Relation between functors under an equivalence












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$begingroup$


Let $A$, $B$, and $C$ be three categories and $Gcolon Ato C$ and $Hcolon Bto C$ two functors. Assume that $Fcolon Ato B$ and $Ecolon Bto A$ form an equivalence between $A$ and $B$.



Suppose that



$$
H circ F = G qquad text{and} qquad G circ E = H
$$



(which should be equivalent to say that the triangle formed by $A$, $B$, and $C$ as objects and $F$, $E$, $G$, and $H$ as morphism commutes, since $F$ is an equivalence).



Is there a property, a definition, or a concept in general that describes such a relation between $H$ and $G$ under the equivalence $F$?










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    What is $F^{-1}$ here? The fact that $F$ is an equivalence does not guarantee the existence of an inverse.
    $endgroup$
    – drhab
    Dec 16 '18 at 15:55










  • $begingroup$
    $F^{-1}$ is the pseudo-inverse (that's how it is called on the book I'm studying) of $F$ that yields the equivalence. I edit the question to make this point clear (and I change $F^{-1}$ to $E$).
    $endgroup$
    – BlackBrain
    Dec 16 '18 at 16:06






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Are you sure you want to require equalities of functors $Hcirc F = G$ and $Gcirc E =H$ and not natural isomorphisms?
    $endgroup$
    – Tashi Walde
    Dec 17 '18 at 18:59
















0












$begingroup$


Let $A$, $B$, and $C$ be three categories and $Gcolon Ato C$ and $Hcolon Bto C$ two functors. Assume that $Fcolon Ato B$ and $Ecolon Bto A$ form an equivalence between $A$ and $B$.



Suppose that



$$
H circ F = G qquad text{and} qquad G circ E = H
$$



(which should be equivalent to say that the triangle formed by $A$, $B$, and $C$ as objects and $F$, $E$, $G$, and $H$ as morphism commutes, since $F$ is an equivalence).



Is there a property, a definition, or a concept in general that describes such a relation between $H$ and $G$ under the equivalence $F$?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    What is $F^{-1}$ here? The fact that $F$ is an equivalence does not guarantee the existence of an inverse.
    $endgroup$
    – drhab
    Dec 16 '18 at 15:55










  • $begingroup$
    $F^{-1}$ is the pseudo-inverse (that's how it is called on the book I'm studying) of $F$ that yields the equivalence. I edit the question to make this point clear (and I change $F^{-1}$ to $E$).
    $endgroup$
    – BlackBrain
    Dec 16 '18 at 16:06






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Are you sure you want to require equalities of functors $Hcirc F = G$ and $Gcirc E =H$ and not natural isomorphisms?
    $endgroup$
    – Tashi Walde
    Dec 17 '18 at 18:59














0












0








0





$begingroup$


Let $A$, $B$, and $C$ be three categories and $Gcolon Ato C$ and $Hcolon Bto C$ two functors. Assume that $Fcolon Ato B$ and $Ecolon Bto A$ form an equivalence between $A$ and $B$.



Suppose that



$$
H circ F = G qquad text{and} qquad G circ E = H
$$



(which should be equivalent to say that the triangle formed by $A$, $B$, and $C$ as objects and $F$, $E$, $G$, and $H$ as morphism commutes, since $F$ is an equivalence).



Is there a property, a definition, or a concept in general that describes such a relation between $H$ and $G$ under the equivalence $F$?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $A$, $B$, and $C$ be three categories and $Gcolon Ato C$ and $Hcolon Bto C$ two functors. Assume that $Fcolon Ato B$ and $Ecolon Bto A$ form an equivalence between $A$ and $B$.



Suppose that



$$
H circ F = G qquad text{and} qquad G circ E = H
$$



(which should be equivalent to say that the triangle formed by $A$, $B$, and $C$ as objects and $F$, $E$, $G$, and $H$ as morphism commutes, since $F$ is an equivalence).



Is there a property, a definition, or a concept in general that describes such a relation between $H$ and $G$ under the equivalence $F$?







category-theory functors






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Dec 16 '18 at 16:10







BlackBrain

















asked Dec 16 '18 at 15:50









BlackBrainBlackBrain

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26416












  • $begingroup$
    What is $F^{-1}$ here? The fact that $F$ is an equivalence does not guarantee the existence of an inverse.
    $endgroup$
    – drhab
    Dec 16 '18 at 15:55










  • $begingroup$
    $F^{-1}$ is the pseudo-inverse (that's how it is called on the book I'm studying) of $F$ that yields the equivalence. I edit the question to make this point clear (and I change $F^{-1}$ to $E$).
    $endgroup$
    – BlackBrain
    Dec 16 '18 at 16:06






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Are you sure you want to require equalities of functors $Hcirc F = G$ and $Gcirc E =H$ and not natural isomorphisms?
    $endgroup$
    – Tashi Walde
    Dec 17 '18 at 18:59


















  • $begingroup$
    What is $F^{-1}$ here? The fact that $F$ is an equivalence does not guarantee the existence of an inverse.
    $endgroup$
    – drhab
    Dec 16 '18 at 15:55










  • $begingroup$
    $F^{-1}$ is the pseudo-inverse (that's how it is called on the book I'm studying) of $F$ that yields the equivalence. I edit the question to make this point clear (and I change $F^{-1}$ to $E$).
    $endgroup$
    – BlackBrain
    Dec 16 '18 at 16:06






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Are you sure you want to require equalities of functors $Hcirc F = G$ and $Gcirc E =H$ and not natural isomorphisms?
    $endgroup$
    – Tashi Walde
    Dec 17 '18 at 18:59
















$begingroup$
What is $F^{-1}$ here? The fact that $F$ is an equivalence does not guarantee the existence of an inverse.
$endgroup$
– drhab
Dec 16 '18 at 15:55




$begingroup$
What is $F^{-1}$ here? The fact that $F$ is an equivalence does not guarantee the existence of an inverse.
$endgroup$
– drhab
Dec 16 '18 at 15:55












$begingroup$
$F^{-1}$ is the pseudo-inverse (that's how it is called on the book I'm studying) of $F$ that yields the equivalence. I edit the question to make this point clear (and I change $F^{-1}$ to $E$).
$endgroup$
– BlackBrain
Dec 16 '18 at 16:06




$begingroup$
$F^{-1}$ is the pseudo-inverse (that's how it is called on the book I'm studying) of $F$ that yields the equivalence. I edit the question to make this point clear (and I change $F^{-1}$ to $E$).
$endgroup$
– BlackBrain
Dec 16 '18 at 16:06




1




1




$begingroup$
Are you sure you want to require equalities of functors $Hcirc F = G$ and $Gcirc E =H$ and not natural isomorphisms?
$endgroup$
– Tashi Walde
Dec 17 '18 at 18:59




$begingroup$
Are you sure you want to require equalities of functors $Hcirc F = G$ and $Gcirc E =H$ and not natural isomorphisms?
$endgroup$
– Tashi Walde
Dec 17 '18 at 18:59










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