Theorem 3.2. Rudin functional analysis, $f_1 leq p$ on $M_1$












1














I cannot understand one small implication in such theorem




Suppose



(a) $M$ is a subspace of a real vector space $X$



(b) $p : X to mathbb{R}$ satisfies $$ p(x+y) leq p(x) + p(y)
> ;text{and}; p(tx) = tp(x) $$
if $x in X$ and $y in X, t geq 0$



(c) $f : M to mathbb{R}$ is linear and $f(x) leq p(x)$ on $M$.



Then there exists a linear $Lambda : X to mathbb{R}$ such that $$
Lambda x = f(x) ; , x in M $$
and $$
-p(-x) leq Lambda x leq p(x) ;,; x in X $$




Proof:



If $M neq X$ we pick $x_1 in X$,$x notin M$ and define
$$
M_1 = left{ x + t x_1 : x in M, t in mathbb{R}right}
$$

we have $M_1$ is a vector space. Moreover we can derive
$$
f(x) + f(y) leq p(x - x_1) + p(y - x_1)
$$

We define also $alpha$ as the least upper bound of $f(x) - p(x - x_1)$ (by varying $x in M$. We can write the two inequalities



$$
begin{array}{ll}
f(x) - alpha leq p(x - x_1) & (2)\
f(x) + alpha leq p(y - x_1) & (3)
end{array}
$$



And on $M_1$ we define
$$
f_1(x + tx_1) = f(x) + talpha ;;; (4)
$$



There's this specific bit I don't get




Take $t > 0$ replace $x$ by $t^{-1}x$ in (2) and $y$ by $t^{-1}y$ in
(3), and multiply the resulting inequalities by $t$. In combination
with (4) this proves that $f_1 leq p$ on $M_1$.




How exactly doing the mentioned steps we get $f_1 leq p$ on $M_1$?
Doing the steps mentioned I got



$$
f_1(x - talpha) + f_1(y + t alpha) = f_1(x + y) leq p(x - tx_1) + p(y + t x_1),
$$



But I still struggle to arrive at the same conclusion



Thank you










share|cite|improve this question



























    1














    I cannot understand one small implication in such theorem




    Suppose



    (a) $M$ is a subspace of a real vector space $X$



    (b) $p : X to mathbb{R}$ satisfies $$ p(x+y) leq p(x) + p(y)
    > ;text{and}; p(tx) = tp(x) $$
    if $x in X$ and $y in X, t geq 0$



    (c) $f : M to mathbb{R}$ is linear and $f(x) leq p(x)$ on $M$.



    Then there exists a linear $Lambda : X to mathbb{R}$ such that $$
    Lambda x = f(x) ; , x in M $$
    and $$
    -p(-x) leq Lambda x leq p(x) ;,; x in X $$




    Proof:



    If $M neq X$ we pick $x_1 in X$,$x notin M$ and define
    $$
    M_1 = left{ x + t x_1 : x in M, t in mathbb{R}right}
    $$

    we have $M_1$ is a vector space. Moreover we can derive
    $$
    f(x) + f(y) leq p(x - x_1) + p(y - x_1)
    $$

    We define also $alpha$ as the least upper bound of $f(x) - p(x - x_1)$ (by varying $x in M$. We can write the two inequalities



    $$
    begin{array}{ll}
    f(x) - alpha leq p(x - x_1) & (2)\
    f(x) + alpha leq p(y - x_1) & (3)
    end{array}
    $$



    And on $M_1$ we define
    $$
    f_1(x + tx_1) = f(x) + talpha ;;; (4)
    $$



    There's this specific bit I don't get




    Take $t > 0$ replace $x$ by $t^{-1}x$ in (2) and $y$ by $t^{-1}y$ in
    (3), and multiply the resulting inequalities by $t$. In combination
    with (4) this proves that $f_1 leq p$ on $M_1$.




    How exactly doing the mentioned steps we get $f_1 leq p$ on $M_1$?
    Doing the steps mentioned I got



    $$
    f_1(x - talpha) + f_1(y + t alpha) = f_1(x + y) leq p(x - tx_1) + p(y + t x_1),
    $$



    But I still struggle to arrive at the same conclusion



    Thank you










    share|cite|improve this question

























      1












      1








      1







      I cannot understand one small implication in such theorem




      Suppose



      (a) $M$ is a subspace of a real vector space $X$



      (b) $p : X to mathbb{R}$ satisfies $$ p(x+y) leq p(x) + p(y)
      > ;text{and}; p(tx) = tp(x) $$
      if $x in X$ and $y in X, t geq 0$



      (c) $f : M to mathbb{R}$ is linear and $f(x) leq p(x)$ on $M$.



      Then there exists a linear $Lambda : X to mathbb{R}$ such that $$
      Lambda x = f(x) ; , x in M $$
      and $$
      -p(-x) leq Lambda x leq p(x) ;,; x in X $$




      Proof:



      If $M neq X$ we pick $x_1 in X$,$x notin M$ and define
      $$
      M_1 = left{ x + t x_1 : x in M, t in mathbb{R}right}
      $$

      we have $M_1$ is a vector space. Moreover we can derive
      $$
      f(x) + f(y) leq p(x - x_1) + p(y - x_1)
      $$

      We define also $alpha$ as the least upper bound of $f(x) - p(x - x_1)$ (by varying $x in M$. We can write the two inequalities



      $$
      begin{array}{ll}
      f(x) - alpha leq p(x - x_1) & (2)\
      f(x) + alpha leq p(y - x_1) & (3)
      end{array}
      $$



      And on $M_1$ we define
      $$
      f_1(x + tx_1) = f(x) + talpha ;;; (4)
      $$



      There's this specific bit I don't get




      Take $t > 0$ replace $x$ by $t^{-1}x$ in (2) and $y$ by $t^{-1}y$ in
      (3), and multiply the resulting inequalities by $t$. In combination
      with (4) this proves that $f_1 leq p$ on $M_1$.




      How exactly doing the mentioned steps we get $f_1 leq p$ on $M_1$?
      Doing the steps mentioned I got



      $$
      f_1(x - talpha) + f_1(y + t alpha) = f_1(x + y) leq p(x - tx_1) + p(y + t x_1),
      $$



      But I still struggle to arrive at the same conclusion



      Thank you










      share|cite|improve this question













      I cannot understand one small implication in such theorem




      Suppose



      (a) $M$ is a subspace of a real vector space $X$



      (b) $p : X to mathbb{R}$ satisfies $$ p(x+y) leq p(x) + p(y)
      > ;text{and}; p(tx) = tp(x) $$
      if $x in X$ and $y in X, t geq 0$



      (c) $f : M to mathbb{R}$ is linear and $f(x) leq p(x)$ on $M$.



      Then there exists a linear $Lambda : X to mathbb{R}$ such that $$
      Lambda x = f(x) ; , x in M $$
      and $$
      -p(-x) leq Lambda x leq p(x) ;,; x in X $$




      Proof:



      If $M neq X$ we pick $x_1 in X$,$x notin M$ and define
      $$
      M_1 = left{ x + t x_1 : x in M, t in mathbb{R}right}
      $$

      we have $M_1$ is a vector space. Moreover we can derive
      $$
      f(x) + f(y) leq p(x - x_1) + p(y - x_1)
      $$

      We define also $alpha$ as the least upper bound of $f(x) - p(x - x_1)$ (by varying $x in M$. We can write the two inequalities



      $$
      begin{array}{ll}
      f(x) - alpha leq p(x - x_1) & (2)\
      f(x) + alpha leq p(y - x_1) & (3)
      end{array}
      $$



      And on $M_1$ we define
      $$
      f_1(x + tx_1) = f(x) + talpha ;;; (4)
      $$



      There's this specific bit I don't get




      Take $t > 0$ replace $x$ by $t^{-1}x$ in (2) and $y$ by $t^{-1}y$ in
      (3), and multiply the resulting inequalities by $t$. In combination
      with (4) this proves that $f_1 leq p$ on $M_1$.




      How exactly doing the mentioned steps we get $f_1 leq p$ on $M_1$?
      Doing the steps mentioned I got



      $$
      f_1(x - talpha) + f_1(y + t alpha) = f_1(x + y) leq p(x - tx_1) + p(y + t x_1),
      $$



      But I still struggle to arrive at the same conclusion



      Thank you







      functional-analysis proof-explanation






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Nov 28 '18 at 10:06









      user8469759

      1,3581616




      1,3581616






















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          You are unnecessarily adding the two inequalities. If you consider them separately and look at the cases $t>0$ and $t<0$ you will get $f_1 leq p$ easily.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • I missed that... Silly related question, is the purpose of this construction to prove that we can construct a space $M_1, M subset M_1$ and we can define a functional $f_1$ that extends $f$ on $M_1$? (I'm asking because the construction itself doesn't seem to be used explicitly later in the proof).
            – user8469759
            Nov 28 '18 at 10:25










          • If you can extend it by 'one higher dimension' by this method then you can prove that maximal space to which you can get an extension is the whole of $X$. So this step is very important when you finish the proof of the theorem.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Nov 28 '18 at 10:28










          • Ok but apart from that final point (important of course), Consider when we pick the collection $mathcal{P}$ of all ordered pairs $(M',f')$ where $M'$ is a subspace containing $M$ and $f'$ extends $f$ on $M'$. That collection isn't empty because of what we just proved, right?
            – user8469759
            Nov 28 '18 at 10:32












          • It is not empty because $(M,f)$ is already in it!
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Nov 28 '18 at 10:34










          • Out of curiosity, the theorem states (in (c) ) $f(x) leq p(x)$, shouldn't it be $|f(x)| leq |p(x)|$? (I saw there's a typo in (b), I just wanna be sure (c) is correct as well).
            – user8469759
            Nov 29 '18 at 10:14













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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

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          1














          You are unnecessarily adding the two inequalities. If you consider them separately and look at the cases $t>0$ and $t<0$ you will get $f_1 leq p$ easily.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • I missed that... Silly related question, is the purpose of this construction to prove that we can construct a space $M_1, M subset M_1$ and we can define a functional $f_1$ that extends $f$ on $M_1$? (I'm asking because the construction itself doesn't seem to be used explicitly later in the proof).
            – user8469759
            Nov 28 '18 at 10:25










          • If you can extend it by 'one higher dimension' by this method then you can prove that maximal space to which you can get an extension is the whole of $X$. So this step is very important when you finish the proof of the theorem.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Nov 28 '18 at 10:28










          • Ok but apart from that final point (important of course), Consider when we pick the collection $mathcal{P}$ of all ordered pairs $(M',f')$ where $M'$ is a subspace containing $M$ and $f'$ extends $f$ on $M'$. That collection isn't empty because of what we just proved, right?
            – user8469759
            Nov 28 '18 at 10:32












          • It is not empty because $(M,f)$ is already in it!
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Nov 28 '18 at 10:34










          • Out of curiosity, the theorem states (in (c) ) $f(x) leq p(x)$, shouldn't it be $|f(x)| leq |p(x)|$? (I saw there's a typo in (b), I just wanna be sure (c) is correct as well).
            – user8469759
            Nov 29 '18 at 10:14


















          1














          You are unnecessarily adding the two inequalities. If you consider them separately and look at the cases $t>0$ and $t<0$ you will get $f_1 leq p$ easily.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • I missed that... Silly related question, is the purpose of this construction to prove that we can construct a space $M_1, M subset M_1$ and we can define a functional $f_1$ that extends $f$ on $M_1$? (I'm asking because the construction itself doesn't seem to be used explicitly later in the proof).
            – user8469759
            Nov 28 '18 at 10:25










          • If you can extend it by 'one higher dimension' by this method then you can prove that maximal space to which you can get an extension is the whole of $X$. So this step is very important when you finish the proof of the theorem.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Nov 28 '18 at 10:28










          • Ok but apart from that final point (important of course), Consider when we pick the collection $mathcal{P}$ of all ordered pairs $(M',f')$ where $M'$ is a subspace containing $M$ and $f'$ extends $f$ on $M'$. That collection isn't empty because of what we just proved, right?
            – user8469759
            Nov 28 '18 at 10:32












          • It is not empty because $(M,f)$ is already in it!
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Nov 28 '18 at 10:34










          • Out of curiosity, the theorem states (in (c) ) $f(x) leq p(x)$, shouldn't it be $|f(x)| leq |p(x)|$? (I saw there's a typo in (b), I just wanna be sure (c) is correct as well).
            – user8469759
            Nov 29 '18 at 10:14
















          1












          1








          1






          You are unnecessarily adding the two inequalities. If you consider them separately and look at the cases $t>0$ and $t<0$ you will get $f_1 leq p$ easily.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          You are unnecessarily adding the two inequalities. If you consider them separately and look at the cases $t>0$ and $t<0$ you will get $f_1 leq p$ easily.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 28 '18 at 10:15









          Kavi Rama Murthy

          50.7k31854




          50.7k31854












          • I missed that... Silly related question, is the purpose of this construction to prove that we can construct a space $M_1, M subset M_1$ and we can define a functional $f_1$ that extends $f$ on $M_1$? (I'm asking because the construction itself doesn't seem to be used explicitly later in the proof).
            – user8469759
            Nov 28 '18 at 10:25










          • If you can extend it by 'one higher dimension' by this method then you can prove that maximal space to which you can get an extension is the whole of $X$. So this step is very important when you finish the proof of the theorem.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Nov 28 '18 at 10:28










          • Ok but apart from that final point (important of course), Consider when we pick the collection $mathcal{P}$ of all ordered pairs $(M',f')$ where $M'$ is a subspace containing $M$ and $f'$ extends $f$ on $M'$. That collection isn't empty because of what we just proved, right?
            – user8469759
            Nov 28 '18 at 10:32












          • It is not empty because $(M,f)$ is already in it!
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Nov 28 '18 at 10:34










          • Out of curiosity, the theorem states (in (c) ) $f(x) leq p(x)$, shouldn't it be $|f(x)| leq |p(x)|$? (I saw there's a typo in (b), I just wanna be sure (c) is correct as well).
            – user8469759
            Nov 29 '18 at 10:14




















          • I missed that... Silly related question, is the purpose of this construction to prove that we can construct a space $M_1, M subset M_1$ and we can define a functional $f_1$ that extends $f$ on $M_1$? (I'm asking because the construction itself doesn't seem to be used explicitly later in the proof).
            – user8469759
            Nov 28 '18 at 10:25










          • If you can extend it by 'one higher dimension' by this method then you can prove that maximal space to which you can get an extension is the whole of $X$. So this step is very important when you finish the proof of the theorem.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Nov 28 '18 at 10:28










          • Ok but apart from that final point (important of course), Consider when we pick the collection $mathcal{P}$ of all ordered pairs $(M',f')$ where $M'$ is a subspace containing $M$ and $f'$ extends $f$ on $M'$. That collection isn't empty because of what we just proved, right?
            – user8469759
            Nov 28 '18 at 10:32












          • It is not empty because $(M,f)$ is already in it!
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Nov 28 '18 at 10:34










          • Out of curiosity, the theorem states (in (c) ) $f(x) leq p(x)$, shouldn't it be $|f(x)| leq |p(x)|$? (I saw there's a typo in (b), I just wanna be sure (c) is correct as well).
            – user8469759
            Nov 29 '18 at 10:14


















          I missed that... Silly related question, is the purpose of this construction to prove that we can construct a space $M_1, M subset M_1$ and we can define a functional $f_1$ that extends $f$ on $M_1$? (I'm asking because the construction itself doesn't seem to be used explicitly later in the proof).
          – user8469759
          Nov 28 '18 at 10:25




          I missed that... Silly related question, is the purpose of this construction to prove that we can construct a space $M_1, M subset M_1$ and we can define a functional $f_1$ that extends $f$ on $M_1$? (I'm asking because the construction itself doesn't seem to be used explicitly later in the proof).
          – user8469759
          Nov 28 '18 at 10:25












          If you can extend it by 'one higher dimension' by this method then you can prove that maximal space to which you can get an extension is the whole of $X$. So this step is very important when you finish the proof of the theorem.
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Nov 28 '18 at 10:28




          If you can extend it by 'one higher dimension' by this method then you can prove that maximal space to which you can get an extension is the whole of $X$. So this step is very important when you finish the proof of the theorem.
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Nov 28 '18 at 10:28












          Ok but apart from that final point (important of course), Consider when we pick the collection $mathcal{P}$ of all ordered pairs $(M',f')$ where $M'$ is a subspace containing $M$ and $f'$ extends $f$ on $M'$. That collection isn't empty because of what we just proved, right?
          – user8469759
          Nov 28 '18 at 10:32






          Ok but apart from that final point (important of course), Consider when we pick the collection $mathcal{P}$ of all ordered pairs $(M',f')$ where $M'$ is a subspace containing $M$ and $f'$ extends $f$ on $M'$. That collection isn't empty because of what we just proved, right?
          – user8469759
          Nov 28 '18 at 10:32














          It is not empty because $(M,f)$ is already in it!
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Nov 28 '18 at 10:34




          It is not empty because $(M,f)$ is already in it!
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Nov 28 '18 at 10:34












          Out of curiosity, the theorem states (in (c) ) $f(x) leq p(x)$, shouldn't it be $|f(x)| leq |p(x)|$? (I saw there's a typo in (b), I just wanna be sure (c) is correct as well).
          – user8469759
          Nov 29 '18 at 10:14






          Out of curiosity, the theorem states (in (c) ) $f(x) leq p(x)$, shouldn't it be $|f(x)| leq |p(x)|$? (I saw there's a typo in (b), I just wanna be sure (c) is correct as well).
          – user8469759
          Nov 29 '18 at 10:14




















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