Show that Closure of a set is equal to the union of the set and its boundary











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I'm trying to show that a closure of a set is equal to the union of the set and its boundary.




Let $A$ be a subset of a metric space $(X, d)$.
Then show that $overline A = A cup partial A$




Where $overline A$ is the closure of $A$ and $partial A$ is the boundary of $A$ and $A^o$ is the interior of $A$.



My attempt:



Let $a in overline A$. Then either $a in overline A$ $A^o$ or $a in A^o$.



$a in A^o$ part is trivial so I omit this part.



Suppose $a in overline A$ $A^o$



Since $overline A$ $A^o$ is the smallest closed set containing $A$ and all the interior points of $A$ removed, only the boundary points of $A$ are left. So $a in overline A$ $A^o$ = $partial A$ $subset A cup partial A$.



Hence $overline A subset A cup partial A$



Now suppose $a in A cup partial A$. Again $a in A$ part is trivial so I omit this part. So we consider $a in partial A$.
Then $a in partial A = overline A$ $A^o$. So $a in A cup (overline A$ $A^o)$ = $overline A$.



So $A cup partial A subset overline A$



Therefore, $overline A = A cup partial A$



Does this proof make sense?



Any comment / correction is appreciated










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  • I would like to comment, but please tell me first: which definition of boundary are you using?
    – José Carlos Santos
    Nov 21 at 11:58










  • @JoséCarlosSantos Def : A point $a in X$ is a boundary point of $A$ if $forall r > 0$, $B_r (a) cap A neq emptyset$ and $B_r (a) cap A^c neq emptyset$
    – TUC
    Nov 21 at 12:02















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












I'm trying to show that a closure of a set is equal to the union of the set and its boundary.




Let $A$ be a subset of a metric space $(X, d)$.
Then show that $overline A = A cup partial A$




Where $overline A$ is the closure of $A$ and $partial A$ is the boundary of $A$ and $A^o$ is the interior of $A$.



My attempt:



Let $a in overline A$. Then either $a in overline A$ $A^o$ or $a in A^o$.



$a in A^o$ part is trivial so I omit this part.



Suppose $a in overline A$ $A^o$



Since $overline A$ $A^o$ is the smallest closed set containing $A$ and all the interior points of $A$ removed, only the boundary points of $A$ are left. So $a in overline A$ $A^o$ = $partial A$ $subset A cup partial A$.



Hence $overline A subset A cup partial A$



Now suppose $a in A cup partial A$. Again $a in A$ part is trivial so I omit this part. So we consider $a in partial A$.
Then $a in partial A = overline A$ $A^o$. So $a in A cup (overline A$ $A^o)$ = $overline A$.



So $A cup partial A subset overline A$



Therefore, $overline A = A cup partial A$



Does this proof make sense?



Any comment / correction is appreciated










share|cite|improve this question






















  • I would like to comment, but please tell me first: which definition of boundary are you using?
    – José Carlos Santos
    Nov 21 at 11:58










  • @JoséCarlosSantos Def : A point $a in X$ is a boundary point of $A$ if $forall r > 0$, $B_r (a) cap A neq emptyset$ and $B_r (a) cap A^c neq emptyset$
    – TUC
    Nov 21 at 12:02













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











I'm trying to show that a closure of a set is equal to the union of the set and its boundary.




Let $A$ be a subset of a metric space $(X, d)$.
Then show that $overline A = A cup partial A$




Where $overline A$ is the closure of $A$ and $partial A$ is the boundary of $A$ and $A^o$ is the interior of $A$.



My attempt:



Let $a in overline A$. Then either $a in overline A$ $A^o$ or $a in A^o$.



$a in A^o$ part is trivial so I omit this part.



Suppose $a in overline A$ $A^o$



Since $overline A$ $A^o$ is the smallest closed set containing $A$ and all the interior points of $A$ removed, only the boundary points of $A$ are left. So $a in overline A$ $A^o$ = $partial A$ $subset A cup partial A$.



Hence $overline A subset A cup partial A$



Now suppose $a in A cup partial A$. Again $a in A$ part is trivial so I omit this part. So we consider $a in partial A$.
Then $a in partial A = overline A$ $A^o$. So $a in A cup (overline A$ $A^o)$ = $overline A$.



So $A cup partial A subset overline A$



Therefore, $overline A = A cup partial A$



Does this proof make sense?



Any comment / correction is appreciated










share|cite|improve this question













I'm trying to show that a closure of a set is equal to the union of the set and its boundary.




Let $A$ be a subset of a metric space $(X, d)$.
Then show that $overline A = A cup partial A$




Where $overline A$ is the closure of $A$ and $partial A$ is the boundary of $A$ and $A^o$ is the interior of $A$.



My attempt:



Let $a in overline A$. Then either $a in overline A$ $A^o$ or $a in A^o$.



$a in A^o$ part is trivial so I omit this part.



Suppose $a in overline A$ $A^o$



Since $overline A$ $A^o$ is the smallest closed set containing $A$ and all the interior points of $A$ removed, only the boundary points of $A$ are left. So $a in overline A$ $A^o$ = $partial A$ $subset A cup partial A$.



Hence $overline A subset A cup partial A$



Now suppose $a in A cup partial A$. Again $a in A$ part is trivial so I omit this part. So we consider $a in partial A$.
Then $a in partial A = overline A$ $A^o$. So $a in A cup (overline A$ $A^o)$ = $overline A$.



So $A cup partial A subset overline A$



Therefore, $overline A = A cup partial A$



Does this proof make sense?



Any comment / correction is appreciated







metric-spaces






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asked Nov 21 at 11:54









TUC

505




505












  • I would like to comment, but please tell me first: which definition of boundary are you using?
    – José Carlos Santos
    Nov 21 at 11:58










  • @JoséCarlosSantos Def : A point $a in X$ is a boundary point of $A$ if $forall r > 0$, $B_r (a) cap A neq emptyset$ and $B_r (a) cap A^c neq emptyset$
    – TUC
    Nov 21 at 12:02


















  • I would like to comment, but please tell me first: which definition of boundary are you using?
    – José Carlos Santos
    Nov 21 at 11:58










  • @JoséCarlosSantos Def : A point $a in X$ is a boundary point of $A$ if $forall r > 0$, $B_r (a) cap A neq emptyset$ and $B_r (a) cap A^c neq emptyset$
    – TUC
    Nov 21 at 12:02
















I would like to comment, but please tell me first: which definition of boundary are you using?
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 21 at 11:58




I would like to comment, but please tell me first: which definition of boundary are you using?
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 21 at 11:58












@JoséCarlosSantos Def : A point $a in X$ is a boundary point of $A$ if $forall r > 0$, $B_r (a) cap A neq emptyset$ and $B_r (a) cap A^c neq emptyset$
– TUC
Nov 21 at 12:02




@JoséCarlosSantos Def : A point $a in X$ is a boundary point of $A$ if $forall r > 0$, $B_r (a) cap A neq emptyset$ and $B_r (a) cap A^c neq emptyset$
– TUC
Nov 21 at 12:02










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Let $xin overline{A}$. Let $xnotin A$. Thus $xin Xsetminus Aimplies xin overline{Xsetminus A}$. Thus $xin overline{A}cap overline{Xsetminus A}=partial A$.



Again by definition $Asubset overline{A}$ and $partial Asubset overline{A}$. Hence $Acup partial Asubset overline{A}$.






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    down vote













    Your proof is correct, except that you asserted that $overline Asetminusmathring A$ is the smallest closed set containing $A$. No; that would be $overline A$.



    Besides, since you use twice the fact that $partial A=overline Asetminusmathring A$, I suggest that you prove this as a lemma first.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















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      2 Answers
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      2 Answers
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      Let $xin overline{A}$. Let $xnotin A$. Thus $xin Xsetminus Aimplies xin overline{Xsetminus A}$. Thus $xin overline{A}cap overline{Xsetminus A}=partial A$.



      Again by definition $Asubset overline{A}$ and $partial Asubset overline{A}$. Hence $Acup partial Asubset overline{A}$.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
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        down vote













        Let $xin overline{A}$. Let $xnotin A$. Thus $xin Xsetminus Aimplies xin overline{Xsetminus A}$. Thus $xin overline{A}cap overline{Xsetminus A}=partial A$.



        Again by definition $Asubset overline{A}$ and $partial Asubset overline{A}$. Hence $Acup partial Asubset overline{A}$.






        share|cite|improve this answer























          up vote
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          down vote










          up vote
          1
          down vote









          Let $xin overline{A}$. Let $xnotin A$. Thus $xin Xsetminus Aimplies xin overline{Xsetminus A}$. Thus $xin overline{A}cap overline{Xsetminus A}=partial A$.



          Again by definition $Asubset overline{A}$ and $partial Asubset overline{A}$. Hence $Acup partial Asubset overline{A}$.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Let $xin overline{A}$. Let $xnotin A$. Thus $xin Xsetminus Aimplies xin overline{Xsetminus A}$. Thus $xin overline{A}cap overline{Xsetminus A}=partial A$.



          Again by definition $Asubset overline{A}$ and $partial Asubset overline{A}$. Hence $Acup partial Asubset overline{A}$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 21 at 12:07









          Anupam

          2,3701823




          2,3701823






















              up vote
              1
              down vote













              Your proof is correct, except that you asserted that $overline Asetminusmathring A$ is the smallest closed set containing $A$. No; that would be $overline A$.



              Besides, since you use twice the fact that $partial A=overline Asetminusmathring A$, I suggest that you prove this as a lemma first.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                1
                down vote













                Your proof is correct, except that you asserted that $overline Asetminusmathring A$ is the smallest closed set containing $A$. No; that would be $overline A$.



                Besides, since you use twice the fact that $partial A=overline Asetminusmathring A$, I suggest that you prove this as a lemma first.






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote









                  Your proof is correct, except that you asserted that $overline Asetminusmathring A$ is the smallest closed set containing $A$. No; that would be $overline A$.



                  Besides, since you use twice the fact that $partial A=overline Asetminusmathring A$, I suggest that you prove this as a lemma first.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  Your proof is correct, except that you asserted that $overline Asetminusmathring A$ is the smallest closed set containing $A$. No; that would be $overline A$.



                  Besides, since you use twice the fact that $partial A=overline Asetminusmathring A$, I suggest that you prove this as a lemma first.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Nov 21 at 12:08









                  José Carlos Santos

                  144k20113214




                  144k20113214






























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