Convergence of Vector Combinations











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I have $n$ vectors $v_1(t), dots, v_n(t)$.
Time is divided into discrete rounds.
Initially, all vectors have length $leq 1$.
The vectors at the next time step $t+1$ can be calculated as follows:



begin{align*}
v_1(t+1) &= frac{v_1(t)}{2|v_1(t)|} + frac{1}{2}v_2(t)\
v_i(t+1) &= frac{1}{2}v_{i-1}(t) + frac{1}{2}v_{i+1}(t) \
v_n(t+1) &= frac{1}{2}v_{n-1}(t) + frac{v_n(t)}{2|v_n(t)|}\
end{align*}

, where $||v_i(t)||$ denotes the Euclidean norm of $v_i(t)$.
It turns out that this procedure converges for $t rightarrow infty $ and in the end all vectors are the same. However, I cannot predict the limit vector.
Does anyone have an idea?










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    down vote

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    I have $n$ vectors $v_1(t), dots, v_n(t)$.
    Time is divided into discrete rounds.
    Initially, all vectors have length $leq 1$.
    The vectors at the next time step $t+1$ can be calculated as follows:



    begin{align*}
    v_1(t+1) &= frac{v_1(t)}{2|v_1(t)|} + frac{1}{2}v_2(t)\
    v_i(t+1) &= frac{1}{2}v_{i-1}(t) + frac{1}{2}v_{i+1}(t) \
    v_n(t+1) &= frac{1}{2}v_{n-1}(t) + frac{v_n(t)}{2|v_n(t)|}\
    end{align*}

    , where $||v_i(t)||$ denotes the Euclidean norm of $v_i(t)$.
    It turns out that this procedure converges for $t rightarrow infty $ and in the end all vectors are the same. However, I cannot predict the limit vector.
    Does anyone have an idea?










    share|cite|improve this question


























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      I have $n$ vectors $v_1(t), dots, v_n(t)$.
      Time is divided into discrete rounds.
      Initially, all vectors have length $leq 1$.
      The vectors at the next time step $t+1$ can be calculated as follows:



      begin{align*}
      v_1(t+1) &= frac{v_1(t)}{2|v_1(t)|} + frac{1}{2}v_2(t)\
      v_i(t+1) &= frac{1}{2}v_{i-1}(t) + frac{1}{2}v_{i+1}(t) \
      v_n(t+1) &= frac{1}{2}v_{n-1}(t) + frac{v_n(t)}{2|v_n(t)|}\
      end{align*}

      , where $||v_i(t)||$ denotes the Euclidean norm of $v_i(t)$.
      It turns out that this procedure converges for $t rightarrow infty $ and in the end all vectors are the same. However, I cannot predict the limit vector.
      Does anyone have an idea?










      share|cite|improve this question















      I have $n$ vectors $v_1(t), dots, v_n(t)$.
      Time is divided into discrete rounds.
      Initially, all vectors have length $leq 1$.
      The vectors at the next time step $t+1$ can be calculated as follows:



      begin{align*}
      v_1(t+1) &= frac{v_1(t)}{2|v_1(t)|} + frac{1}{2}v_2(t)\
      v_i(t+1) &= frac{1}{2}v_{i-1}(t) + frac{1}{2}v_{i+1}(t) \
      v_n(t+1) &= frac{1}{2}v_{n-1}(t) + frac{v_n(t)}{2|v_n(t)|}\
      end{align*}

      , where $||v_i(t)||$ denotes the Euclidean norm of $v_i(t)$.
      It turns out that this procedure converges for $t rightarrow infty $ and in the end all vectors are the same. However, I cannot predict the limit vector.
      Does anyone have an idea?







      linear-algebra vectors vector-analysis heat-equation






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      edited Nov 26 at 21:55

























      asked Nov 24 at 16:19









      Jannik

      587




      587






















          1 Answer
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          Here's my idea...



          It reminds me a discrete version of the heat equation for a vector valued function on the interval $(1,2,...,n)$, with Von Neumann conditions imposing the norm of the function at the boundary to be $1$.



          I think this since the discrete version of the laplacian operator at one point of a graph-like domain is just the mean taken on all the adiacent vertexes.



          That said we can understand that the limit will have norm equal to $1$, but the exact value seems harder to determine. We may also note that all vectors will have the same limit value if the norm we use in the recursion is not the $infty$-norm, otherwhise they may take different values.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • I wouldn't know how to prove it formally, I was rather using intuition. The idea is that, without considering the normalization part for the first and last vector, we have there a diffusive process (we are averaging the neighbours) like the heat equation, which conserves the total heat (which in this analogy is the sum af all vectors) and converges to a uniform solution. In fact in that case would converge to the baricenter.
            – Dinisaur
            Nov 26 at 15:06












          • In this analogy our domain is an interval which consider a discrete sequence of n points, and our quantity is vector valued. When we add the normalization at the extremal points (which would be the boundary of the domain) we are forcing our vectors to have norm 1, but since the process is diffusive all points tend to have the same value (i.e. all vectors tend to be the same) the limit will have norm 1.
            – Dinisaur
            Nov 26 at 15:10












          • We may conjecture that the limit will be the normalization of the baricenter, which is the case for two points, but I'm not really sure about it.
            – Dinisaur
            Nov 26 at 15:15











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          1 Answer
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          active

          oldest

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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          1
          down vote













          Here's my idea...



          It reminds me a discrete version of the heat equation for a vector valued function on the interval $(1,2,...,n)$, with Von Neumann conditions imposing the norm of the function at the boundary to be $1$.



          I think this since the discrete version of the laplacian operator at one point of a graph-like domain is just the mean taken on all the adiacent vertexes.



          That said we can understand that the limit will have norm equal to $1$, but the exact value seems harder to determine. We may also note that all vectors will have the same limit value if the norm we use in the recursion is not the $infty$-norm, otherwhise they may take different values.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • I wouldn't know how to prove it formally, I was rather using intuition. The idea is that, without considering the normalization part for the first and last vector, we have there a diffusive process (we are averaging the neighbours) like the heat equation, which conserves the total heat (which in this analogy is the sum af all vectors) and converges to a uniform solution. In fact in that case would converge to the baricenter.
            – Dinisaur
            Nov 26 at 15:06












          • In this analogy our domain is an interval which consider a discrete sequence of n points, and our quantity is vector valued. When we add the normalization at the extremal points (which would be the boundary of the domain) we are forcing our vectors to have norm 1, but since the process is diffusive all points tend to have the same value (i.e. all vectors tend to be the same) the limit will have norm 1.
            – Dinisaur
            Nov 26 at 15:10












          • We may conjecture that the limit will be the normalization of the baricenter, which is the case for two points, but I'm not really sure about it.
            – Dinisaur
            Nov 26 at 15:15















          up vote
          1
          down vote













          Here's my idea...



          It reminds me a discrete version of the heat equation for a vector valued function on the interval $(1,2,...,n)$, with Von Neumann conditions imposing the norm of the function at the boundary to be $1$.



          I think this since the discrete version of the laplacian operator at one point of a graph-like domain is just the mean taken on all the adiacent vertexes.



          That said we can understand that the limit will have norm equal to $1$, but the exact value seems harder to determine. We may also note that all vectors will have the same limit value if the norm we use in the recursion is not the $infty$-norm, otherwhise they may take different values.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • I wouldn't know how to prove it formally, I was rather using intuition. The idea is that, without considering the normalization part for the first and last vector, we have there a diffusive process (we are averaging the neighbours) like the heat equation, which conserves the total heat (which in this analogy is the sum af all vectors) and converges to a uniform solution. In fact in that case would converge to the baricenter.
            – Dinisaur
            Nov 26 at 15:06












          • In this analogy our domain is an interval which consider a discrete sequence of n points, and our quantity is vector valued. When we add the normalization at the extremal points (which would be the boundary of the domain) we are forcing our vectors to have norm 1, but since the process is diffusive all points tend to have the same value (i.e. all vectors tend to be the same) the limit will have norm 1.
            – Dinisaur
            Nov 26 at 15:10












          • We may conjecture that the limit will be the normalization of the baricenter, which is the case for two points, but I'm not really sure about it.
            – Dinisaur
            Nov 26 at 15:15













          up vote
          1
          down vote










          up vote
          1
          down vote









          Here's my idea...



          It reminds me a discrete version of the heat equation for a vector valued function on the interval $(1,2,...,n)$, with Von Neumann conditions imposing the norm of the function at the boundary to be $1$.



          I think this since the discrete version of the laplacian operator at one point of a graph-like domain is just the mean taken on all the adiacent vertexes.



          That said we can understand that the limit will have norm equal to $1$, but the exact value seems harder to determine. We may also note that all vectors will have the same limit value if the norm we use in the recursion is not the $infty$-norm, otherwhise they may take different values.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Here's my idea...



          It reminds me a discrete version of the heat equation for a vector valued function on the interval $(1,2,...,n)$, with Von Neumann conditions imposing the norm of the function at the boundary to be $1$.



          I think this since the discrete version of the laplacian operator at one point of a graph-like domain is just the mean taken on all the adiacent vertexes.



          That said we can understand that the limit will have norm equal to $1$, but the exact value seems harder to determine. We may also note that all vectors will have the same limit value if the norm we use in the recursion is not the $infty$-norm, otherwhise they may take different values.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 24 at 18:29









          Dinisaur

          1009




          1009












          • I wouldn't know how to prove it formally, I was rather using intuition. The idea is that, without considering the normalization part for the first and last vector, we have there a diffusive process (we are averaging the neighbours) like the heat equation, which conserves the total heat (which in this analogy is the sum af all vectors) and converges to a uniform solution. In fact in that case would converge to the baricenter.
            – Dinisaur
            Nov 26 at 15:06












          • In this analogy our domain is an interval which consider a discrete sequence of n points, and our quantity is vector valued. When we add the normalization at the extremal points (which would be the boundary of the domain) we are forcing our vectors to have norm 1, but since the process is diffusive all points tend to have the same value (i.e. all vectors tend to be the same) the limit will have norm 1.
            – Dinisaur
            Nov 26 at 15:10












          • We may conjecture that the limit will be the normalization of the baricenter, which is the case for two points, but I'm not really sure about it.
            – Dinisaur
            Nov 26 at 15:15


















          • I wouldn't know how to prove it formally, I was rather using intuition. The idea is that, without considering the normalization part for the first and last vector, we have there a diffusive process (we are averaging the neighbours) like the heat equation, which conserves the total heat (which in this analogy is the sum af all vectors) and converges to a uniform solution. In fact in that case would converge to the baricenter.
            – Dinisaur
            Nov 26 at 15:06












          • In this analogy our domain is an interval which consider a discrete sequence of n points, and our quantity is vector valued. When we add the normalization at the extremal points (which would be the boundary of the domain) we are forcing our vectors to have norm 1, but since the process is diffusive all points tend to have the same value (i.e. all vectors tend to be the same) the limit will have norm 1.
            – Dinisaur
            Nov 26 at 15:10












          • We may conjecture that the limit will be the normalization of the baricenter, which is the case for two points, but I'm not really sure about it.
            – Dinisaur
            Nov 26 at 15:15
















          I wouldn't know how to prove it formally, I was rather using intuition. The idea is that, without considering the normalization part for the first and last vector, we have there a diffusive process (we are averaging the neighbours) like the heat equation, which conserves the total heat (which in this analogy is the sum af all vectors) and converges to a uniform solution. In fact in that case would converge to the baricenter.
          – Dinisaur
          Nov 26 at 15:06






          I wouldn't know how to prove it formally, I was rather using intuition. The idea is that, without considering the normalization part for the first and last vector, we have there a diffusive process (we are averaging the neighbours) like the heat equation, which conserves the total heat (which in this analogy is the sum af all vectors) and converges to a uniform solution. In fact in that case would converge to the baricenter.
          – Dinisaur
          Nov 26 at 15:06














          In this analogy our domain is an interval which consider a discrete sequence of n points, and our quantity is vector valued. When we add the normalization at the extremal points (which would be the boundary of the domain) we are forcing our vectors to have norm 1, but since the process is diffusive all points tend to have the same value (i.e. all vectors tend to be the same) the limit will have norm 1.
          – Dinisaur
          Nov 26 at 15:10






          In this analogy our domain is an interval which consider a discrete sequence of n points, and our quantity is vector valued. When we add the normalization at the extremal points (which would be the boundary of the domain) we are forcing our vectors to have norm 1, but since the process is diffusive all points tend to have the same value (i.e. all vectors tend to be the same) the limit will have norm 1.
          – Dinisaur
          Nov 26 at 15:10














          We may conjecture that the limit will be the normalization of the baricenter, which is the case for two points, but I'm not really sure about it.
          – Dinisaur
          Nov 26 at 15:15




          We may conjecture that the limit will be the normalization of the baricenter, which is the case for two points, but I'm not really sure about it.
          – Dinisaur
          Nov 26 at 15:15


















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