Finding Laurent Series using Binomial Theorem - HOW?












2












$begingroup$


I'm working on a fairly simple question asking to work out the necessary branch cut(s) for the function $f(z)=(z^2+1)^{1/2}$. I am comfortable doing this and the rigour required to explained why I need / don't need certain branch cuts.



I have a branch cut between $(-i, i)$ on the imaginary axis and my argument is defined as $-3pi /2 < arg{(z pm i)} le pi/2$.



The next part of the questions says




For your branch, show also that as $|z|rightarrow infty $ we have,
$$f(z)=z+frac{1}{2z} + O(frac{1}{z^3}).$$




In a comparable example, this is shown by computing the binomial expansion for the function and then leaping to saying that this is equal to the Laurent Expansion.



Here's my working:



$f(z)$ is regular everywhere except at $z= pm i$ and our branch cut. Hence, it has a Laurent series. On the +ve real axis we have $f(z)=(x^2+1)^{1/2}=|x|(1+(1/x)^2)^{1/2}$ which I can expand by using the binomial theorem like so,
$$f(z)=|x|(1+frac{1}{2x^2}-frac{1}{8x^4}+... quad=x+frac{1}{2x}+O(frac{1}{x^3}).$$



I believe all that is left to do is say that this is true for $|z|rightarrow infty$, but how can I?



My main questions are:




For what values of $x$ is the binomial expansion valid?
Why can I suddenly say that this expansion characterises the behaviour of $f(z)$ for large $pm z$?











share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    My intuition tells me that if you do a Laurent series expansion at any $z_0 in mathbb{C}$, sooner or later you will hit the branch cut, so the expansion is no longer valid as $z to infty$. So it seems to me the reasonable thing to do is to do a Laurent series expansion at $infty$ and show that it is $z + frac{1}{2z} + mathcal{O}(frac{1}{z^3})$, which can be done (!) according to this question. But I must say don't know enough complex analysis to do it rigorously (if my approach is correct).
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Vong
    Dec 24 '18 at 23:42
















2












$begingroup$


I'm working on a fairly simple question asking to work out the necessary branch cut(s) for the function $f(z)=(z^2+1)^{1/2}$. I am comfortable doing this and the rigour required to explained why I need / don't need certain branch cuts.



I have a branch cut between $(-i, i)$ on the imaginary axis and my argument is defined as $-3pi /2 < arg{(z pm i)} le pi/2$.



The next part of the questions says




For your branch, show also that as $|z|rightarrow infty $ we have,
$$f(z)=z+frac{1}{2z} + O(frac{1}{z^3}).$$




In a comparable example, this is shown by computing the binomial expansion for the function and then leaping to saying that this is equal to the Laurent Expansion.



Here's my working:



$f(z)$ is regular everywhere except at $z= pm i$ and our branch cut. Hence, it has a Laurent series. On the +ve real axis we have $f(z)=(x^2+1)^{1/2}=|x|(1+(1/x)^2)^{1/2}$ which I can expand by using the binomial theorem like so,
$$f(z)=|x|(1+frac{1}{2x^2}-frac{1}{8x^4}+... quad=x+frac{1}{2x}+O(frac{1}{x^3}).$$



I believe all that is left to do is say that this is true for $|z|rightarrow infty$, but how can I?



My main questions are:




For what values of $x$ is the binomial expansion valid?
Why can I suddenly say that this expansion characterises the behaviour of $f(z)$ for large $pm z$?











share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    My intuition tells me that if you do a Laurent series expansion at any $z_0 in mathbb{C}$, sooner or later you will hit the branch cut, so the expansion is no longer valid as $z to infty$. So it seems to me the reasonable thing to do is to do a Laurent series expansion at $infty$ and show that it is $z + frac{1}{2z} + mathcal{O}(frac{1}{z^3})$, which can be done (!) according to this question. But I must say don't know enough complex analysis to do it rigorously (if my approach is correct).
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Vong
    Dec 24 '18 at 23:42














2












2








2


1



$begingroup$


I'm working on a fairly simple question asking to work out the necessary branch cut(s) for the function $f(z)=(z^2+1)^{1/2}$. I am comfortable doing this and the rigour required to explained why I need / don't need certain branch cuts.



I have a branch cut between $(-i, i)$ on the imaginary axis and my argument is defined as $-3pi /2 < arg{(z pm i)} le pi/2$.



The next part of the questions says




For your branch, show also that as $|z|rightarrow infty $ we have,
$$f(z)=z+frac{1}{2z} + O(frac{1}{z^3}).$$




In a comparable example, this is shown by computing the binomial expansion for the function and then leaping to saying that this is equal to the Laurent Expansion.



Here's my working:



$f(z)$ is regular everywhere except at $z= pm i$ and our branch cut. Hence, it has a Laurent series. On the +ve real axis we have $f(z)=(x^2+1)^{1/2}=|x|(1+(1/x)^2)^{1/2}$ which I can expand by using the binomial theorem like so,
$$f(z)=|x|(1+frac{1}{2x^2}-frac{1}{8x^4}+... quad=x+frac{1}{2x}+O(frac{1}{x^3}).$$



I believe all that is left to do is say that this is true for $|z|rightarrow infty$, but how can I?



My main questions are:




For what values of $x$ is the binomial expansion valid?
Why can I suddenly say that this expansion characterises the behaviour of $f(z)$ for large $pm z$?











share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I'm working on a fairly simple question asking to work out the necessary branch cut(s) for the function $f(z)=(z^2+1)^{1/2}$. I am comfortable doing this and the rigour required to explained why I need / don't need certain branch cuts.



I have a branch cut between $(-i, i)$ on the imaginary axis and my argument is defined as $-3pi /2 < arg{(z pm i)} le pi/2$.



The next part of the questions says




For your branch, show also that as $|z|rightarrow infty $ we have,
$$f(z)=z+frac{1}{2z} + O(frac{1}{z^3}).$$




In a comparable example, this is shown by computing the binomial expansion for the function and then leaping to saying that this is equal to the Laurent Expansion.



Here's my working:



$f(z)$ is regular everywhere except at $z= pm i$ and our branch cut. Hence, it has a Laurent series. On the +ve real axis we have $f(z)=(x^2+1)^{1/2}=|x|(1+(1/x)^2)^{1/2}$ which I can expand by using the binomial theorem like so,
$$f(z)=|x|(1+frac{1}{2x^2}-frac{1}{8x^4}+... quad=x+frac{1}{2x}+O(frac{1}{x^3}).$$



I believe all that is left to do is say that this is true for $|z|rightarrow infty$, but how can I?



My main questions are:




For what values of $x$ is the binomial expansion valid?
Why can I suddenly say that this expansion characterises the behaviour of $f(z)$ for large $pm z$?








complex-analysis binomial-theorem laurent-series branch-cuts






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Dec 24 '18 at 22:10









Joel BiffinJoel Biffin

1017




1017












  • $begingroup$
    My intuition tells me that if you do a Laurent series expansion at any $z_0 in mathbb{C}$, sooner or later you will hit the branch cut, so the expansion is no longer valid as $z to infty$. So it seems to me the reasonable thing to do is to do a Laurent series expansion at $infty$ and show that it is $z + frac{1}{2z} + mathcal{O}(frac{1}{z^3})$, which can be done (!) according to this question. But I must say don't know enough complex analysis to do it rigorously (if my approach is correct).
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Vong
    Dec 24 '18 at 23:42


















  • $begingroup$
    My intuition tells me that if you do a Laurent series expansion at any $z_0 in mathbb{C}$, sooner or later you will hit the branch cut, so the expansion is no longer valid as $z to infty$. So it seems to me the reasonable thing to do is to do a Laurent series expansion at $infty$ and show that it is $z + frac{1}{2z} + mathcal{O}(frac{1}{z^3})$, which can be done (!) according to this question. But I must say don't know enough complex analysis to do it rigorously (if my approach is correct).
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Vong
    Dec 24 '18 at 23:42
















$begingroup$
My intuition tells me that if you do a Laurent series expansion at any $z_0 in mathbb{C}$, sooner or later you will hit the branch cut, so the expansion is no longer valid as $z to infty$. So it seems to me the reasonable thing to do is to do a Laurent series expansion at $infty$ and show that it is $z + frac{1}{2z} + mathcal{O}(frac{1}{z^3})$, which can be done (!) according to this question. But I must say don't know enough complex analysis to do it rigorously (if my approach is correct).
$endgroup$
– Alex Vong
Dec 24 '18 at 23:42




$begingroup$
My intuition tells me that if you do a Laurent series expansion at any $z_0 in mathbb{C}$, sooner or later you will hit the branch cut, so the expansion is no longer valid as $z to infty$. So it seems to me the reasonable thing to do is to do a Laurent series expansion at $infty$ and show that it is $z + frac{1}{2z} + mathcal{O}(frac{1}{z^3})$, which can be done (!) according to this question. But I must say don't know enough complex analysis to do it rigorously (if my approach is correct).
$endgroup$
– Alex Vong
Dec 24 '18 at 23:42










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

The key point is that $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ has a Taylor series expansion around $w = 0$, given by
$$ (1 + w)^{1/2} = 1 + frac {w}{2} - frac {w^2}{8} + frac{w^3}{16} - dots$$
Since $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ is holomorphic on the unit disk $B(0, 1)$, this series expansion is valid on the whole of the disk $B(0, 1)$.



[This follows from the standard proof of Taylor's theorem for holomorphic functions. The general result is that if $f : U to mathbb C$ is holomorphic and $bar B(w_0, r) subset U$, then the Taylor series for $f$ around $w_0$ is uniformly convergent and equal to $f$
on $B(w_0, r)$. See here for the proof. Applying this to $f(w) = (1 + w)^{1/2}$ with $U = B(0, 1)$ and $w_0 = 0$, we find that the above series expansion is uniformly convergent and equal to $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ on $B(0, r)$, for every $r < 1$. Hence it is also pointwise convergent and equal to $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ on $B(0, 1)$ itself.]



[I should also clarify, in case it isn't obvious, that we're considering the branch of $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ that takes the value $1$ when $w = 0$. This branch is well defined on the whole of the unit disk $B(0, 1)$.]



Anyway, if we now substitute $w = z^{-2}$, we see that the series expansion
$$ left( 1 + z^{-2}right)^{1/2} = 1 + frac{1}{2z^2} - frac{1}{8z^4} + frac{1}{16 z^6} - dots$$



is valid for all $z$ such that $|z| > 1$. So this series expansion certainly captures the behaviour of $left( 1 + z^{-2} right)^{1/2}$ as $z to infty$.





I think it might help to spell out how to rigorously arrive at the result about the asymptotic behaviour. The big-O notation is a bit confusing here.



So the Taylor series expansion for $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ tells you that there exists a holomorphic function $g : B(0,1) to mathbb C$ such that
$$ (1 + w)^{1/2} = 1 + frac{w}{2}+ w^2 g(w)$$
for all $w in B(0, 1)$.



By continuity, there certainly exists an $M$ and a $delta > 0$ such that
$$|w| < delta implies g(w) leq M$$
i.e. such that
$$|w| < delta implies (1 + w)^{1/2} - 1 - frac{w}{2} leq Mw^2.$$



Setting $w = z^{-2}$, and multiply through by $z$ we find that
$$ |z| > frac 1 {sqrt{delta}} implies left( 1 + z^2 right)^{1/2} - z - frac{1}{2z} leq frac{M}{z^3},$$
which is to say that



$$ left( 1 + z^2right)^{1/2} = z + frac{1}{2z} + Oleft( frac{1}{z^3} right) $$
as $z to infty$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    In the original question, $f(z) = (z^2 + 1)^{frac{1}{2}}$, but here we have $(z^{-2} + 1)^{frac{1}{2}}$. Which one is right?
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Vong
    Dec 25 '18 at 4:05






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @AlexVong $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ is the same as $(1 + z^{-2})^{1/2}$. To get $(z^2 + 1)^{1/2}$, you then multiply through by $z$. I did this in the second-to-last equation. Sorry about the confusion!
    $endgroup$
    – Kenny Wong
    Dec 25 '18 at 11:58












  • $begingroup$
    This is one of the most comprehensive explanations I have seen to a question here. Thank you @KennyWong. Also, I love the study of Analysis but have never studied Metric Spaces. I notice you mention a Ball in your answer, and on the surface I understand what you mean in this context, but do you recommend that I endeavour to learn about Metric Spaces?
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Biffin
    Dec 25 '18 at 22:02










  • $begingroup$
    @JoelBiffin Glad it helped! The balls in this answer are really just open circular disks - you don't need metric spaces here. But of course, metric spaces in general are very useful when it comes to studying notions of continuity.
    $endgroup$
    – Kenny Wong
    Dec 25 '18 at 22:35












Your Answer





StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
});
});
}, "mathjax-editing");

StackExchange.ready(function() {
var channelOptions = {
tags: "".split(" "),
id: "69"
};
initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
// Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
createEditor();
});
}
else {
createEditor();
}
});

function createEditor() {
StackExchange.prepareEditor({
heartbeatType: 'answer',
autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
convertImagesToLinks: true,
noModals: true,
showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
reputationToPostImages: 10,
bindNavPrevention: true,
postfix: "",
imageUploader: {
brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
allowUrls: true
},
noCode: true, onDemand: true,
discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
});


}
});














draft saved

draft discarded


















StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3051683%2ffinding-laurent-series-using-binomial-theorem-how%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);

Post as a guest















Required, but never shown

























1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









2












$begingroup$

The key point is that $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ has a Taylor series expansion around $w = 0$, given by
$$ (1 + w)^{1/2} = 1 + frac {w}{2} - frac {w^2}{8} + frac{w^3}{16} - dots$$
Since $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ is holomorphic on the unit disk $B(0, 1)$, this series expansion is valid on the whole of the disk $B(0, 1)$.



[This follows from the standard proof of Taylor's theorem for holomorphic functions. The general result is that if $f : U to mathbb C$ is holomorphic and $bar B(w_0, r) subset U$, then the Taylor series for $f$ around $w_0$ is uniformly convergent and equal to $f$
on $B(w_0, r)$. See here for the proof. Applying this to $f(w) = (1 + w)^{1/2}$ with $U = B(0, 1)$ and $w_0 = 0$, we find that the above series expansion is uniformly convergent and equal to $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ on $B(0, r)$, for every $r < 1$. Hence it is also pointwise convergent and equal to $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ on $B(0, 1)$ itself.]



[I should also clarify, in case it isn't obvious, that we're considering the branch of $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ that takes the value $1$ when $w = 0$. This branch is well defined on the whole of the unit disk $B(0, 1)$.]



Anyway, if we now substitute $w = z^{-2}$, we see that the series expansion
$$ left( 1 + z^{-2}right)^{1/2} = 1 + frac{1}{2z^2} - frac{1}{8z^4} + frac{1}{16 z^6} - dots$$



is valid for all $z$ such that $|z| > 1$. So this series expansion certainly captures the behaviour of $left( 1 + z^{-2} right)^{1/2}$ as $z to infty$.





I think it might help to spell out how to rigorously arrive at the result about the asymptotic behaviour. The big-O notation is a bit confusing here.



So the Taylor series expansion for $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ tells you that there exists a holomorphic function $g : B(0,1) to mathbb C$ such that
$$ (1 + w)^{1/2} = 1 + frac{w}{2}+ w^2 g(w)$$
for all $w in B(0, 1)$.



By continuity, there certainly exists an $M$ and a $delta > 0$ such that
$$|w| < delta implies g(w) leq M$$
i.e. such that
$$|w| < delta implies (1 + w)^{1/2} - 1 - frac{w}{2} leq Mw^2.$$



Setting $w = z^{-2}$, and multiply through by $z$ we find that
$$ |z| > frac 1 {sqrt{delta}} implies left( 1 + z^2 right)^{1/2} - z - frac{1}{2z} leq frac{M}{z^3},$$
which is to say that



$$ left( 1 + z^2right)^{1/2} = z + frac{1}{2z} + Oleft( frac{1}{z^3} right) $$
as $z to infty$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    In the original question, $f(z) = (z^2 + 1)^{frac{1}{2}}$, but here we have $(z^{-2} + 1)^{frac{1}{2}}$. Which one is right?
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Vong
    Dec 25 '18 at 4:05






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @AlexVong $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ is the same as $(1 + z^{-2})^{1/2}$. To get $(z^2 + 1)^{1/2}$, you then multiply through by $z$. I did this in the second-to-last equation. Sorry about the confusion!
    $endgroup$
    – Kenny Wong
    Dec 25 '18 at 11:58












  • $begingroup$
    This is one of the most comprehensive explanations I have seen to a question here. Thank you @KennyWong. Also, I love the study of Analysis but have never studied Metric Spaces. I notice you mention a Ball in your answer, and on the surface I understand what you mean in this context, but do you recommend that I endeavour to learn about Metric Spaces?
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Biffin
    Dec 25 '18 at 22:02










  • $begingroup$
    @JoelBiffin Glad it helped! The balls in this answer are really just open circular disks - you don't need metric spaces here. But of course, metric spaces in general are very useful when it comes to studying notions of continuity.
    $endgroup$
    – Kenny Wong
    Dec 25 '18 at 22:35
















2












$begingroup$

The key point is that $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ has a Taylor series expansion around $w = 0$, given by
$$ (1 + w)^{1/2} = 1 + frac {w}{2} - frac {w^2}{8} + frac{w^3}{16} - dots$$
Since $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ is holomorphic on the unit disk $B(0, 1)$, this series expansion is valid on the whole of the disk $B(0, 1)$.



[This follows from the standard proof of Taylor's theorem for holomorphic functions. The general result is that if $f : U to mathbb C$ is holomorphic and $bar B(w_0, r) subset U$, then the Taylor series for $f$ around $w_0$ is uniformly convergent and equal to $f$
on $B(w_0, r)$. See here for the proof. Applying this to $f(w) = (1 + w)^{1/2}$ with $U = B(0, 1)$ and $w_0 = 0$, we find that the above series expansion is uniformly convergent and equal to $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ on $B(0, r)$, for every $r < 1$. Hence it is also pointwise convergent and equal to $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ on $B(0, 1)$ itself.]



[I should also clarify, in case it isn't obvious, that we're considering the branch of $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ that takes the value $1$ when $w = 0$. This branch is well defined on the whole of the unit disk $B(0, 1)$.]



Anyway, if we now substitute $w = z^{-2}$, we see that the series expansion
$$ left( 1 + z^{-2}right)^{1/2} = 1 + frac{1}{2z^2} - frac{1}{8z^4} + frac{1}{16 z^6} - dots$$



is valid for all $z$ such that $|z| > 1$. So this series expansion certainly captures the behaviour of $left( 1 + z^{-2} right)^{1/2}$ as $z to infty$.





I think it might help to spell out how to rigorously arrive at the result about the asymptotic behaviour. The big-O notation is a bit confusing here.



So the Taylor series expansion for $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ tells you that there exists a holomorphic function $g : B(0,1) to mathbb C$ such that
$$ (1 + w)^{1/2} = 1 + frac{w}{2}+ w^2 g(w)$$
for all $w in B(0, 1)$.



By continuity, there certainly exists an $M$ and a $delta > 0$ such that
$$|w| < delta implies g(w) leq M$$
i.e. such that
$$|w| < delta implies (1 + w)^{1/2} - 1 - frac{w}{2} leq Mw^2.$$



Setting $w = z^{-2}$, and multiply through by $z$ we find that
$$ |z| > frac 1 {sqrt{delta}} implies left( 1 + z^2 right)^{1/2} - z - frac{1}{2z} leq frac{M}{z^3},$$
which is to say that



$$ left( 1 + z^2right)^{1/2} = z + frac{1}{2z} + Oleft( frac{1}{z^3} right) $$
as $z to infty$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    In the original question, $f(z) = (z^2 + 1)^{frac{1}{2}}$, but here we have $(z^{-2} + 1)^{frac{1}{2}}$. Which one is right?
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Vong
    Dec 25 '18 at 4:05






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @AlexVong $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ is the same as $(1 + z^{-2})^{1/2}$. To get $(z^2 + 1)^{1/2}$, you then multiply through by $z$. I did this in the second-to-last equation. Sorry about the confusion!
    $endgroup$
    – Kenny Wong
    Dec 25 '18 at 11:58












  • $begingroup$
    This is one of the most comprehensive explanations I have seen to a question here. Thank you @KennyWong. Also, I love the study of Analysis but have never studied Metric Spaces. I notice you mention a Ball in your answer, and on the surface I understand what you mean in this context, but do you recommend that I endeavour to learn about Metric Spaces?
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Biffin
    Dec 25 '18 at 22:02










  • $begingroup$
    @JoelBiffin Glad it helped! The balls in this answer are really just open circular disks - you don't need metric spaces here. But of course, metric spaces in general are very useful when it comes to studying notions of continuity.
    $endgroup$
    – Kenny Wong
    Dec 25 '18 at 22:35














2












2








2





$begingroup$

The key point is that $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ has a Taylor series expansion around $w = 0$, given by
$$ (1 + w)^{1/2} = 1 + frac {w}{2} - frac {w^2}{8} + frac{w^3}{16} - dots$$
Since $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ is holomorphic on the unit disk $B(0, 1)$, this series expansion is valid on the whole of the disk $B(0, 1)$.



[This follows from the standard proof of Taylor's theorem for holomorphic functions. The general result is that if $f : U to mathbb C$ is holomorphic and $bar B(w_0, r) subset U$, then the Taylor series for $f$ around $w_0$ is uniformly convergent and equal to $f$
on $B(w_0, r)$. See here for the proof. Applying this to $f(w) = (1 + w)^{1/2}$ with $U = B(0, 1)$ and $w_0 = 0$, we find that the above series expansion is uniformly convergent and equal to $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ on $B(0, r)$, for every $r < 1$. Hence it is also pointwise convergent and equal to $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ on $B(0, 1)$ itself.]



[I should also clarify, in case it isn't obvious, that we're considering the branch of $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ that takes the value $1$ when $w = 0$. This branch is well defined on the whole of the unit disk $B(0, 1)$.]



Anyway, if we now substitute $w = z^{-2}$, we see that the series expansion
$$ left( 1 + z^{-2}right)^{1/2} = 1 + frac{1}{2z^2} - frac{1}{8z^4} + frac{1}{16 z^6} - dots$$



is valid for all $z$ such that $|z| > 1$. So this series expansion certainly captures the behaviour of $left( 1 + z^{-2} right)^{1/2}$ as $z to infty$.





I think it might help to spell out how to rigorously arrive at the result about the asymptotic behaviour. The big-O notation is a bit confusing here.



So the Taylor series expansion for $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ tells you that there exists a holomorphic function $g : B(0,1) to mathbb C$ such that
$$ (1 + w)^{1/2} = 1 + frac{w}{2}+ w^2 g(w)$$
for all $w in B(0, 1)$.



By continuity, there certainly exists an $M$ and a $delta > 0$ such that
$$|w| < delta implies g(w) leq M$$
i.e. such that
$$|w| < delta implies (1 + w)^{1/2} - 1 - frac{w}{2} leq Mw^2.$$



Setting $w = z^{-2}$, and multiply through by $z$ we find that
$$ |z| > frac 1 {sqrt{delta}} implies left( 1 + z^2 right)^{1/2} - z - frac{1}{2z} leq frac{M}{z^3},$$
which is to say that



$$ left( 1 + z^2right)^{1/2} = z + frac{1}{2z} + Oleft( frac{1}{z^3} right) $$
as $z to infty$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



The key point is that $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ has a Taylor series expansion around $w = 0$, given by
$$ (1 + w)^{1/2} = 1 + frac {w}{2} - frac {w^2}{8} + frac{w^3}{16} - dots$$
Since $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ is holomorphic on the unit disk $B(0, 1)$, this series expansion is valid on the whole of the disk $B(0, 1)$.



[This follows from the standard proof of Taylor's theorem for holomorphic functions. The general result is that if $f : U to mathbb C$ is holomorphic and $bar B(w_0, r) subset U$, then the Taylor series for $f$ around $w_0$ is uniformly convergent and equal to $f$
on $B(w_0, r)$. See here for the proof. Applying this to $f(w) = (1 + w)^{1/2}$ with $U = B(0, 1)$ and $w_0 = 0$, we find that the above series expansion is uniformly convergent and equal to $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ on $B(0, r)$, for every $r < 1$. Hence it is also pointwise convergent and equal to $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ on $B(0, 1)$ itself.]



[I should also clarify, in case it isn't obvious, that we're considering the branch of $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ that takes the value $1$ when $w = 0$. This branch is well defined on the whole of the unit disk $B(0, 1)$.]



Anyway, if we now substitute $w = z^{-2}$, we see that the series expansion
$$ left( 1 + z^{-2}right)^{1/2} = 1 + frac{1}{2z^2} - frac{1}{8z^4} + frac{1}{16 z^6} - dots$$



is valid for all $z$ such that $|z| > 1$. So this series expansion certainly captures the behaviour of $left( 1 + z^{-2} right)^{1/2}$ as $z to infty$.





I think it might help to spell out how to rigorously arrive at the result about the asymptotic behaviour. The big-O notation is a bit confusing here.



So the Taylor series expansion for $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ tells you that there exists a holomorphic function $g : B(0,1) to mathbb C$ such that
$$ (1 + w)^{1/2} = 1 + frac{w}{2}+ w^2 g(w)$$
for all $w in B(0, 1)$.



By continuity, there certainly exists an $M$ and a $delta > 0$ such that
$$|w| < delta implies g(w) leq M$$
i.e. such that
$$|w| < delta implies (1 + w)^{1/2} - 1 - frac{w}{2} leq Mw^2.$$



Setting $w = z^{-2}$, and multiply through by $z$ we find that
$$ |z| > frac 1 {sqrt{delta}} implies left( 1 + z^2 right)^{1/2} - z - frac{1}{2z} leq frac{M}{z^3},$$
which is to say that



$$ left( 1 + z^2right)^{1/2} = z + frac{1}{2z} + Oleft( frac{1}{z^3} right) $$
as $z to infty$.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Dec 25 '18 at 0:13

























answered Dec 25 '18 at 0:06









Kenny WongKenny Wong

19.3k21441




19.3k21441












  • $begingroup$
    In the original question, $f(z) = (z^2 + 1)^{frac{1}{2}}$, but here we have $(z^{-2} + 1)^{frac{1}{2}}$. Which one is right?
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Vong
    Dec 25 '18 at 4:05






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @AlexVong $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ is the same as $(1 + z^{-2})^{1/2}$. To get $(z^2 + 1)^{1/2}$, you then multiply through by $z$. I did this in the second-to-last equation. Sorry about the confusion!
    $endgroup$
    – Kenny Wong
    Dec 25 '18 at 11:58












  • $begingroup$
    This is one of the most comprehensive explanations I have seen to a question here. Thank you @KennyWong. Also, I love the study of Analysis but have never studied Metric Spaces. I notice you mention a Ball in your answer, and on the surface I understand what you mean in this context, but do you recommend that I endeavour to learn about Metric Spaces?
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Biffin
    Dec 25 '18 at 22:02










  • $begingroup$
    @JoelBiffin Glad it helped! The balls in this answer are really just open circular disks - you don't need metric spaces here. But of course, metric spaces in general are very useful when it comes to studying notions of continuity.
    $endgroup$
    – Kenny Wong
    Dec 25 '18 at 22:35


















  • $begingroup$
    In the original question, $f(z) = (z^2 + 1)^{frac{1}{2}}$, but here we have $(z^{-2} + 1)^{frac{1}{2}}$. Which one is right?
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Vong
    Dec 25 '18 at 4:05






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @AlexVong $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ is the same as $(1 + z^{-2})^{1/2}$. To get $(z^2 + 1)^{1/2}$, you then multiply through by $z$. I did this in the second-to-last equation. Sorry about the confusion!
    $endgroup$
    – Kenny Wong
    Dec 25 '18 at 11:58












  • $begingroup$
    This is one of the most comprehensive explanations I have seen to a question here. Thank you @KennyWong. Also, I love the study of Analysis but have never studied Metric Spaces. I notice you mention a Ball in your answer, and on the surface I understand what you mean in this context, but do you recommend that I endeavour to learn about Metric Spaces?
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Biffin
    Dec 25 '18 at 22:02










  • $begingroup$
    @JoelBiffin Glad it helped! The balls in this answer are really just open circular disks - you don't need metric spaces here. But of course, metric spaces in general are very useful when it comes to studying notions of continuity.
    $endgroup$
    – Kenny Wong
    Dec 25 '18 at 22:35
















$begingroup$
In the original question, $f(z) = (z^2 + 1)^{frac{1}{2}}$, but here we have $(z^{-2} + 1)^{frac{1}{2}}$. Which one is right?
$endgroup$
– Alex Vong
Dec 25 '18 at 4:05




$begingroup$
In the original question, $f(z) = (z^2 + 1)^{frac{1}{2}}$, but here we have $(z^{-2} + 1)^{frac{1}{2}}$. Which one is right?
$endgroup$
– Alex Vong
Dec 25 '18 at 4:05




1




1




$begingroup$
@AlexVong $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ is the same as $(1 + z^{-2})^{1/2}$. To get $(z^2 + 1)^{1/2}$, you then multiply through by $z$. I did this in the second-to-last equation. Sorry about the confusion!
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Dec 25 '18 at 11:58






$begingroup$
@AlexVong $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ is the same as $(1 + z^{-2})^{1/2}$. To get $(z^2 + 1)^{1/2}$, you then multiply through by $z$. I did this in the second-to-last equation. Sorry about the confusion!
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Dec 25 '18 at 11:58














$begingroup$
This is one of the most comprehensive explanations I have seen to a question here. Thank you @KennyWong. Also, I love the study of Analysis but have never studied Metric Spaces. I notice you mention a Ball in your answer, and on the surface I understand what you mean in this context, but do you recommend that I endeavour to learn about Metric Spaces?
$endgroup$
– Joel Biffin
Dec 25 '18 at 22:02




$begingroup$
This is one of the most comprehensive explanations I have seen to a question here. Thank you @KennyWong. Also, I love the study of Analysis but have never studied Metric Spaces. I notice you mention a Ball in your answer, and on the surface I understand what you mean in this context, but do you recommend that I endeavour to learn about Metric Spaces?
$endgroup$
– Joel Biffin
Dec 25 '18 at 22:02












$begingroup$
@JoelBiffin Glad it helped! The balls in this answer are really just open circular disks - you don't need metric spaces here. But of course, metric spaces in general are very useful when it comes to studying notions of continuity.
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Dec 25 '18 at 22:35




$begingroup$
@JoelBiffin Glad it helped! The balls in this answer are really just open circular disks - you don't need metric spaces here. But of course, metric spaces in general are very useful when it comes to studying notions of continuity.
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Dec 25 '18 at 22:35


















draft saved

draft discarded




















































Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


  • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

But avoid



  • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

  • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




draft saved


draft discarded














StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3051683%2ffinding-laurent-series-using-binomial-theorem-how%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);

Post as a guest















Required, but never shown





















































Required, but never shown














Required, but never shown












Required, but never shown







Required, but never shown

































Required, but never shown














Required, but never shown












Required, but never shown







Required, but never shown







Popular posts from this blog

Bundesstraße 106

Verónica Boquete

Ida-Boy-Ed-Garten