Double Integral unequal after switching $dy$ and $dx$. Exact reasoning required












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I have worked out $int_{[0,1]}(int_{[0,1]}frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} dlambda(x)) dlambda (y)=-frac{pi}{4}$ and $int_{[0,1]}(int_{[0,1]}frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} dlambda(y)) dlambda (x)=frac{pi}{4}$



What should my exact reasoning be as to why the double integral does not exist according to $lambda^2$?



Should I argue along the lines of $int_{[0,1]times[0,1]}frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2}dlambda^2(x,y)$ not being well-defined as



$int_{[0,1]times[0,1]}frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2}dlambda^2(x,y)=int_{[0,1]}(int_{[0,1]}frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} dlambda(x)) dlambda (y)=-frac{pi}{4}$



and



$int_{[0,1]times[0,1]}frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2}dlambda^2(x,y)=int_{[0,1]}(int_{[0,1]}frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} dlambda(y)) dlambda (x)=frac{pi}{4}
$



But I am not sure on this argument.










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    2












    $begingroup$


    I have worked out $int_{[0,1]}(int_{[0,1]}frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} dlambda(x)) dlambda (y)=-frac{pi}{4}$ and $int_{[0,1]}(int_{[0,1]}frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} dlambda(y)) dlambda (x)=frac{pi}{4}$



    What should my exact reasoning be as to why the double integral does not exist according to $lambda^2$?



    Should I argue along the lines of $int_{[0,1]times[0,1]}frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2}dlambda^2(x,y)$ not being well-defined as



    $int_{[0,1]times[0,1]}frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2}dlambda^2(x,y)=int_{[0,1]}(int_{[0,1]}frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} dlambda(x)) dlambda (y)=-frac{pi}{4}$



    and



    $int_{[0,1]times[0,1]}frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2}dlambda^2(x,y)=int_{[0,1]}(int_{[0,1]}frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} dlambda(y)) dlambda (x)=frac{pi}{4}
    $



    But I am not sure on this argument.










    share|cite|improve this question









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      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      I have worked out $int_{[0,1]}(int_{[0,1]}frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} dlambda(x)) dlambda (y)=-frac{pi}{4}$ and $int_{[0,1]}(int_{[0,1]}frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} dlambda(y)) dlambda (x)=frac{pi}{4}$



      What should my exact reasoning be as to why the double integral does not exist according to $lambda^2$?



      Should I argue along the lines of $int_{[0,1]times[0,1]}frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2}dlambda^2(x,y)$ not being well-defined as



      $int_{[0,1]times[0,1]}frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2}dlambda^2(x,y)=int_{[0,1]}(int_{[0,1]}frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} dlambda(x)) dlambda (y)=-frac{pi}{4}$



      and



      $int_{[0,1]times[0,1]}frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2}dlambda^2(x,y)=int_{[0,1]}(int_{[0,1]}frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} dlambda(y)) dlambda (x)=frac{pi}{4}
      $



      But I am not sure on this argument.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I have worked out $int_{[0,1]}(int_{[0,1]}frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} dlambda(x)) dlambda (y)=-frac{pi}{4}$ and $int_{[0,1]}(int_{[0,1]}frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} dlambda(y)) dlambda (x)=frac{pi}{4}$



      What should my exact reasoning be as to why the double integral does not exist according to $lambda^2$?



      Should I argue along the lines of $int_{[0,1]times[0,1]}frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2}dlambda^2(x,y)$ not being well-defined as



      $int_{[0,1]times[0,1]}frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2}dlambda^2(x,y)=int_{[0,1]}(int_{[0,1]}frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} dlambda(x)) dlambda (y)=-frac{pi}{4}$



      and



      $int_{[0,1]times[0,1]}frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2}dlambda^2(x,y)=int_{[0,1]}(int_{[0,1]}frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} dlambda(y)) dlambda (x)=frac{pi}{4}
      $



      But I am not sure on this argument.







      real-analysis integration measure-theory multivariable-calculus






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      asked Dec 18 '18 at 11:23









      SABOYSABOY

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          It's a direct application of Fubini: $fnotin mathcal L^1(Itimes I)$ because the iterated integrals are not equal. You can show this directly by using polar coordinates and noting that, if $E=left {(x,y):) 0le yle frac{1}{sqrt 3}xright },$ we have $ |f(x,y)|=frac{cos 2t}{r^{2}}ge frac{1}{2r^{2}}$ so $int|f|=int_E |f|+int_{E^c}|f|$ and since $int_E |f|=infty, fnotin L^1(Itimes I)$.






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            $begingroup$

            It's a direct application of Fubini: $fnotin mathcal L^1(Itimes I)$ because the iterated integrals are not equal. You can show this directly by using polar coordinates and noting that, if $E=left {(x,y):) 0le yle frac{1}{sqrt 3}xright },$ we have $ |f(x,y)|=frac{cos 2t}{r^{2}}ge frac{1}{2r^{2}}$ so $int|f|=int_E |f|+int_{E^c}|f|$ and since $int_E |f|=infty, fnotin L^1(Itimes I)$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









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              0












              $begingroup$

              It's a direct application of Fubini: $fnotin mathcal L^1(Itimes I)$ because the iterated integrals are not equal. You can show this directly by using polar coordinates and noting that, if $E=left {(x,y):) 0le yle frac{1}{sqrt 3}xright },$ we have $ |f(x,y)|=frac{cos 2t}{r^{2}}ge frac{1}{2r^{2}}$ so $int|f|=int_E |f|+int_{E^c}|f|$ and since $int_E |f|=infty, fnotin L^1(Itimes I)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









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                0












                0








                0





                $begingroup$

                It's a direct application of Fubini: $fnotin mathcal L^1(Itimes I)$ because the iterated integrals are not equal. You can show this directly by using polar coordinates and noting that, if $E=left {(x,y):) 0le yle frac{1}{sqrt 3}xright },$ we have $ |f(x,y)|=frac{cos 2t}{r^{2}}ge frac{1}{2r^{2}}$ so $int|f|=int_E |f|+int_{E^c}|f|$ and since $int_E |f|=infty, fnotin L^1(Itimes I)$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                It's a direct application of Fubini: $fnotin mathcal L^1(Itimes I)$ because the iterated integrals are not equal. You can show this directly by using polar coordinates and noting that, if $E=left {(x,y):) 0le yle frac{1}{sqrt 3}xright },$ we have $ |f(x,y)|=frac{cos 2t}{r^{2}}ge frac{1}{2r^{2}}$ so $int|f|=int_E |f|+int_{E^c}|f|$ and since $int_E |f|=infty, fnotin L^1(Itimes I)$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 18 '18 at 16:31









                MatematletaMatematleta

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                11.5k2920






























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