$xsqrt{x-1}$ bijectivity
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
So I know to prove that in order to prove the function is a bi-jectivity I have to solve the equation $xsqrt{x-1}= y$ and find one and only one solution, and I am having trouble doing it. The function is from $[1 ; +infty[ to [0 ; +infty[$
functions
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
So I know to prove that in order to prove the function is a bi-jectivity I have to solve the equation $xsqrt{x-1}= y$ and find one and only one solution, and I am having trouble doing it. The function is from $[1 ; +infty[ to [0 ; +infty[$
functions
2
$y$ cannot be negative. So if you are considering this as a function from ${0} cup [1,infty) longrightarrow Bbb{R}$, then it cannot be surjective. You need to specify the co-domain before we discuss surjectivity.
– Anurag A
Nov 22 at 2:46
1
Oh i forgot I'm going to edit it.
– Yassine Sama
Nov 22 at 2:56
1
NB: It's "bijectivity," not "bi-jectivity".
– Shaun
Nov 22 at 3:44
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
So I know to prove that in order to prove the function is a bi-jectivity I have to solve the equation $xsqrt{x-1}= y$ and find one and only one solution, and I am having trouble doing it. The function is from $[1 ; +infty[ to [0 ; +infty[$
functions
So I know to prove that in order to prove the function is a bi-jectivity I have to solve the equation $xsqrt{x-1}= y$ and find one and only one solution, and I am having trouble doing it. The function is from $[1 ; +infty[ to [0 ; +infty[$
functions
functions
edited Nov 22 at 3:47
asked Nov 22 at 2:26
Yassine Sama
162
162
2
$y$ cannot be negative. So if you are considering this as a function from ${0} cup [1,infty) longrightarrow Bbb{R}$, then it cannot be surjective. You need to specify the co-domain before we discuss surjectivity.
– Anurag A
Nov 22 at 2:46
1
Oh i forgot I'm going to edit it.
– Yassine Sama
Nov 22 at 2:56
1
NB: It's "bijectivity," not "bi-jectivity".
– Shaun
Nov 22 at 3:44
add a comment |
2
$y$ cannot be negative. So if you are considering this as a function from ${0} cup [1,infty) longrightarrow Bbb{R}$, then it cannot be surjective. You need to specify the co-domain before we discuss surjectivity.
– Anurag A
Nov 22 at 2:46
1
Oh i forgot I'm going to edit it.
– Yassine Sama
Nov 22 at 2:56
1
NB: It's "bijectivity," not "bi-jectivity".
– Shaun
Nov 22 at 3:44
2
2
$y$ cannot be negative. So if you are considering this as a function from ${0} cup [1,infty) longrightarrow Bbb{R}$, then it cannot be surjective. You need to specify the co-domain before we discuss surjectivity.
– Anurag A
Nov 22 at 2:46
$y$ cannot be negative. So if you are considering this as a function from ${0} cup [1,infty) longrightarrow Bbb{R}$, then it cannot be surjective. You need to specify the co-domain before we discuss surjectivity.
– Anurag A
Nov 22 at 2:46
1
1
Oh i forgot I'm going to edit it.
– Yassine Sama
Nov 22 at 2:56
Oh i forgot I'm going to edit it.
– Yassine Sama
Nov 22 at 2:56
1
1
NB: It's "bijectivity," not "bi-jectivity".
– Shaun
Nov 22 at 3:44
NB: It's "bijectivity," not "bi-jectivity".
– Shaun
Nov 22 at 3:44
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
up vote
4
down vote
Finding an explicit inverse will be difficult since you ultimately have to solve the cubic equation $x^2(x-1)=y^2$ (after you have justified why you can square without losing any information in this case). Though you can make a computer do this, for instance you can check out this solution. But then you have to compose them both ways to show that this works, which is equally a nightmare. Instead, I would suggest the following:
Let $f(x)= x sqrt{x-1}$.
Surjectivity: First, what is $f(1)$? What is $lim_{x to infty} f(x)$? Now you can use a nifty three word theorem you learned in Calculus to justify that $f(x)$ 'hits' every real number from $0$ to $infty$. [For this you will need continuity, but by the work you will do below, your function is differentiable, hence continuous.]
Injectivity: Find $f'(x)$? Given your domain is $[1,infty)$, show or explain why $f'(x)>0$ on this interval. But then $f(x)$ is strictly increasing. Then you are done by a little lemma you need to prove:
Lemma: Suppose $f(x)$ is differentiable with $f'(x)>0$. Then if $f(a)=f(b)$, then it must be that $a=b$ (so that $f$ is injective). [Hint: Assume $f(a)=f(b)$. Then $f(x)$ is differentiable with two values equal, what theorem can you use to justify that there must be a point where $f$ 'turns around' so that $f'(x)=0$? Think about this for a bit and it must just rolle through your mind.]
Once all this is done, you have shown $f(x)$ is injective and surjective! But then $f(x)$ is a bijection from $[1,infty)$ to $[0,infty)$.
Thank you so much for your answer but the problem is I can't use these theoreme since I haven't studied them yet
– Yassine Sama
Nov 22 at 6:37
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
1) Injective.
$f(x)=x(x-1)^{1/2}$ is strictly monotonically increasing.
Let $1 le x_1 < x_2.$
$g(x):=√x$ is stricly increasing.
For $a,b ge 0:$
$a-b=(√a-√b)(√a+√b).$
$a-b >0$ implies $√a-√b >0$ (why?).
Hence
$(x_1-1)^{1/2} lt (x_2-1)^{1/2}$, and
$x_1(x_1)^{1/2} lt x_2(x_2-1)^{1/2}$(why?), i.e
strictly increasing, injective.
2) Bijective
Let $y > 0 =f(0). $
Since $lim_{x rightarrow infty}f(x)= infty$ , $f$ is not bounded above . There is $b>0$ s.t.
$y < f(b)$.
Consider the continuos function $f$ on
$[0,b]$, with $f(0)lt y lt f(b)$.
Intermediate Value Theorem(Corollary):
There is a $p in [0,b]$ with $f(p)=y$,
hence surjective.
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
4
down vote
Finding an explicit inverse will be difficult since you ultimately have to solve the cubic equation $x^2(x-1)=y^2$ (after you have justified why you can square without losing any information in this case). Though you can make a computer do this, for instance you can check out this solution. But then you have to compose them both ways to show that this works, which is equally a nightmare. Instead, I would suggest the following:
Let $f(x)= x sqrt{x-1}$.
Surjectivity: First, what is $f(1)$? What is $lim_{x to infty} f(x)$? Now you can use a nifty three word theorem you learned in Calculus to justify that $f(x)$ 'hits' every real number from $0$ to $infty$. [For this you will need continuity, but by the work you will do below, your function is differentiable, hence continuous.]
Injectivity: Find $f'(x)$? Given your domain is $[1,infty)$, show or explain why $f'(x)>0$ on this interval. But then $f(x)$ is strictly increasing. Then you are done by a little lemma you need to prove:
Lemma: Suppose $f(x)$ is differentiable with $f'(x)>0$. Then if $f(a)=f(b)$, then it must be that $a=b$ (so that $f$ is injective). [Hint: Assume $f(a)=f(b)$. Then $f(x)$ is differentiable with two values equal, what theorem can you use to justify that there must be a point where $f$ 'turns around' so that $f'(x)=0$? Think about this for a bit and it must just rolle through your mind.]
Once all this is done, you have shown $f(x)$ is injective and surjective! But then $f(x)$ is a bijection from $[1,infty)$ to $[0,infty)$.
Thank you so much for your answer but the problem is I can't use these theoreme since I haven't studied them yet
– Yassine Sama
Nov 22 at 6:37
add a comment |
up vote
4
down vote
Finding an explicit inverse will be difficult since you ultimately have to solve the cubic equation $x^2(x-1)=y^2$ (after you have justified why you can square without losing any information in this case). Though you can make a computer do this, for instance you can check out this solution. But then you have to compose them both ways to show that this works, which is equally a nightmare. Instead, I would suggest the following:
Let $f(x)= x sqrt{x-1}$.
Surjectivity: First, what is $f(1)$? What is $lim_{x to infty} f(x)$? Now you can use a nifty three word theorem you learned in Calculus to justify that $f(x)$ 'hits' every real number from $0$ to $infty$. [For this you will need continuity, but by the work you will do below, your function is differentiable, hence continuous.]
Injectivity: Find $f'(x)$? Given your domain is $[1,infty)$, show or explain why $f'(x)>0$ on this interval. But then $f(x)$ is strictly increasing. Then you are done by a little lemma you need to prove:
Lemma: Suppose $f(x)$ is differentiable with $f'(x)>0$. Then if $f(a)=f(b)$, then it must be that $a=b$ (so that $f$ is injective). [Hint: Assume $f(a)=f(b)$. Then $f(x)$ is differentiable with two values equal, what theorem can you use to justify that there must be a point where $f$ 'turns around' so that $f'(x)=0$? Think about this for a bit and it must just rolle through your mind.]
Once all this is done, you have shown $f(x)$ is injective and surjective! But then $f(x)$ is a bijection from $[1,infty)$ to $[0,infty)$.
Thank you so much for your answer but the problem is I can't use these theoreme since I haven't studied them yet
– Yassine Sama
Nov 22 at 6:37
add a comment |
up vote
4
down vote
up vote
4
down vote
Finding an explicit inverse will be difficult since you ultimately have to solve the cubic equation $x^2(x-1)=y^2$ (after you have justified why you can square without losing any information in this case). Though you can make a computer do this, for instance you can check out this solution. But then you have to compose them both ways to show that this works, which is equally a nightmare. Instead, I would suggest the following:
Let $f(x)= x sqrt{x-1}$.
Surjectivity: First, what is $f(1)$? What is $lim_{x to infty} f(x)$? Now you can use a nifty three word theorem you learned in Calculus to justify that $f(x)$ 'hits' every real number from $0$ to $infty$. [For this you will need continuity, but by the work you will do below, your function is differentiable, hence continuous.]
Injectivity: Find $f'(x)$? Given your domain is $[1,infty)$, show or explain why $f'(x)>0$ on this interval. But then $f(x)$ is strictly increasing. Then you are done by a little lemma you need to prove:
Lemma: Suppose $f(x)$ is differentiable with $f'(x)>0$. Then if $f(a)=f(b)$, then it must be that $a=b$ (so that $f$ is injective). [Hint: Assume $f(a)=f(b)$. Then $f(x)$ is differentiable with two values equal, what theorem can you use to justify that there must be a point where $f$ 'turns around' so that $f'(x)=0$? Think about this for a bit and it must just rolle through your mind.]
Once all this is done, you have shown $f(x)$ is injective and surjective! But then $f(x)$ is a bijection from $[1,infty)$ to $[0,infty)$.
Finding an explicit inverse will be difficult since you ultimately have to solve the cubic equation $x^2(x-1)=y^2$ (after you have justified why you can square without losing any information in this case). Though you can make a computer do this, for instance you can check out this solution. But then you have to compose them both ways to show that this works, which is equally a nightmare. Instead, I would suggest the following:
Let $f(x)= x sqrt{x-1}$.
Surjectivity: First, what is $f(1)$? What is $lim_{x to infty} f(x)$? Now you can use a nifty three word theorem you learned in Calculus to justify that $f(x)$ 'hits' every real number from $0$ to $infty$. [For this you will need continuity, but by the work you will do below, your function is differentiable, hence continuous.]
Injectivity: Find $f'(x)$? Given your domain is $[1,infty)$, show or explain why $f'(x)>0$ on this interval. But then $f(x)$ is strictly increasing. Then you are done by a little lemma you need to prove:
Lemma: Suppose $f(x)$ is differentiable with $f'(x)>0$. Then if $f(a)=f(b)$, then it must be that $a=b$ (so that $f$ is injective). [Hint: Assume $f(a)=f(b)$. Then $f(x)$ is differentiable with two values equal, what theorem can you use to justify that there must be a point where $f$ 'turns around' so that $f'(x)=0$? Think about this for a bit and it must just rolle through your mind.]
Once all this is done, you have shown $f(x)$ is injective and surjective! But then $f(x)$ is a bijection from $[1,infty)$ to $[0,infty)$.
answered Nov 22 at 4:03
mathematics2x2life
8,03221738
8,03221738
Thank you so much for your answer but the problem is I can't use these theoreme since I haven't studied them yet
– Yassine Sama
Nov 22 at 6:37
add a comment |
Thank you so much for your answer but the problem is I can't use these theoreme since I haven't studied them yet
– Yassine Sama
Nov 22 at 6:37
Thank you so much for your answer but the problem is I can't use these theoreme since I haven't studied them yet
– Yassine Sama
Nov 22 at 6:37
Thank you so much for your answer but the problem is I can't use these theoreme since I haven't studied them yet
– Yassine Sama
Nov 22 at 6:37
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
1) Injective.
$f(x)=x(x-1)^{1/2}$ is strictly monotonically increasing.
Let $1 le x_1 < x_2.$
$g(x):=√x$ is stricly increasing.
For $a,b ge 0:$
$a-b=(√a-√b)(√a+√b).$
$a-b >0$ implies $√a-√b >0$ (why?).
Hence
$(x_1-1)^{1/2} lt (x_2-1)^{1/2}$, and
$x_1(x_1)^{1/2} lt x_2(x_2-1)^{1/2}$(why?), i.e
strictly increasing, injective.
2) Bijective
Let $y > 0 =f(0). $
Since $lim_{x rightarrow infty}f(x)= infty$ , $f$ is not bounded above . There is $b>0$ s.t.
$y < f(b)$.
Consider the continuos function $f$ on
$[0,b]$, with $f(0)lt y lt f(b)$.
Intermediate Value Theorem(Corollary):
There is a $p in [0,b]$ with $f(p)=y$,
hence surjective.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
1) Injective.
$f(x)=x(x-1)^{1/2}$ is strictly monotonically increasing.
Let $1 le x_1 < x_2.$
$g(x):=√x$ is stricly increasing.
For $a,b ge 0:$
$a-b=(√a-√b)(√a+√b).$
$a-b >0$ implies $√a-√b >0$ (why?).
Hence
$(x_1-1)^{1/2} lt (x_2-1)^{1/2}$, and
$x_1(x_1)^{1/2} lt x_2(x_2-1)^{1/2}$(why?), i.e
strictly increasing, injective.
2) Bijective
Let $y > 0 =f(0). $
Since $lim_{x rightarrow infty}f(x)= infty$ , $f$ is not bounded above . There is $b>0$ s.t.
$y < f(b)$.
Consider the continuos function $f$ on
$[0,b]$, with $f(0)lt y lt f(b)$.
Intermediate Value Theorem(Corollary):
There is a $p in [0,b]$ with $f(p)=y$,
hence surjective.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
1) Injective.
$f(x)=x(x-1)^{1/2}$ is strictly monotonically increasing.
Let $1 le x_1 < x_2.$
$g(x):=√x$ is stricly increasing.
For $a,b ge 0:$
$a-b=(√a-√b)(√a+√b).$
$a-b >0$ implies $√a-√b >0$ (why?).
Hence
$(x_1-1)^{1/2} lt (x_2-1)^{1/2}$, and
$x_1(x_1)^{1/2} lt x_2(x_2-1)^{1/2}$(why?), i.e
strictly increasing, injective.
2) Bijective
Let $y > 0 =f(0). $
Since $lim_{x rightarrow infty}f(x)= infty$ , $f$ is not bounded above . There is $b>0$ s.t.
$y < f(b)$.
Consider the continuos function $f$ on
$[0,b]$, with $f(0)lt y lt f(b)$.
Intermediate Value Theorem(Corollary):
There is a $p in [0,b]$ with $f(p)=y$,
hence surjective.
1) Injective.
$f(x)=x(x-1)^{1/2}$ is strictly monotonically increasing.
Let $1 le x_1 < x_2.$
$g(x):=√x$ is stricly increasing.
For $a,b ge 0:$
$a-b=(√a-√b)(√a+√b).$
$a-b >0$ implies $√a-√b >0$ (why?).
Hence
$(x_1-1)^{1/2} lt (x_2-1)^{1/2}$, and
$x_1(x_1)^{1/2} lt x_2(x_2-1)^{1/2}$(why?), i.e
strictly increasing, injective.
2) Bijective
Let $y > 0 =f(0). $
Since $lim_{x rightarrow infty}f(x)= infty$ , $f$ is not bounded above . There is $b>0$ s.t.
$y < f(b)$.
Consider the continuos function $f$ on
$[0,b]$, with $f(0)lt y lt f(b)$.
Intermediate Value Theorem(Corollary):
There is a $p in [0,b]$ with $f(p)=y$,
hence surjective.
edited Nov 22 at 11:12
answered Nov 22 at 10:41
Peter Szilas
10.4k2720
10.4k2720
add a comment |
add a comment |
Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!
- Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!
But avoid …
- Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.
- Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.
Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.
To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.
Some of your past answers have not been well-received, and you're in danger of being blocked from answering.
Please pay close attention to the following guidance:
- Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!
But avoid …
- Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.
- Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.
To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3008668%2fx-sqrtx-1-bijectivity%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
2
$y$ cannot be negative. So if you are considering this as a function from ${0} cup [1,infty) longrightarrow Bbb{R}$, then it cannot be surjective. You need to specify the co-domain before we discuss surjectivity.
– Anurag A
Nov 22 at 2:46
1
Oh i forgot I'm going to edit it.
– Yassine Sama
Nov 22 at 2:56
1
NB: It's "bijectivity," not "bi-jectivity".
– Shaun
Nov 22 at 3:44