, yielding two local martingales: $M_{1,2}(t)=e^{-lambda t}phi_{1,2}(X_t)$.



What else do I need in order to get that $M_{1,2}(t)$ are global martingales?
Suppose that $X_t$ does not have any singular point. Does this suffice to get that $M_{1,2}(t)$ are bounded?







probability-theory stochastic-processes stochastic-calculus






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asked Dec 15 '18 at 20:41









FunnyBuzerFunnyBuzer

24919




24919












  • $begingroup$
    If $X$ is bounded as you assume, then $M$, being a bounded local martingale, is a true martingale. But unless $b=0$, how can $X$ be bounded?
    $endgroup$
    – AddSup
    Dec 16 '18 at 6:33










  • $begingroup$
    @AddSup that's why I was thinking of a condition on X. This is a hitting probability exercise where the two bounds are $L$ and $U$, respectively. Absence of singular point should imply that the function is smooth.
    $endgroup$
    – FunnyBuzer
    Dec 17 '18 at 8:50


















  • $begingroup$
    If $X$ is bounded as you assume, then $M$, being a bounded local martingale, is a true martingale. But unless $b=0$, how can $X$ be bounded?
    $endgroup$
    – AddSup
    Dec 16 '18 at 6:33










  • $begingroup$
    @AddSup that's why I was thinking of a condition on X. This is a hitting probability exercise where the two bounds are $L$ and $U$, respectively. Absence of singular point should imply that the function is smooth.
    $endgroup$
    – FunnyBuzer
    Dec 17 '18 at 8:50
















$begingroup$
If $X$ is bounded as you assume, then $M$, being a bounded local martingale, is a true martingale. But unless $b=0$, how can $X$ be bounded?
$endgroup$
– AddSup
Dec 16 '18 at 6:33




$begingroup$
If $X$ is bounded as you assume, then $M$, being a bounded local martingale, is a true martingale. But unless $b=0$, how can $X$ be bounded?
$endgroup$
– AddSup
Dec 16 '18 at 6:33












$begingroup$
@AddSup that's why I was thinking of a condition on X. This is a hitting probability exercise where the two bounds are $L$ and $U$, respectively. Absence of singular point should imply that the function is smooth.
$endgroup$
– FunnyBuzer
Dec 17 '18 at 8:50




$begingroup$
@AddSup that's why I was thinking of a condition on X. This is a hitting probability exercise where the two bounds are $L$ and $U$, respectively. Absence of singular point should imply that the function is smooth.
$endgroup$
– FunnyBuzer
Dec 17 '18 at 8:50










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