Calculate limit of $x_n=sum_{i=1}^nf(frac{2i-1}{n^2}a)$
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Suppose when $xrightarrow 0$,$f(x) sim x$, $x_n=sum_{i=1}^nf(frac{2i-1}{n^2}a)$
Want to prove: $lim_{n to infty}{x_n}=a(a>0).$
Also,
I don't understand what $sim$ mean?
real-analysis
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Suppose when $xrightarrow 0$,$f(x) sim x$, $x_n=sum_{i=1}^nf(frac{2i-1}{n^2}a)$
Want to prove: $lim_{n to infty}{x_n}=a(a>0).$
Also,
I don't understand what $sim$ mean?
real-analysis
I suspect that $f(x) sim x$ means $f(x)/x to 1$ as $xto 0$. Assuming so, the rationale for $x_n to a$ is that $x_n sim sum_{i=1}^{n} frac{2i-1}{n^2}a$, which converges to $int_{0}^{1} 2ax , dx = a$. But the implication $f(x) sim x$ $Rightarrow$ $x_n sim sum_{i=1}^{n} frac{2i-1}{n^2}a$ deserves justification as it does not directly follow from the definition of $sim$. User Mostafa Ayaz's answer addresses this.
– Sangchul Lee
Nov 20 at 17:52
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up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Suppose when $xrightarrow 0$,$f(x) sim x$, $x_n=sum_{i=1}^nf(frac{2i-1}{n^2}a)$
Want to prove: $lim_{n to infty}{x_n}=a(a>0).$
Also,
I don't understand what $sim$ mean?
real-analysis
Suppose when $xrightarrow 0$,$f(x) sim x$, $x_n=sum_{i=1}^nf(frac{2i-1}{n^2}a)$
Want to prove: $lim_{n to infty}{x_n}=a(a>0).$
Also,
I don't understand what $sim$ mean?
real-analysis
real-analysis
asked Nov 20 at 17:36
mathnoob
1,249116
1,249116
I suspect that $f(x) sim x$ means $f(x)/x to 1$ as $xto 0$. Assuming so, the rationale for $x_n to a$ is that $x_n sim sum_{i=1}^{n} frac{2i-1}{n^2}a$, which converges to $int_{0}^{1} 2ax , dx = a$. But the implication $f(x) sim x$ $Rightarrow$ $x_n sim sum_{i=1}^{n} frac{2i-1}{n^2}a$ deserves justification as it does not directly follow from the definition of $sim$. User Mostafa Ayaz's answer addresses this.
– Sangchul Lee
Nov 20 at 17:52
add a comment |
I suspect that $f(x) sim x$ means $f(x)/x to 1$ as $xto 0$. Assuming so, the rationale for $x_n to a$ is that $x_n sim sum_{i=1}^{n} frac{2i-1}{n^2}a$, which converges to $int_{0}^{1} 2ax , dx = a$. But the implication $f(x) sim x$ $Rightarrow$ $x_n sim sum_{i=1}^{n} frac{2i-1}{n^2}a$ deserves justification as it does not directly follow from the definition of $sim$. User Mostafa Ayaz's answer addresses this.
– Sangchul Lee
Nov 20 at 17:52
I suspect that $f(x) sim x$ means $f(x)/x to 1$ as $xto 0$. Assuming so, the rationale for $x_n to a$ is that $x_n sim sum_{i=1}^{n} frac{2i-1}{n^2}a$, which converges to $int_{0}^{1} 2ax , dx = a$. But the implication $f(x) sim x$ $Rightarrow$ $x_n sim sum_{i=1}^{n} frac{2i-1}{n^2}a$ deserves justification as it does not directly follow from the definition of $sim$. User Mostafa Ayaz's answer addresses this.
– Sangchul Lee
Nov 20 at 17:52
I suspect that $f(x) sim x$ means $f(x)/x to 1$ as $xto 0$. Assuming so, the rationale for $x_n to a$ is that $x_n sim sum_{i=1}^{n} frac{2i-1}{n^2}a$, which converges to $int_{0}^{1} 2ax , dx = a$. But the implication $f(x) sim x$ $Rightarrow$ $x_n sim sum_{i=1}^{n} frac{2i-1}{n^2}a$ deserves justification as it does not directly follow from the definition of $sim$. User Mostafa Ayaz's answer addresses this.
– Sangchul Lee
Nov 20 at 17:52
add a comment |
2 Answers
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$f(x)sim x$ means that $f(x)=x+o(x)$ where $o(.)$ is little-o notation. Therefore by substituting$$x_n=a+sum_{i=1}^{n} g(a{2i-1over n^2})$$where $$lim_{xto 0}{g(x)over x}=0$$then you can write $$|g(a{2i-1over n^2})|le a{2i-1over n^2}epsilon$$for large enough $n$ which means that $$left|sum_{i=1}^{n} g(a{2i-1over n^2})right|le sum_{i=1}^{n} |g(a{2i-1over n^2})|le sum a{2i-1over n^2}epsilon=aepsilon$$therefore$$lim_{nto infty}sum g(a{2i-1over n^2})=0$$and $$lim x_n=a$$
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Hint: Suppose $f(x)=x$, then we see that
begin{align}
x_n =& frac{a}{n^2}sum^n_{i=1}(2i-1)=frac{2a}{n^2}sum^n_{i=1}i-frac{a}{n}\
=& frac{2a}{n^2}frac{n(n+1)}{2}-frac{a}{n}rightarrow a
end{align}
as $nrightarrow infty$.
Also, $f(x)sim x$ as $x rightarrow 0$ means
begin{align}
lim_{xrightarrow 0}frac{f(x)}{x}=1
end{align}
or more usefully
begin{align}
f(x)=x+text{ something small and goes to 0}
end{align}
when $x$ is close to $0$.
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
$f(x)sim x$ means that $f(x)=x+o(x)$ where $o(.)$ is little-o notation. Therefore by substituting$$x_n=a+sum_{i=1}^{n} g(a{2i-1over n^2})$$where $$lim_{xto 0}{g(x)over x}=0$$then you can write $$|g(a{2i-1over n^2})|le a{2i-1over n^2}epsilon$$for large enough $n$ which means that $$left|sum_{i=1}^{n} g(a{2i-1over n^2})right|le sum_{i=1}^{n} |g(a{2i-1over n^2})|le sum a{2i-1over n^2}epsilon=aepsilon$$therefore$$lim_{nto infty}sum g(a{2i-1over n^2})=0$$and $$lim x_n=a$$
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
$f(x)sim x$ means that $f(x)=x+o(x)$ where $o(.)$ is little-o notation. Therefore by substituting$$x_n=a+sum_{i=1}^{n} g(a{2i-1over n^2})$$where $$lim_{xto 0}{g(x)over x}=0$$then you can write $$|g(a{2i-1over n^2})|le a{2i-1over n^2}epsilon$$for large enough $n$ which means that $$left|sum_{i=1}^{n} g(a{2i-1over n^2})right|le sum_{i=1}^{n} |g(a{2i-1over n^2})|le sum a{2i-1over n^2}epsilon=aepsilon$$therefore$$lim_{nto infty}sum g(a{2i-1over n^2})=0$$and $$lim x_n=a$$
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
$f(x)sim x$ means that $f(x)=x+o(x)$ where $o(.)$ is little-o notation. Therefore by substituting$$x_n=a+sum_{i=1}^{n} g(a{2i-1over n^2})$$where $$lim_{xto 0}{g(x)over x}=0$$then you can write $$|g(a{2i-1over n^2})|le a{2i-1over n^2}epsilon$$for large enough $n$ which means that $$left|sum_{i=1}^{n} g(a{2i-1over n^2})right|le sum_{i=1}^{n} |g(a{2i-1over n^2})|le sum a{2i-1over n^2}epsilon=aepsilon$$therefore$$lim_{nto infty}sum g(a{2i-1over n^2})=0$$and $$lim x_n=a$$
$f(x)sim x$ means that $f(x)=x+o(x)$ where $o(.)$ is little-o notation. Therefore by substituting$$x_n=a+sum_{i=1}^{n} g(a{2i-1over n^2})$$where $$lim_{xto 0}{g(x)over x}=0$$then you can write $$|g(a{2i-1over n^2})|le a{2i-1over n^2}epsilon$$for large enough $n$ which means that $$left|sum_{i=1}^{n} g(a{2i-1over n^2})right|le sum_{i=1}^{n} |g(a{2i-1over n^2})|le sum a{2i-1over n^2}epsilon=aepsilon$$therefore$$lim_{nto infty}sum g(a{2i-1over n^2})=0$$and $$lim x_n=a$$
answered Nov 20 at 17:51
Mostafa Ayaz
13.3k3836
13.3k3836
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up vote
0
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Hint: Suppose $f(x)=x$, then we see that
begin{align}
x_n =& frac{a}{n^2}sum^n_{i=1}(2i-1)=frac{2a}{n^2}sum^n_{i=1}i-frac{a}{n}\
=& frac{2a}{n^2}frac{n(n+1)}{2}-frac{a}{n}rightarrow a
end{align}
as $nrightarrow infty$.
Also, $f(x)sim x$ as $x rightarrow 0$ means
begin{align}
lim_{xrightarrow 0}frac{f(x)}{x}=1
end{align}
or more usefully
begin{align}
f(x)=x+text{ something small and goes to 0}
end{align}
when $x$ is close to $0$.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Hint: Suppose $f(x)=x$, then we see that
begin{align}
x_n =& frac{a}{n^2}sum^n_{i=1}(2i-1)=frac{2a}{n^2}sum^n_{i=1}i-frac{a}{n}\
=& frac{2a}{n^2}frac{n(n+1)}{2}-frac{a}{n}rightarrow a
end{align}
as $nrightarrow infty$.
Also, $f(x)sim x$ as $x rightarrow 0$ means
begin{align}
lim_{xrightarrow 0}frac{f(x)}{x}=1
end{align}
or more usefully
begin{align}
f(x)=x+text{ something small and goes to 0}
end{align}
when $x$ is close to $0$.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
Hint: Suppose $f(x)=x$, then we see that
begin{align}
x_n =& frac{a}{n^2}sum^n_{i=1}(2i-1)=frac{2a}{n^2}sum^n_{i=1}i-frac{a}{n}\
=& frac{2a}{n^2}frac{n(n+1)}{2}-frac{a}{n}rightarrow a
end{align}
as $nrightarrow infty$.
Also, $f(x)sim x$ as $x rightarrow 0$ means
begin{align}
lim_{xrightarrow 0}frac{f(x)}{x}=1
end{align}
or more usefully
begin{align}
f(x)=x+text{ something small and goes to 0}
end{align}
when $x$ is close to $0$.
Hint: Suppose $f(x)=x$, then we see that
begin{align}
x_n =& frac{a}{n^2}sum^n_{i=1}(2i-1)=frac{2a}{n^2}sum^n_{i=1}i-frac{a}{n}\
=& frac{2a}{n^2}frac{n(n+1)}{2}-frac{a}{n}rightarrow a
end{align}
as $nrightarrow infty$.
Also, $f(x)sim x$ as $x rightarrow 0$ means
begin{align}
lim_{xrightarrow 0}frac{f(x)}{x}=1
end{align}
or more usefully
begin{align}
f(x)=x+text{ something small and goes to 0}
end{align}
when $x$ is close to $0$.
answered Nov 20 at 17:49
Jacky Chong
17.3k21027
17.3k21027
add a comment |
add a comment |
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I suspect that $f(x) sim x$ means $f(x)/x to 1$ as $xto 0$. Assuming so, the rationale for $x_n to a$ is that $x_n sim sum_{i=1}^{n} frac{2i-1}{n^2}a$, which converges to $int_{0}^{1} 2ax , dx = a$. But the implication $f(x) sim x$ $Rightarrow$ $x_n sim sum_{i=1}^{n} frac{2i-1}{n^2}a$ deserves justification as it does not directly follow from the definition of $sim$. User Mostafa Ayaz's answer addresses this.
– Sangchul Lee
Nov 20 at 17:52