Is this function uniformly continuous or not?
I've been recently introduced to the concept of uniform continuity and I'm having some trouble deciding whether a function is uniformly continuous or not.
The function is:
$$f(x)=begin{cases}dfrac{sin(x^5)}{x} & xneq0 \ 0 & x=0end{cases}$$
I mean, I know that if the derivative of the function is bounded, then we can conclude that it is uniformly continuous, but if it isn't, I really don't know how to proceed.
real-analysis
New contributor
|
show 3 more comments
I've been recently introduced to the concept of uniform continuity and I'm having some trouble deciding whether a function is uniformly continuous or not.
The function is:
$$f(x)=begin{cases}dfrac{sin(x^5)}{x} & xneq0 \ 0 & x=0end{cases}$$
I mean, I know that if the derivative of the function is bounded, then we can conclude that it is uniformly continuous, but if it isn't, I really don't know how to proceed.
real-analysis
New contributor
2
Uniformly continuous on what set?
– user587192
2 hours ago
I believe it must be on $mathbb R$
– fonini
2 hours ago
On all the real numbers
– Sergamar
2 hours ago
It can't be on $mathbb{R}$: this function not defined at $x=0$.
– user587192
2 hours ago
1
0 if x = 0, that expresion otherwise
– Sergamar
2 hours ago
|
show 3 more comments
I've been recently introduced to the concept of uniform continuity and I'm having some trouble deciding whether a function is uniformly continuous or not.
The function is:
$$f(x)=begin{cases}dfrac{sin(x^5)}{x} & xneq0 \ 0 & x=0end{cases}$$
I mean, I know that if the derivative of the function is bounded, then we can conclude that it is uniformly continuous, but if it isn't, I really don't know how to proceed.
real-analysis
New contributor
I've been recently introduced to the concept of uniform continuity and I'm having some trouble deciding whether a function is uniformly continuous or not.
The function is:
$$f(x)=begin{cases}dfrac{sin(x^5)}{x} & xneq0 \ 0 & x=0end{cases}$$
I mean, I know that if the derivative of the function is bounded, then we can conclude that it is uniformly continuous, but if it isn't, I really don't know how to proceed.
real-analysis
real-analysis
New contributor
New contributor
edited 2 hours ago
New contributor
asked 2 hours ago
Sergamar
113
113
New contributor
New contributor
2
Uniformly continuous on what set?
– user587192
2 hours ago
I believe it must be on $mathbb R$
– fonini
2 hours ago
On all the real numbers
– Sergamar
2 hours ago
It can't be on $mathbb{R}$: this function not defined at $x=0$.
– user587192
2 hours ago
1
0 if x = 0, that expresion otherwise
– Sergamar
2 hours ago
|
show 3 more comments
2
Uniformly continuous on what set?
– user587192
2 hours ago
I believe it must be on $mathbb R$
– fonini
2 hours ago
On all the real numbers
– Sergamar
2 hours ago
It can't be on $mathbb{R}$: this function not defined at $x=0$.
– user587192
2 hours ago
1
0 if x = 0, that expresion otherwise
– Sergamar
2 hours ago
2
2
Uniformly continuous on what set?
– user587192
2 hours ago
Uniformly continuous on what set?
– user587192
2 hours ago
I believe it must be on $mathbb R$
– fonini
2 hours ago
I believe it must be on $mathbb R$
– fonini
2 hours ago
On all the real numbers
– Sergamar
2 hours ago
On all the real numbers
– Sergamar
2 hours ago
It can't be on $mathbb{R}$: this function not defined at $x=0$.
– user587192
2 hours ago
It can't be on $mathbb{R}$: this function not defined at $x=0$.
– user587192
2 hours ago
1
1
0 if x = 0, that expresion otherwise
– Sergamar
2 hours ago
0 if x = 0, that expresion otherwise
– Sergamar
2 hours ago
|
show 3 more comments
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
The function $f$ is uniformly continuous on $mathbb{R}$.
Note that $frac{sin x^5}{x} = x^4 frac{sin x^5}{x^5} to 0 cdot 1 = 0$ as $x to 0$ (from the left or the right). Hence, $f$ is continuous and uniformly continuous on any compact interval $[-a,a]$.
Since $f(x) to 0 $ as $|x| to infty$ the function is also uniformly continuous on intervals $(-infty,-a]$ and $[a,infty)$. Any continuous function with a finite limit as $x to pm infty$ is uniformly continuous -- proved many times on this site.
It is a common misconception that a function with a derivative that is unbounded for large $|x|$ cannot be uniformly continuous. The condition that $|f'(x)| to +infty$ as $|x| to +infty$ guarantees non-uniform continuity.
Could you show me some proof of the fact that if $|f'(x)|to infty$ as $|x|to infty$ then it collides with uniform convergence?
– Jakobian
1 hour ago
2
@Jakobian: Sure. $|f(x) - f(y)| = |f'(xi)||x - y|$ by the MVT. For any $delta > 0$ take $y = x + delta/2$ so that $|x-y| < delta$ and $|f(x) - f(y)| = |f'(xi)|delta/2$ Now this stays bigger than $1$ for some $x$ and $xi > x$ sufficiently large if $|f'(x)| to +infty$.
– RRL
1 hour ago
@Jakobian Where did uniform convergence come into this question? I thought we were talking about continuity?
– ImNotTheGuy
1 hour ago
@RRL oh, thank you, it was a typo and it got me confused
– Jakobian
1 hour ago
@Jakobian It got me confused too, lol.
– ImNotTheGuy
1 hour ago
|
show 1 more comment
Your Answer
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1 Answer
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The function $f$ is uniformly continuous on $mathbb{R}$.
Note that $frac{sin x^5}{x} = x^4 frac{sin x^5}{x^5} to 0 cdot 1 = 0$ as $x to 0$ (from the left or the right). Hence, $f$ is continuous and uniformly continuous on any compact interval $[-a,a]$.
Since $f(x) to 0 $ as $|x| to infty$ the function is also uniformly continuous on intervals $(-infty,-a]$ and $[a,infty)$. Any continuous function with a finite limit as $x to pm infty$ is uniformly continuous -- proved many times on this site.
It is a common misconception that a function with a derivative that is unbounded for large $|x|$ cannot be uniformly continuous. The condition that $|f'(x)| to +infty$ as $|x| to +infty$ guarantees non-uniform continuity.
Could you show me some proof of the fact that if $|f'(x)|to infty$ as $|x|to infty$ then it collides with uniform convergence?
– Jakobian
1 hour ago
2
@Jakobian: Sure. $|f(x) - f(y)| = |f'(xi)||x - y|$ by the MVT. For any $delta > 0$ take $y = x + delta/2$ so that $|x-y| < delta$ and $|f(x) - f(y)| = |f'(xi)|delta/2$ Now this stays bigger than $1$ for some $x$ and $xi > x$ sufficiently large if $|f'(x)| to +infty$.
– RRL
1 hour ago
@Jakobian Where did uniform convergence come into this question? I thought we were talking about continuity?
– ImNotTheGuy
1 hour ago
@RRL oh, thank you, it was a typo and it got me confused
– Jakobian
1 hour ago
@Jakobian It got me confused too, lol.
– ImNotTheGuy
1 hour ago
|
show 1 more comment
The function $f$ is uniformly continuous on $mathbb{R}$.
Note that $frac{sin x^5}{x} = x^4 frac{sin x^5}{x^5} to 0 cdot 1 = 0$ as $x to 0$ (from the left or the right). Hence, $f$ is continuous and uniformly continuous on any compact interval $[-a,a]$.
Since $f(x) to 0 $ as $|x| to infty$ the function is also uniformly continuous on intervals $(-infty,-a]$ and $[a,infty)$. Any continuous function with a finite limit as $x to pm infty$ is uniformly continuous -- proved many times on this site.
It is a common misconception that a function with a derivative that is unbounded for large $|x|$ cannot be uniformly continuous. The condition that $|f'(x)| to +infty$ as $|x| to +infty$ guarantees non-uniform continuity.
Could you show me some proof of the fact that if $|f'(x)|to infty$ as $|x|to infty$ then it collides with uniform convergence?
– Jakobian
1 hour ago
2
@Jakobian: Sure. $|f(x) - f(y)| = |f'(xi)||x - y|$ by the MVT. For any $delta > 0$ take $y = x + delta/2$ so that $|x-y| < delta$ and $|f(x) - f(y)| = |f'(xi)|delta/2$ Now this stays bigger than $1$ for some $x$ and $xi > x$ sufficiently large if $|f'(x)| to +infty$.
– RRL
1 hour ago
@Jakobian Where did uniform convergence come into this question? I thought we were talking about continuity?
– ImNotTheGuy
1 hour ago
@RRL oh, thank you, it was a typo and it got me confused
– Jakobian
1 hour ago
@Jakobian It got me confused too, lol.
– ImNotTheGuy
1 hour ago
|
show 1 more comment
The function $f$ is uniformly continuous on $mathbb{R}$.
Note that $frac{sin x^5}{x} = x^4 frac{sin x^5}{x^5} to 0 cdot 1 = 0$ as $x to 0$ (from the left or the right). Hence, $f$ is continuous and uniformly continuous on any compact interval $[-a,a]$.
Since $f(x) to 0 $ as $|x| to infty$ the function is also uniformly continuous on intervals $(-infty,-a]$ and $[a,infty)$. Any continuous function with a finite limit as $x to pm infty$ is uniformly continuous -- proved many times on this site.
It is a common misconception that a function with a derivative that is unbounded for large $|x|$ cannot be uniformly continuous. The condition that $|f'(x)| to +infty$ as $|x| to +infty$ guarantees non-uniform continuity.
The function $f$ is uniformly continuous on $mathbb{R}$.
Note that $frac{sin x^5}{x} = x^4 frac{sin x^5}{x^5} to 0 cdot 1 = 0$ as $x to 0$ (from the left or the right). Hence, $f$ is continuous and uniformly continuous on any compact interval $[-a,a]$.
Since $f(x) to 0 $ as $|x| to infty$ the function is also uniformly continuous on intervals $(-infty,-a]$ and $[a,infty)$. Any continuous function with a finite limit as $x to pm infty$ is uniformly continuous -- proved many times on this site.
It is a common misconception that a function with a derivative that is unbounded for large $|x|$ cannot be uniformly continuous. The condition that $|f'(x)| to +infty$ as $|x| to +infty$ guarantees non-uniform continuity.
edited 51 mins ago
answered 1 hour ago
RRL
48.7k42573
48.7k42573
Could you show me some proof of the fact that if $|f'(x)|to infty$ as $|x|to infty$ then it collides with uniform convergence?
– Jakobian
1 hour ago
2
@Jakobian: Sure. $|f(x) - f(y)| = |f'(xi)||x - y|$ by the MVT. For any $delta > 0$ take $y = x + delta/2$ so that $|x-y| < delta$ and $|f(x) - f(y)| = |f'(xi)|delta/2$ Now this stays bigger than $1$ for some $x$ and $xi > x$ sufficiently large if $|f'(x)| to +infty$.
– RRL
1 hour ago
@Jakobian Where did uniform convergence come into this question? I thought we were talking about continuity?
– ImNotTheGuy
1 hour ago
@RRL oh, thank you, it was a typo and it got me confused
– Jakobian
1 hour ago
@Jakobian It got me confused too, lol.
– ImNotTheGuy
1 hour ago
|
show 1 more comment
Could you show me some proof of the fact that if $|f'(x)|to infty$ as $|x|to infty$ then it collides with uniform convergence?
– Jakobian
1 hour ago
2
@Jakobian: Sure. $|f(x) - f(y)| = |f'(xi)||x - y|$ by the MVT. For any $delta > 0$ take $y = x + delta/2$ so that $|x-y| < delta$ and $|f(x) - f(y)| = |f'(xi)|delta/2$ Now this stays bigger than $1$ for some $x$ and $xi > x$ sufficiently large if $|f'(x)| to +infty$.
– RRL
1 hour ago
@Jakobian Where did uniform convergence come into this question? I thought we were talking about continuity?
– ImNotTheGuy
1 hour ago
@RRL oh, thank you, it was a typo and it got me confused
– Jakobian
1 hour ago
@Jakobian It got me confused too, lol.
– ImNotTheGuy
1 hour ago
Could you show me some proof of the fact that if $|f'(x)|to infty$ as $|x|to infty$ then it collides with uniform convergence?
– Jakobian
1 hour ago
Could you show me some proof of the fact that if $|f'(x)|to infty$ as $|x|to infty$ then it collides with uniform convergence?
– Jakobian
1 hour ago
2
2
@Jakobian: Sure. $|f(x) - f(y)| = |f'(xi)||x - y|$ by the MVT. For any $delta > 0$ take $y = x + delta/2$ so that $|x-y| < delta$ and $|f(x) - f(y)| = |f'(xi)|delta/2$ Now this stays bigger than $1$ for some $x$ and $xi > x$ sufficiently large if $|f'(x)| to +infty$.
– RRL
1 hour ago
@Jakobian: Sure. $|f(x) - f(y)| = |f'(xi)||x - y|$ by the MVT. For any $delta > 0$ take $y = x + delta/2$ so that $|x-y| < delta$ and $|f(x) - f(y)| = |f'(xi)|delta/2$ Now this stays bigger than $1$ for some $x$ and $xi > x$ sufficiently large if $|f'(x)| to +infty$.
– RRL
1 hour ago
@Jakobian Where did uniform convergence come into this question? I thought we were talking about continuity?
– ImNotTheGuy
1 hour ago
@Jakobian Where did uniform convergence come into this question? I thought we were talking about continuity?
– ImNotTheGuy
1 hour ago
@RRL oh, thank you, it was a typo and it got me confused
– Jakobian
1 hour ago
@RRL oh, thank you, it was a typo and it got me confused
– Jakobian
1 hour ago
@Jakobian It got me confused too, lol.
– ImNotTheGuy
1 hour ago
@Jakobian It got me confused too, lol.
– ImNotTheGuy
1 hour ago
|
show 1 more comment
Sergamar is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Sergamar is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Sergamar is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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2
Uniformly continuous on what set?
– user587192
2 hours ago
I believe it must be on $mathbb R$
– fonini
2 hours ago
On all the real numbers
– Sergamar
2 hours ago
It can't be on $mathbb{R}$: this function not defined at $x=0$.
– user587192
2 hours ago
1
0 if x = 0, that expresion otherwise
– Sergamar
2 hours ago