Show that any affine connection $nabla$ on $mathbb{R}^n$ is of the form $nabla=D+Gamma$.











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Show that any affine connection $nabla$ on $mathbb{R}^n$ is of the form $nabla=D+Gamma$, where $D$ is the Euclidean connection and $Gamma:mathcal{X}(mathbb{R}^n) times mathcal{X}(mathbb{R}^n) rightarrow mathcal{X}(mathbb{R}^n)$ is any $C^{infty}(mathbb{R}^n)$-bilinear map.



Showing that $D+Gamma$ is an affine connection is easy, but I don't know how to show the converse. I mean, what's special about $mathbb{R}^n$?










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    Show that any affine connection $nabla$ on $mathbb{R}^n$ is of the form $nabla=D+Gamma$, where $D$ is the Euclidean connection and $Gamma:mathcal{X}(mathbb{R}^n) times mathcal{X}(mathbb{R}^n) rightarrow mathcal{X}(mathbb{R}^n)$ is any $C^{infty}(mathbb{R}^n)$-bilinear map.



    Showing that $D+Gamma$ is an affine connection is easy, but I don't know how to show the converse. I mean, what's special about $mathbb{R}^n$?










    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
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      down vote

      favorite











      Show that any affine connection $nabla$ on $mathbb{R}^n$ is of the form $nabla=D+Gamma$, where $D$ is the Euclidean connection and $Gamma:mathcal{X}(mathbb{R}^n) times mathcal{X}(mathbb{R}^n) rightarrow mathcal{X}(mathbb{R}^n)$ is any $C^{infty}(mathbb{R}^n)$-bilinear map.



      Showing that $D+Gamma$ is an affine connection is easy, but I don't know how to show the converse. I mean, what's special about $mathbb{R}^n$?










      share|cite|improve this question













      Show that any affine connection $nabla$ on $mathbb{R}^n$ is of the form $nabla=D+Gamma$, where $D$ is the Euclidean connection and $Gamma:mathcal{X}(mathbb{R}^n) times mathcal{X}(mathbb{R}^n) rightarrow mathcal{X}(mathbb{R}^n)$ is any $C^{infty}(mathbb{R}^n)$-bilinear map.



      Showing that $D+Gamma$ is an affine connection is easy, but I don't know how to show the converse. I mean, what's special about $mathbb{R}^n$?







      manifolds riemannian-geometry vector-fields connections






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      asked Nov 21 at 21:49









      bbw

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          This follows from the general result that the difference of two affine connections provide such a bilinear map (tensor) $Gamma$. The nontrivial part is to explain why it is $C^infty$-linear in the second argument (which is not the case for the connections themselves). But by the Leibniz rule, for any $C^infty$ function $f$ and vector fields $X,Y$ we have



          $$begin{align}(nabla - D)(X,fY) &= nabla(X,fY) - D(X,fY) \&= (Xf)Y + fnabla(X,Y) - (Xf)Y - fD(X,Y) \ &= f(nabla - D)(X,Y),end{align}$$



          so the $C^infty$-bilinearity is a consequence of the fact that the "constant terms" (those independent of the connection) cancel each other out in the difference.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Oh how could I forgot the equivalence $nabla=D+Gamma Leftrightarrow nabla - D=Gamma$. Thank you for you answer.
            – bbw
            Nov 21 at 23:19













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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

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          active

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          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          This follows from the general result that the difference of two affine connections provide such a bilinear map (tensor) $Gamma$. The nontrivial part is to explain why it is $C^infty$-linear in the second argument (which is not the case for the connections themselves). But by the Leibniz rule, for any $C^infty$ function $f$ and vector fields $X,Y$ we have



          $$begin{align}(nabla - D)(X,fY) &= nabla(X,fY) - D(X,fY) \&= (Xf)Y + fnabla(X,Y) - (Xf)Y - fD(X,Y) \ &= f(nabla - D)(X,Y),end{align}$$



          so the $C^infty$-bilinearity is a consequence of the fact that the "constant terms" (those independent of the connection) cancel each other out in the difference.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Oh how could I forgot the equivalence $nabla=D+Gamma Leftrightarrow nabla - D=Gamma$. Thank you for you answer.
            – bbw
            Nov 21 at 23:19

















          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          This follows from the general result that the difference of two affine connections provide such a bilinear map (tensor) $Gamma$. The nontrivial part is to explain why it is $C^infty$-linear in the second argument (which is not the case for the connections themselves). But by the Leibniz rule, for any $C^infty$ function $f$ and vector fields $X,Y$ we have



          $$begin{align}(nabla - D)(X,fY) &= nabla(X,fY) - D(X,fY) \&= (Xf)Y + fnabla(X,Y) - (Xf)Y - fD(X,Y) \ &= f(nabla - D)(X,Y),end{align}$$



          so the $C^infty$-bilinearity is a consequence of the fact that the "constant terms" (those independent of the connection) cancel each other out in the difference.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Oh how could I forgot the equivalence $nabla=D+Gamma Leftrightarrow nabla - D=Gamma$. Thank you for you answer.
            – bbw
            Nov 21 at 23:19















          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted






          This follows from the general result that the difference of two affine connections provide such a bilinear map (tensor) $Gamma$. The nontrivial part is to explain why it is $C^infty$-linear in the second argument (which is not the case for the connections themselves). But by the Leibniz rule, for any $C^infty$ function $f$ and vector fields $X,Y$ we have



          $$begin{align}(nabla - D)(X,fY) &= nabla(X,fY) - D(X,fY) \&= (Xf)Y + fnabla(X,Y) - (Xf)Y - fD(X,Y) \ &= f(nabla - D)(X,Y),end{align}$$



          so the $C^infty$-bilinearity is a consequence of the fact that the "constant terms" (those independent of the connection) cancel each other out in the difference.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          This follows from the general result that the difference of two affine connections provide such a bilinear map (tensor) $Gamma$. The nontrivial part is to explain why it is $C^infty$-linear in the second argument (which is not the case for the connections themselves). But by the Leibniz rule, for any $C^infty$ function $f$ and vector fields $X,Y$ we have



          $$begin{align}(nabla - D)(X,fY) &= nabla(X,fY) - D(X,fY) \&= (Xf)Y + fnabla(X,Y) - (Xf)Y - fD(X,Y) \ &= f(nabla - D)(X,Y),end{align}$$



          so the $C^infty$-bilinearity is a consequence of the fact that the "constant terms" (those independent of the connection) cancel each other out in the difference.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Nov 22 at 12:32

























          answered Nov 21 at 22:49









          Alex Provost

          15.1k22250




          15.1k22250












          • Oh how could I forgot the equivalence $nabla=D+Gamma Leftrightarrow nabla - D=Gamma$. Thank you for you answer.
            – bbw
            Nov 21 at 23:19




















          • Oh how could I forgot the equivalence $nabla=D+Gamma Leftrightarrow nabla - D=Gamma$. Thank you for you answer.
            – bbw
            Nov 21 at 23:19


















          Oh how could I forgot the equivalence $nabla=D+Gamma Leftrightarrow nabla - D=Gamma$. Thank you for you answer.
          – bbw
          Nov 21 at 23:19






          Oh how could I forgot the equivalence $nabla=D+Gamma Leftrightarrow nabla - D=Gamma$. Thank you for you answer.
          – bbw
          Nov 21 at 23:19




















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