Finding Laurent Series using Binomial Theorem - HOW?












2












$begingroup$


I'm working on a fairly simple question asking to work out the necessary branch cut(s) for the function $f(z)=(z^2+1)^{1/2}$. I am comfortable doing this and the rigour required to explained why I need / don't need certain branch cuts.



I have a branch cut between $(-i, i)$ on the imaginary axis and my argument is defined as $-3pi /2 < arg{(z pm i)} le pi/2$.



The next part of the questions says




For your branch, show also that as $|z|rightarrow infty $ we have,
$$f(z)=z+frac{1}{2z} + O(frac{1}{z^3}).$$




In a comparable example, this is shown by computing the binomial expansion for the function and then leaping to saying that this is equal to the Laurent Expansion.



Here's my working:



$f(z)$ is regular everywhere except at $z= pm i$ and our branch cut. Hence, it has a Laurent series. On the +ve real axis we have $f(z)=(x^2+1)^{1/2}=|x|(1+(1/x)^2)^{1/2}$ which I can expand by using the binomial theorem like so,
$$f(z)=|x|(1+frac{1}{2x^2}-frac{1}{8x^4}+... quad=x+frac{1}{2x}+O(frac{1}{x^3}).$$



I believe all that is left to do is say that this is true for $|z|rightarrow infty$, but how can I?



My main questions are:




For what values of $x$ is the binomial expansion valid?
Why can I suddenly say that this expansion characterises the behaviour of $f(z)$ for large $pm z$?











share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    My intuition tells me that if you do a Laurent series expansion at any $z_0 in mathbb{C}$, sooner or later you will hit the branch cut, so the expansion is no longer valid as $z to infty$. So it seems to me the reasonable thing to do is to do a Laurent series expansion at $infty$ and show that it is $z + frac{1}{2z} + mathcal{O}(frac{1}{z^3})$, which can be done (!) according to this question. But I must say don't know enough complex analysis to do it rigorously (if my approach is correct).
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Vong
    Dec 24 '18 at 23:42
















2












$begingroup$


I'm working on a fairly simple question asking to work out the necessary branch cut(s) for the function $f(z)=(z^2+1)^{1/2}$. I am comfortable doing this and the rigour required to explained why I need / don't need certain branch cuts.



I have a branch cut between $(-i, i)$ on the imaginary axis and my argument is defined as $-3pi /2 < arg{(z pm i)} le pi/2$.



The next part of the questions says




For your branch, show also that as $|z|rightarrow infty $ we have,
$$f(z)=z+frac{1}{2z} + O(frac{1}{z^3}).$$




In a comparable example, this is shown by computing the binomial expansion for the function and then leaping to saying that this is equal to the Laurent Expansion.



Here's my working:



$f(z)$ is regular everywhere except at $z= pm i$ and our branch cut. Hence, it has a Laurent series. On the +ve real axis we have $f(z)=(x^2+1)^{1/2}=|x|(1+(1/x)^2)^{1/2}$ which I can expand by using the binomial theorem like so,
$$f(z)=|x|(1+frac{1}{2x^2}-frac{1}{8x^4}+... quad=x+frac{1}{2x}+O(frac{1}{x^3}).$$



I believe all that is left to do is say that this is true for $|z|rightarrow infty$, but how can I?



My main questions are:




For what values of $x$ is the binomial expansion valid?
Why can I suddenly say that this expansion characterises the behaviour of $f(z)$ for large $pm z$?











share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    My intuition tells me that if you do a Laurent series expansion at any $z_0 in mathbb{C}$, sooner or later you will hit the branch cut, so the expansion is no longer valid as $z to infty$. So it seems to me the reasonable thing to do is to do a Laurent series expansion at $infty$ and show that it is $z + frac{1}{2z} + mathcal{O}(frac{1}{z^3})$, which can be done (!) according to this question. But I must say don't know enough complex analysis to do it rigorously (if my approach is correct).
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Vong
    Dec 24 '18 at 23:42














2












2








2


1



$begingroup$


I'm working on a fairly simple question asking to work out the necessary branch cut(s) for the function $f(z)=(z^2+1)^{1/2}$. I am comfortable doing this and the rigour required to explained why I need / don't need certain branch cuts.



I have a branch cut between $(-i, i)$ on the imaginary axis and my argument is defined as $-3pi /2 < arg{(z pm i)} le pi/2$.



The next part of the questions says




For your branch, show also that as $|z|rightarrow infty $ we have,
$$f(z)=z+frac{1}{2z} + O(frac{1}{z^3}).$$




In a comparable example, this is shown by computing the binomial expansion for the function and then leaping to saying that this is equal to the Laurent Expansion.



Here's my working:



$f(z)$ is regular everywhere except at $z= pm i$ and our branch cut. Hence, it has a Laurent series. On the +ve real axis we have $f(z)=(x^2+1)^{1/2}=|x|(1+(1/x)^2)^{1/2}$ which I can expand by using the binomial theorem like so,
$$f(z)=|x|(1+frac{1}{2x^2}-frac{1}{8x^4}+... quad=x+frac{1}{2x}+O(frac{1}{x^3}).$$



I believe all that is left to do is say that this is true for $|z|rightarrow infty$, but how can I?



My main questions are:




For what values of $x$ is the binomial expansion valid?
Why can I suddenly say that this expansion characterises the behaviour of $f(z)$ for large $pm z$?











share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I'm working on a fairly simple question asking to work out the necessary branch cut(s) for the function $f(z)=(z^2+1)^{1/2}$. I am comfortable doing this and the rigour required to explained why I need / don't need certain branch cuts.



I have a branch cut between $(-i, i)$ on the imaginary axis and my argument is defined as $-3pi /2 < arg{(z pm i)} le pi/2$.



The next part of the questions says




For your branch, show also that as $|z|rightarrow infty $ we have,
$$f(z)=z+frac{1}{2z} + O(frac{1}{z^3}).$$




In a comparable example, this is shown by computing the binomial expansion for the function and then leaping to saying that this is equal to the Laurent Expansion.



Here's my working:



$f(z)$ is regular everywhere except at $z= pm i$ and our branch cut. Hence, it has a Laurent series. On the +ve real axis we have $f(z)=(x^2+1)^{1/2}=|x|(1+(1/x)^2)^{1/2}$ which I can expand by using the binomial theorem like so,
$$f(z)=|x|(1+frac{1}{2x^2}-frac{1}{8x^4}+... quad=x+frac{1}{2x}+O(frac{1}{x^3}).$$



I believe all that is left to do is say that this is true for $|z|rightarrow infty$, but how can I?



My main questions are:




For what values of $x$ is the binomial expansion valid?
Why can I suddenly say that this expansion characterises the behaviour of $f(z)$ for large $pm z$?








complex-analysis binomial-theorem laurent-series branch-cuts






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Dec 24 '18 at 22:10









Joel BiffinJoel Biffin

1017




1017












  • $begingroup$
    My intuition tells me that if you do a Laurent series expansion at any $z_0 in mathbb{C}$, sooner or later you will hit the branch cut, so the expansion is no longer valid as $z to infty$. So it seems to me the reasonable thing to do is to do a Laurent series expansion at $infty$ and show that it is $z + frac{1}{2z} + mathcal{O}(frac{1}{z^3})$, which can be done (!) according to this question. But I must say don't know enough complex analysis to do it rigorously (if my approach is correct).
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Vong
    Dec 24 '18 at 23:42


















  • $begingroup$
    My intuition tells me that if you do a Laurent series expansion at any $z_0 in mathbb{C}$, sooner or later you will hit the branch cut, so the expansion is no longer valid as $z to infty$. So it seems to me the reasonable thing to do is to do a Laurent series expansion at $infty$ and show that it is $z + frac{1}{2z} + mathcal{O}(frac{1}{z^3})$, which can be done (!) according to this question. But I must say don't know enough complex analysis to do it rigorously (if my approach is correct).
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Vong
    Dec 24 '18 at 23:42
















$begingroup$
My intuition tells me that if you do a Laurent series expansion at any $z_0 in mathbb{C}$, sooner or later you will hit the branch cut, so the expansion is no longer valid as $z to infty$. So it seems to me the reasonable thing to do is to do a Laurent series expansion at $infty$ and show that it is $z + frac{1}{2z} + mathcal{O}(frac{1}{z^3})$, which can be done (!) according to this question. But I must say don't know enough complex analysis to do it rigorously (if my approach is correct).
$endgroup$
– Alex Vong
Dec 24 '18 at 23:42




$begingroup$
My intuition tells me that if you do a Laurent series expansion at any $z_0 in mathbb{C}$, sooner or later you will hit the branch cut, so the expansion is no longer valid as $z to infty$. So it seems to me the reasonable thing to do is to do a Laurent series expansion at $infty$ and show that it is $z + frac{1}{2z} + mathcal{O}(frac{1}{z^3})$, which can be done (!) according to this question. But I must say don't know enough complex analysis to do it rigorously (if my approach is correct).
$endgroup$
– Alex Vong
Dec 24 '18 at 23:42










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

The key point is that $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ has a Taylor series expansion around $w = 0$, given by
$$ (1 + w)^{1/2} = 1 + frac {w}{2} - frac {w^2}{8} + frac{w^3}{16} - dots$$
Since $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ is holomorphic on the unit disk $B(0, 1)$, this series expansion is valid on the whole of the disk $B(0, 1)$.



[This follows from the standard proof of Taylor's theorem for holomorphic functions. The general result is that if $f : U to mathbb C$ is holomorphic and $bar B(w_0, r) subset U$, then the Taylor series for $f$ around $w_0$ is uniformly convergent and equal to $f$
on $B(w_0, r)$. See here for the proof. Applying this to $f(w) = (1 + w)^{1/2}$ with $U = B(0, 1)$ and $w_0 = 0$, we find that the above series expansion is uniformly convergent and equal to $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ on $B(0, r)$, for every $r < 1$. Hence it is also pointwise convergent and equal to $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ on $B(0, 1)$ itself.]



[I should also clarify, in case it isn't obvious, that we're considering the branch of $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ that takes the value $1$ when $w = 0$. This branch is well defined on the whole of the unit disk $B(0, 1)$.]



Anyway, if we now substitute $w = z^{-2}$, we see that the series expansion
$$ left( 1 + z^{-2}right)^{1/2} = 1 + frac{1}{2z^2} - frac{1}{8z^4} + frac{1}{16 z^6} - dots$$



is valid for all $z$ such that $|z| > 1$. So this series expansion certainly captures the behaviour of $left( 1 + z^{-2} right)^{1/2}$ as $z to infty$.





I think it might help to spell out how to rigorously arrive at the result about the asymptotic behaviour. The big-O notation is a bit confusing here.



So the Taylor series expansion for $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ tells you that there exists a holomorphic function $g : B(0,1) to mathbb C$ such that
$$ (1 + w)^{1/2} = 1 + frac{w}{2}+ w^2 g(w)$$
for all $w in B(0, 1)$.



By continuity, there certainly exists an $M$ and a $delta > 0$ such that
$$|w| < delta implies g(w) leq M$$
i.e. such that
$$|w| < delta implies (1 + w)^{1/2} - 1 - frac{w}{2} leq Mw^2.$$



Setting $w = z^{-2}$, and multiply through by $z$ we find that
$$ |z| > frac 1 {sqrt{delta}} implies left( 1 + z^2 right)^{1/2} - z - frac{1}{2z} leq frac{M}{z^3},$$
which is to say that



$$ left( 1 + z^2right)^{1/2} = z + frac{1}{2z} + Oleft( frac{1}{z^3} right) $$
as $z to infty$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    In the original question, $f(z) = (z^2 + 1)^{frac{1}{2}}$, but here we have $(z^{-2} + 1)^{frac{1}{2}}$. Which one is right?
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Vong
    Dec 25 '18 at 4:05






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @AlexVong $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ is the same as $(1 + z^{-2})^{1/2}$. To get $(z^2 + 1)^{1/2}$, you then multiply through by $z$. I did this in the second-to-last equation. Sorry about the confusion!
    $endgroup$
    – Kenny Wong
    Dec 25 '18 at 11:58












  • $begingroup$
    This is one of the most comprehensive explanations I have seen to a question here. Thank you @KennyWong. Also, I love the study of Analysis but have never studied Metric Spaces. I notice you mention a Ball in your answer, and on the surface I understand what you mean in this context, but do you recommend that I endeavour to learn about Metric Spaces?
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Biffin
    Dec 25 '18 at 22:02










  • $begingroup$
    @JoelBiffin Glad it helped! The balls in this answer are really just open circular disks - you don't need metric spaces here. But of course, metric spaces in general are very useful when it comes to studying notions of continuity.
    $endgroup$
    – Kenny Wong
    Dec 25 '18 at 22:35












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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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active

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active

oldest

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active

oldest

votes









2












$begingroup$

The key point is that $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ has a Taylor series expansion around $w = 0$, given by
$$ (1 + w)^{1/2} = 1 + frac {w}{2} - frac {w^2}{8} + frac{w^3}{16} - dots$$
Since $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ is holomorphic on the unit disk $B(0, 1)$, this series expansion is valid on the whole of the disk $B(0, 1)$.



[This follows from the standard proof of Taylor's theorem for holomorphic functions. The general result is that if $f : U to mathbb C$ is holomorphic and $bar B(w_0, r) subset U$, then the Taylor series for $f$ around $w_0$ is uniformly convergent and equal to $f$
on $B(w_0, r)$. See here for the proof. Applying this to $f(w) = (1 + w)^{1/2}$ with $U = B(0, 1)$ and $w_0 = 0$, we find that the above series expansion is uniformly convergent and equal to $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ on $B(0, r)$, for every $r < 1$. Hence it is also pointwise convergent and equal to $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ on $B(0, 1)$ itself.]



[I should also clarify, in case it isn't obvious, that we're considering the branch of $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ that takes the value $1$ when $w = 0$. This branch is well defined on the whole of the unit disk $B(0, 1)$.]



Anyway, if we now substitute $w = z^{-2}$, we see that the series expansion
$$ left( 1 + z^{-2}right)^{1/2} = 1 + frac{1}{2z^2} - frac{1}{8z^4} + frac{1}{16 z^6} - dots$$



is valid for all $z$ such that $|z| > 1$. So this series expansion certainly captures the behaviour of $left( 1 + z^{-2} right)^{1/2}$ as $z to infty$.





I think it might help to spell out how to rigorously arrive at the result about the asymptotic behaviour. The big-O notation is a bit confusing here.



So the Taylor series expansion for $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ tells you that there exists a holomorphic function $g : B(0,1) to mathbb C$ such that
$$ (1 + w)^{1/2} = 1 + frac{w}{2}+ w^2 g(w)$$
for all $w in B(0, 1)$.



By continuity, there certainly exists an $M$ and a $delta > 0$ such that
$$|w| < delta implies g(w) leq M$$
i.e. such that
$$|w| < delta implies (1 + w)^{1/2} - 1 - frac{w}{2} leq Mw^2.$$



Setting $w = z^{-2}$, and multiply through by $z$ we find that
$$ |z| > frac 1 {sqrt{delta}} implies left( 1 + z^2 right)^{1/2} - z - frac{1}{2z} leq frac{M}{z^3},$$
which is to say that



$$ left( 1 + z^2right)^{1/2} = z + frac{1}{2z} + Oleft( frac{1}{z^3} right) $$
as $z to infty$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    In the original question, $f(z) = (z^2 + 1)^{frac{1}{2}}$, but here we have $(z^{-2} + 1)^{frac{1}{2}}$. Which one is right?
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Vong
    Dec 25 '18 at 4:05






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @AlexVong $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ is the same as $(1 + z^{-2})^{1/2}$. To get $(z^2 + 1)^{1/2}$, you then multiply through by $z$. I did this in the second-to-last equation. Sorry about the confusion!
    $endgroup$
    – Kenny Wong
    Dec 25 '18 at 11:58












  • $begingroup$
    This is one of the most comprehensive explanations I have seen to a question here. Thank you @KennyWong. Also, I love the study of Analysis but have never studied Metric Spaces. I notice you mention a Ball in your answer, and on the surface I understand what you mean in this context, but do you recommend that I endeavour to learn about Metric Spaces?
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Biffin
    Dec 25 '18 at 22:02










  • $begingroup$
    @JoelBiffin Glad it helped! The balls in this answer are really just open circular disks - you don't need metric spaces here. But of course, metric spaces in general are very useful when it comes to studying notions of continuity.
    $endgroup$
    – Kenny Wong
    Dec 25 '18 at 22:35
















2












$begingroup$

The key point is that $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ has a Taylor series expansion around $w = 0$, given by
$$ (1 + w)^{1/2} = 1 + frac {w}{2} - frac {w^2}{8} + frac{w^3}{16} - dots$$
Since $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ is holomorphic on the unit disk $B(0, 1)$, this series expansion is valid on the whole of the disk $B(0, 1)$.



[This follows from the standard proof of Taylor's theorem for holomorphic functions. The general result is that if $f : U to mathbb C$ is holomorphic and $bar B(w_0, r) subset U$, then the Taylor series for $f$ around $w_0$ is uniformly convergent and equal to $f$
on $B(w_0, r)$. See here for the proof. Applying this to $f(w) = (1 + w)^{1/2}$ with $U = B(0, 1)$ and $w_0 = 0$, we find that the above series expansion is uniformly convergent and equal to $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ on $B(0, r)$, for every $r < 1$. Hence it is also pointwise convergent and equal to $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ on $B(0, 1)$ itself.]



[I should also clarify, in case it isn't obvious, that we're considering the branch of $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ that takes the value $1$ when $w = 0$. This branch is well defined on the whole of the unit disk $B(0, 1)$.]



Anyway, if we now substitute $w = z^{-2}$, we see that the series expansion
$$ left( 1 + z^{-2}right)^{1/2} = 1 + frac{1}{2z^2} - frac{1}{8z^4} + frac{1}{16 z^6} - dots$$



is valid for all $z$ such that $|z| > 1$. So this series expansion certainly captures the behaviour of $left( 1 + z^{-2} right)^{1/2}$ as $z to infty$.





I think it might help to spell out how to rigorously arrive at the result about the asymptotic behaviour. The big-O notation is a bit confusing here.



So the Taylor series expansion for $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ tells you that there exists a holomorphic function $g : B(0,1) to mathbb C$ such that
$$ (1 + w)^{1/2} = 1 + frac{w}{2}+ w^2 g(w)$$
for all $w in B(0, 1)$.



By continuity, there certainly exists an $M$ and a $delta > 0$ such that
$$|w| < delta implies g(w) leq M$$
i.e. such that
$$|w| < delta implies (1 + w)^{1/2} - 1 - frac{w}{2} leq Mw^2.$$



Setting $w = z^{-2}$, and multiply through by $z$ we find that
$$ |z| > frac 1 {sqrt{delta}} implies left( 1 + z^2 right)^{1/2} - z - frac{1}{2z} leq frac{M}{z^3},$$
which is to say that



$$ left( 1 + z^2right)^{1/2} = z + frac{1}{2z} + Oleft( frac{1}{z^3} right) $$
as $z to infty$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    In the original question, $f(z) = (z^2 + 1)^{frac{1}{2}}$, but here we have $(z^{-2} + 1)^{frac{1}{2}}$. Which one is right?
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Vong
    Dec 25 '18 at 4:05






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @AlexVong $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ is the same as $(1 + z^{-2})^{1/2}$. To get $(z^2 + 1)^{1/2}$, you then multiply through by $z$. I did this in the second-to-last equation. Sorry about the confusion!
    $endgroup$
    – Kenny Wong
    Dec 25 '18 at 11:58












  • $begingroup$
    This is one of the most comprehensive explanations I have seen to a question here. Thank you @KennyWong. Also, I love the study of Analysis but have never studied Metric Spaces. I notice you mention a Ball in your answer, and on the surface I understand what you mean in this context, but do you recommend that I endeavour to learn about Metric Spaces?
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Biffin
    Dec 25 '18 at 22:02










  • $begingroup$
    @JoelBiffin Glad it helped! The balls in this answer are really just open circular disks - you don't need metric spaces here. But of course, metric spaces in general are very useful when it comes to studying notions of continuity.
    $endgroup$
    – Kenny Wong
    Dec 25 '18 at 22:35














2












2








2





$begingroup$

The key point is that $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ has a Taylor series expansion around $w = 0$, given by
$$ (1 + w)^{1/2} = 1 + frac {w}{2} - frac {w^2}{8} + frac{w^3}{16} - dots$$
Since $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ is holomorphic on the unit disk $B(0, 1)$, this series expansion is valid on the whole of the disk $B(0, 1)$.



[This follows from the standard proof of Taylor's theorem for holomorphic functions. The general result is that if $f : U to mathbb C$ is holomorphic and $bar B(w_0, r) subset U$, then the Taylor series for $f$ around $w_0$ is uniformly convergent and equal to $f$
on $B(w_0, r)$. See here for the proof. Applying this to $f(w) = (1 + w)^{1/2}$ with $U = B(0, 1)$ and $w_0 = 0$, we find that the above series expansion is uniformly convergent and equal to $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ on $B(0, r)$, for every $r < 1$. Hence it is also pointwise convergent and equal to $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ on $B(0, 1)$ itself.]



[I should also clarify, in case it isn't obvious, that we're considering the branch of $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ that takes the value $1$ when $w = 0$. This branch is well defined on the whole of the unit disk $B(0, 1)$.]



Anyway, if we now substitute $w = z^{-2}$, we see that the series expansion
$$ left( 1 + z^{-2}right)^{1/2} = 1 + frac{1}{2z^2} - frac{1}{8z^4} + frac{1}{16 z^6} - dots$$



is valid for all $z$ such that $|z| > 1$. So this series expansion certainly captures the behaviour of $left( 1 + z^{-2} right)^{1/2}$ as $z to infty$.





I think it might help to spell out how to rigorously arrive at the result about the asymptotic behaviour. The big-O notation is a bit confusing here.



So the Taylor series expansion for $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ tells you that there exists a holomorphic function $g : B(0,1) to mathbb C$ such that
$$ (1 + w)^{1/2} = 1 + frac{w}{2}+ w^2 g(w)$$
for all $w in B(0, 1)$.



By continuity, there certainly exists an $M$ and a $delta > 0$ such that
$$|w| < delta implies g(w) leq M$$
i.e. such that
$$|w| < delta implies (1 + w)^{1/2} - 1 - frac{w}{2} leq Mw^2.$$



Setting $w = z^{-2}$, and multiply through by $z$ we find that
$$ |z| > frac 1 {sqrt{delta}} implies left( 1 + z^2 right)^{1/2} - z - frac{1}{2z} leq frac{M}{z^3},$$
which is to say that



$$ left( 1 + z^2right)^{1/2} = z + frac{1}{2z} + Oleft( frac{1}{z^3} right) $$
as $z to infty$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



The key point is that $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ has a Taylor series expansion around $w = 0$, given by
$$ (1 + w)^{1/2} = 1 + frac {w}{2} - frac {w^2}{8} + frac{w^3}{16} - dots$$
Since $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ is holomorphic on the unit disk $B(0, 1)$, this series expansion is valid on the whole of the disk $B(0, 1)$.



[This follows from the standard proof of Taylor's theorem for holomorphic functions. The general result is that if $f : U to mathbb C$ is holomorphic and $bar B(w_0, r) subset U$, then the Taylor series for $f$ around $w_0$ is uniformly convergent and equal to $f$
on $B(w_0, r)$. See here for the proof. Applying this to $f(w) = (1 + w)^{1/2}$ with $U = B(0, 1)$ and $w_0 = 0$, we find that the above series expansion is uniformly convergent and equal to $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ on $B(0, r)$, for every $r < 1$. Hence it is also pointwise convergent and equal to $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ on $B(0, 1)$ itself.]



[I should also clarify, in case it isn't obvious, that we're considering the branch of $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ that takes the value $1$ when $w = 0$. This branch is well defined on the whole of the unit disk $B(0, 1)$.]



Anyway, if we now substitute $w = z^{-2}$, we see that the series expansion
$$ left( 1 + z^{-2}right)^{1/2} = 1 + frac{1}{2z^2} - frac{1}{8z^4} + frac{1}{16 z^6} - dots$$



is valid for all $z$ such that $|z| > 1$. So this series expansion certainly captures the behaviour of $left( 1 + z^{-2} right)^{1/2}$ as $z to infty$.





I think it might help to spell out how to rigorously arrive at the result about the asymptotic behaviour. The big-O notation is a bit confusing here.



So the Taylor series expansion for $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ tells you that there exists a holomorphic function $g : B(0,1) to mathbb C$ such that
$$ (1 + w)^{1/2} = 1 + frac{w}{2}+ w^2 g(w)$$
for all $w in B(0, 1)$.



By continuity, there certainly exists an $M$ and a $delta > 0$ such that
$$|w| < delta implies g(w) leq M$$
i.e. such that
$$|w| < delta implies (1 + w)^{1/2} - 1 - frac{w}{2} leq Mw^2.$$



Setting $w = z^{-2}$, and multiply through by $z$ we find that
$$ |z| > frac 1 {sqrt{delta}} implies left( 1 + z^2 right)^{1/2} - z - frac{1}{2z} leq frac{M}{z^3},$$
which is to say that



$$ left( 1 + z^2right)^{1/2} = z + frac{1}{2z} + Oleft( frac{1}{z^3} right) $$
as $z to infty$.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Dec 25 '18 at 0:13

























answered Dec 25 '18 at 0:06









Kenny WongKenny Wong

19.3k21441




19.3k21441












  • $begingroup$
    In the original question, $f(z) = (z^2 + 1)^{frac{1}{2}}$, but here we have $(z^{-2} + 1)^{frac{1}{2}}$. Which one is right?
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Vong
    Dec 25 '18 at 4:05






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @AlexVong $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ is the same as $(1 + z^{-2})^{1/2}$. To get $(z^2 + 1)^{1/2}$, you then multiply through by $z$. I did this in the second-to-last equation. Sorry about the confusion!
    $endgroup$
    – Kenny Wong
    Dec 25 '18 at 11:58












  • $begingroup$
    This is one of the most comprehensive explanations I have seen to a question here. Thank you @KennyWong. Also, I love the study of Analysis but have never studied Metric Spaces. I notice you mention a Ball in your answer, and on the surface I understand what you mean in this context, but do you recommend that I endeavour to learn about Metric Spaces?
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Biffin
    Dec 25 '18 at 22:02










  • $begingroup$
    @JoelBiffin Glad it helped! The balls in this answer are really just open circular disks - you don't need metric spaces here. But of course, metric spaces in general are very useful when it comes to studying notions of continuity.
    $endgroup$
    – Kenny Wong
    Dec 25 '18 at 22:35


















  • $begingroup$
    In the original question, $f(z) = (z^2 + 1)^{frac{1}{2}}$, but here we have $(z^{-2} + 1)^{frac{1}{2}}$. Which one is right?
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Vong
    Dec 25 '18 at 4:05






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @AlexVong $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ is the same as $(1 + z^{-2})^{1/2}$. To get $(z^2 + 1)^{1/2}$, you then multiply through by $z$. I did this in the second-to-last equation. Sorry about the confusion!
    $endgroup$
    – Kenny Wong
    Dec 25 '18 at 11:58












  • $begingroup$
    This is one of the most comprehensive explanations I have seen to a question here. Thank you @KennyWong. Also, I love the study of Analysis but have never studied Metric Spaces. I notice you mention a Ball in your answer, and on the surface I understand what you mean in this context, but do you recommend that I endeavour to learn about Metric Spaces?
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Biffin
    Dec 25 '18 at 22:02










  • $begingroup$
    @JoelBiffin Glad it helped! The balls in this answer are really just open circular disks - you don't need metric spaces here. But of course, metric spaces in general are very useful when it comes to studying notions of continuity.
    $endgroup$
    – Kenny Wong
    Dec 25 '18 at 22:35
















$begingroup$
In the original question, $f(z) = (z^2 + 1)^{frac{1}{2}}$, but here we have $(z^{-2} + 1)^{frac{1}{2}}$. Which one is right?
$endgroup$
– Alex Vong
Dec 25 '18 at 4:05




$begingroup$
In the original question, $f(z) = (z^2 + 1)^{frac{1}{2}}$, but here we have $(z^{-2} + 1)^{frac{1}{2}}$. Which one is right?
$endgroup$
– Alex Vong
Dec 25 '18 at 4:05




1




1




$begingroup$
@AlexVong $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ is the same as $(1 + z^{-2})^{1/2}$. To get $(z^2 + 1)^{1/2}$, you then multiply through by $z$. I did this in the second-to-last equation. Sorry about the confusion!
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Dec 25 '18 at 11:58






$begingroup$
@AlexVong $(1 + w)^{1/2}$ is the same as $(1 + z^{-2})^{1/2}$. To get $(z^2 + 1)^{1/2}$, you then multiply through by $z$. I did this in the second-to-last equation. Sorry about the confusion!
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Dec 25 '18 at 11:58














$begingroup$
This is one of the most comprehensive explanations I have seen to a question here. Thank you @KennyWong. Also, I love the study of Analysis but have never studied Metric Spaces. I notice you mention a Ball in your answer, and on the surface I understand what you mean in this context, but do you recommend that I endeavour to learn about Metric Spaces?
$endgroup$
– Joel Biffin
Dec 25 '18 at 22:02




$begingroup$
This is one of the most comprehensive explanations I have seen to a question here. Thank you @KennyWong. Also, I love the study of Analysis but have never studied Metric Spaces. I notice you mention a Ball in your answer, and on the surface I understand what you mean in this context, but do you recommend that I endeavour to learn about Metric Spaces?
$endgroup$
– Joel Biffin
Dec 25 '18 at 22:02












$begingroup$
@JoelBiffin Glad it helped! The balls in this answer are really just open circular disks - you don't need metric spaces here. But of course, metric spaces in general are very useful when it comes to studying notions of continuity.
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Dec 25 '18 at 22:35




$begingroup$
@JoelBiffin Glad it helped! The balls in this answer are really just open circular disks - you don't need metric spaces here. But of course, metric spaces in general are very useful when it comes to studying notions of continuity.
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Dec 25 '18 at 22:35


















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