Prove that there exists at least one $x_0inmathbb{R}$, such that $f(x_0)+f''(x_0)=0$











up vote
2
down vote

favorite
5













Let $f:mathbb{R}tomathbb{R}$ be a function, two times
differentiable with $left|f(x)right|leq1,forall xinmathbb{R}$
and $f^2(0)+left(f'(0)right)^2=4$. Prove that there exists at least
one $x_0inmathbb{R}$, such that $f(x_0)+f''(x_0)=0$.




I have tried the usual Rolle method by $e^x$, but didn't go far... Any help available?










share|cite|improve this question


























    up vote
    2
    down vote

    favorite
    5













    Let $f:mathbb{R}tomathbb{R}$ be a function, two times
    differentiable with $left|f(x)right|leq1,forall xinmathbb{R}$
    and $f^2(0)+left(f'(0)right)^2=4$. Prove that there exists at least
    one $x_0inmathbb{R}$, such that $f(x_0)+f''(x_0)=0$.




    I have tried the usual Rolle method by $e^x$, but didn't go far... Any help available?










    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite
      5









      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite
      5






      5






      Let $f:mathbb{R}tomathbb{R}$ be a function, two times
      differentiable with $left|f(x)right|leq1,forall xinmathbb{R}$
      and $f^2(0)+left(f'(0)right)^2=4$. Prove that there exists at least
      one $x_0inmathbb{R}$, such that $f(x_0)+f''(x_0)=0$.




      I have tried the usual Rolle method by $e^x$, but didn't go far... Any help available?










      share|cite|improve this question














      Let $f:mathbb{R}tomathbb{R}$ be a function, two times
      differentiable with $left|f(x)right|leq1,forall xinmathbb{R}$
      and $f^2(0)+left(f'(0)right)^2=4$. Prove that there exists at least
      one $x_0inmathbb{R}$, such that $f(x_0)+f''(x_0)=0$.




      I have tried the usual Rolle method by $e^x$, but didn't go far... Any help available?







      calculus functions inequality






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Mar 6 '16 at 15:23









      Jason

      1,3041025




      1,3041025






















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Let's define $g(x) = f(x)^2 + f'(x)^2$. We have:




          • $g'(x) = 2f'(x)(f(x)+f''(x))$

          • $g(0) = 4$


          We will find a local maximum of $g$, noted $x_0$, which verifies $g(x_0) ge 4$. We shall distinguish two options:




          • $g(0) = 4 ge g(x) forall x in mathbb{R}$, in which case $0$ is the local maximum that we are trying to find.


          • There exists $y in mathbb{R} setminus {0}$ with $g(y) > 4$. Let's supose that $y > 0$ (otherwise apply the following reasoning to $-g$) and try to find a number $x' > y$ which verifies $g(x') = 4$. If there isn't such a number, then we would have $g(x) > 4$ for every $x > y$. Thus, $left| f'(x) right| > sqrt 3$ for every $x > y$. Using the mean value theorem on $x > max{2,y}$ we get a contradiction:



          $$ 2 ge left| f(x) - f(0)right| = left| f'(xi_x) x right| > 2 sqrt 3 > 2 $$



          As a consequence, we can take $x' > y$ with $g(x') = 4$. The function $g$ has a global maximum in $[0, x']$ because it is continuous. Let $x_0$ be that global maximum. Then, $g(x_0) ge g(y) > 4$ and, consequently, $x_0 ne 0, x'$. Hence, $x_0$ is a local maximum of $g$ with $g(x_0) ge 4$.



          Finally, since $x_0$ is a local extrema we have:



          $$ 0 = g'(x_0) = 2f'(x_0)(f(x_0)+f''(x_0)) $$



          Furthermore, $f'(x_0)^2 ge 4 - f(x_0)^2 ge 3 > 0$ and, thus, $f(x_0)+f''(x_0) = 0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer



















          • 2




            Can you clarify your arguments for the contradiction? Specifically, why must we find such a number $x_n$ and why if $f'$ is not bounded, then $f$ is also not bounded?
            – Jason
            Mar 6 '16 at 17:02






          • 1




            You are assuming that if $g$ has no global maximum then it is unbounded. But $g$ may be bounded and NOT have a global maximum. For example, $g(x)=tan ^{-1} x$
            – Matematleta
            Mar 6 '16 at 17:21












          • @Chilango Do you have any proof for my exercise? Because nothing has been done yet...
            – Jason
            Mar 6 '16 at 18:13










          • Thanks for the observation. I repaired the solution. Note that the function $f(x) = sin(2e^x -1)$ verifies the hypothesis and the derivative is not bounded, that was a mistake.
            – andreshp
            Mar 6 '16 at 19:18






          • 1




            You can't use Rolle's theorem there because you need $g(x_0) ge 4$ and in order to affirm that you should $x_0$ as the global maximum of $[0,x']$.
            – andreshp
            Mar 6 '16 at 21:53




















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          Try to explore the extrema of
          $$
          g(x)=f(x)^2+f'(x)^2implies g'(x)=2f'(x)(f(x)+f''(x)).
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • What about another, more specific, hint?
            – Jason
            Mar 6 '16 at 16:30











          Your Answer





          StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
          return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
          StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
          StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
          });
          });
          }, "mathjax-editing");

          StackExchange.ready(function() {
          var channelOptions = {
          tags: "".split(" "),
          id: "69"
          };
          initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

          StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
          // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
          if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
          StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
          createEditor();
          });
          }
          else {
          createEditor();
          }
          });

          function createEditor() {
          StackExchange.prepareEditor({
          heartbeatType: 'answer',
          convertImagesToLinks: true,
          noModals: true,
          showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
          reputationToPostImages: 10,
          bindNavPrevention: true,
          postfix: "",
          imageUploader: {
          brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
          contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
          allowUrls: true
          },
          noCode: true, onDemand: true,
          discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
          ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
          });


          }
          });














          draft saved

          draft discarded


















          StackExchange.ready(
          function () {
          StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f1685616%2fprove-that-there-exists-at-least-one-x-0-in-mathbbr-such-that-fx-0fx%23new-answer', 'question_page');
          }
          );

          Post as a guest















          Required, but never shown

























          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes








          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Let's define $g(x) = f(x)^2 + f'(x)^2$. We have:




          • $g'(x) = 2f'(x)(f(x)+f''(x))$

          • $g(0) = 4$


          We will find a local maximum of $g$, noted $x_0$, which verifies $g(x_0) ge 4$. We shall distinguish two options:




          • $g(0) = 4 ge g(x) forall x in mathbb{R}$, in which case $0$ is the local maximum that we are trying to find.


          • There exists $y in mathbb{R} setminus {0}$ with $g(y) > 4$. Let's supose that $y > 0$ (otherwise apply the following reasoning to $-g$) and try to find a number $x' > y$ which verifies $g(x') = 4$. If there isn't such a number, then we would have $g(x) > 4$ for every $x > y$. Thus, $left| f'(x) right| > sqrt 3$ for every $x > y$. Using the mean value theorem on $x > max{2,y}$ we get a contradiction:



          $$ 2 ge left| f(x) - f(0)right| = left| f'(xi_x) x right| > 2 sqrt 3 > 2 $$



          As a consequence, we can take $x' > y$ with $g(x') = 4$. The function $g$ has a global maximum in $[0, x']$ because it is continuous. Let $x_0$ be that global maximum. Then, $g(x_0) ge g(y) > 4$ and, consequently, $x_0 ne 0, x'$. Hence, $x_0$ is a local maximum of $g$ with $g(x_0) ge 4$.



          Finally, since $x_0$ is a local extrema we have:



          $$ 0 = g'(x_0) = 2f'(x_0)(f(x_0)+f''(x_0)) $$



          Furthermore, $f'(x_0)^2 ge 4 - f(x_0)^2 ge 3 > 0$ and, thus, $f(x_0)+f''(x_0) = 0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer



















          • 2




            Can you clarify your arguments for the contradiction? Specifically, why must we find such a number $x_n$ and why if $f'$ is not bounded, then $f$ is also not bounded?
            – Jason
            Mar 6 '16 at 17:02






          • 1




            You are assuming that if $g$ has no global maximum then it is unbounded. But $g$ may be bounded and NOT have a global maximum. For example, $g(x)=tan ^{-1} x$
            – Matematleta
            Mar 6 '16 at 17:21












          • @Chilango Do you have any proof for my exercise? Because nothing has been done yet...
            – Jason
            Mar 6 '16 at 18:13










          • Thanks for the observation. I repaired the solution. Note that the function $f(x) = sin(2e^x -1)$ verifies the hypothesis and the derivative is not bounded, that was a mistake.
            – andreshp
            Mar 6 '16 at 19:18






          • 1




            You can't use Rolle's theorem there because you need $g(x_0) ge 4$ and in order to affirm that you should $x_0$ as the global maximum of $[0,x']$.
            – andreshp
            Mar 6 '16 at 21:53

















          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Let's define $g(x) = f(x)^2 + f'(x)^2$. We have:




          • $g'(x) = 2f'(x)(f(x)+f''(x))$

          • $g(0) = 4$


          We will find a local maximum of $g$, noted $x_0$, which verifies $g(x_0) ge 4$. We shall distinguish two options:




          • $g(0) = 4 ge g(x) forall x in mathbb{R}$, in which case $0$ is the local maximum that we are trying to find.


          • There exists $y in mathbb{R} setminus {0}$ with $g(y) > 4$. Let's supose that $y > 0$ (otherwise apply the following reasoning to $-g$) and try to find a number $x' > y$ which verifies $g(x') = 4$. If there isn't such a number, then we would have $g(x) > 4$ for every $x > y$. Thus, $left| f'(x) right| > sqrt 3$ for every $x > y$. Using the mean value theorem on $x > max{2,y}$ we get a contradiction:



          $$ 2 ge left| f(x) - f(0)right| = left| f'(xi_x) x right| > 2 sqrt 3 > 2 $$



          As a consequence, we can take $x' > y$ with $g(x') = 4$. The function $g$ has a global maximum in $[0, x']$ because it is continuous. Let $x_0$ be that global maximum. Then, $g(x_0) ge g(y) > 4$ and, consequently, $x_0 ne 0, x'$. Hence, $x_0$ is a local maximum of $g$ with $g(x_0) ge 4$.



          Finally, since $x_0$ is a local extrema we have:



          $$ 0 = g'(x_0) = 2f'(x_0)(f(x_0)+f''(x_0)) $$



          Furthermore, $f'(x_0)^2 ge 4 - f(x_0)^2 ge 3 > 0$ and, thus, $f(x_0)+f''(x_0) = 0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer



















          • 2




            Can you clarify your arguments for the contradiction? Specifically, why must we find such a number $x_n$ and why if $f'$ is not bounded, then $f$ is also not bounded?
            – Jason
            Mar 6 '16 at 17:02






          • 1




            You are assuming that if $g$ has no global maximum then it is unbounded. But $g$ may be bounded and NOT have a global maximum. For example, $g(x)=tan ^{-1} x$
            – Matematleta
            Mar 6 '16 at 17:21












          • @Chilango Do you have any proof for my exercise? Because nothing has been done yet...
            – Jason
            Mar 6 '16 at 18:13










          • Thanks for the observation. I repaired the solution. Note that the function $f(x) = sin(2e^x -1)$ verifies the hypothesis and the derivative is not bounded, that was a mistake.
            – andreshp
            Mar 6 '16 at 19:18






          • 1




            You can't use Rolle's theorem there because you need $g(x_0) ge 4$ and in order to affirm that you should $x_0$ as the global maximum of $[0,x']$.
            – andreshp
            Mar 6 '16 at 21:53















          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted






          Let's define $g(x) = f(x)^2 + f'(x)^2$. We have:




          • $g'(x) = 2f'(x)(f(x)+f''(x))$

          • $g(0) = 4$


          We will find a local maximum of $g$, noted $x_0$, which verifies $g(x_0) ge 4$. We shall distinguish two options:




          • $g(0) = 4 ge g(x) forall x in mathbb{R}$, in which case $0$ is the local maximum that we are trying to find.


          • There exists $y in mathbb{R} setminus {0}$ with $g(y) > 4$. Let's supose that $y > 0$ (otherwise apply the following reasoning to $-g$) and try to find a number $x' > y$ which verifies $g(x') = 4$. If there isn't such a number, then we would have $g(x) > 4$ for every $x > y$. Thus, $left| f'(x) right| > sqrt 3$ for every $x > y$. Using the mean value theorem on $x > max{2,y}$ we get a contradiction:



          $$ 2 ge left| f(x) - f(0)right| = left| f'(xi_x) x right| > 2 sqrt 3 > 2 $$



          As a consequence, we can take $x' > y$ with $g(x') = 4$. The function $g$ has a global maximum in $[0, x']$ because it is continuous. Let $x_0$ be that global maximum. Then, $g(x_0) ge g(y) > 4$ and, consequently, $x_0 ne 0, x'$. Hence, $x_0$ is a local maximum of $g$ with $g(x_0) ge 4$.



          Finally, since $x_0$ is a local extrema we have:



          $$ 0 = g'(x_0) = 2f'(x_0)(f(x_0)+f''(x_0)) $$



          Furthermore, $f'(x_0)^2 ge 4 - f(x_0)^2 ge 3 > 0$ and, thus, $f(x_0)+f''(x_0) = 0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          Let's define $g(x) = f(x)^2 + f'(x)^2$. We have:




          • $g'(x) = 2f'(x)(f(x)+f''(x))$

          • $g(0) = 4$


          We will find a local maximum of $g$, noted $x_0$, which verifies $g(x_0) ge 4$. We shall distinguish two options:




          • $g(0) = 4 ge g(x) forall x in mathbb{R}$, in which case $0$ is the local maximum that we are trying to find.


          • There exists $y in mathbb{R} setminus {0}$ with $g(y) > 4$. Let's supose that $y > 0$ (otherwise apply the following reasoning to $-g$) and try to find a number $x' > y$ which verifies $g(x') = 4$. If there isn't such a number, then we would have $g(x) > 4$ for every $x > y$. Thus, $left| f'(x) right| > sqrt 3$ for every $x > y$. Using the mean value theorem on $x > max{2,y}$ we get a contradiction:



          $$ 2 ge left| f(x) - f(0)right| = left| f'(xi_x) x right| > 2 sqrt 3 > 2 $$



          As a consequence, we can take $x' > y$ with $g(x') = 4$. The function $g$ has a global maximum in $[0, x']$ because it is continuous. Let $x_0$ be that global maximum. Then, $g(x_0) ge g(y) > 4$ and, consequently, $x_0 ne 0, x'$. Hence, $x_0$ is a local maximum of $g$ with $g(x_0) ge 4$.



          Finally, since $x_0$ is a local extrema we have:



          $$ 0 = g'(x_0) = 2f'(x_0)(f(x_0)+f''(x_0)) $$



          Furthermore, $f'(x_0)^2 ge 4 - f(x_0)^2 ge 3 > 0$ and, thus, $f(x_0)+f''(x_0) = 0$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Mar 6 '16 at 19:23

























          answered Mar 6 '16 at 16:52









          andreshp

          15019




          15019








          • 2




            Can you clarify your arguments for the contradiction? Specifically, why must we find such a number $x_n$ and why if $f'$ is not bounded, then $f$ is also not bounded?
            – Jason
            Mar 6 '16 at 17:02






          • 1




            You are assuming that if $g$ has no global maximum then it is unbounded. But $g$ may be bounded and NOT have a global maximum. For example, $g(x)=tan ^{-1} x$
            – Matematleta
            Mar 6 '16 at 17:21












          • @Chilango Do you have any proof for my exercise? Because nothing has been done yet...
            – Jason
            Mar 6 '16 at 18:13










          • Thanks for the observation. I repaired the solution. Note that the function $f(x) = sin(2e^x -1)$ verifies the hypothesis and the derivative is not bounded, that was a mistake.
            – andreshp
            Mar 6 '16 at 19:18






          • 1




            You can't use Rolle's theorem there because you need $g(x_0) ge 4$ and in order to affirm that you should $x_0$ as the global maximum of $[0,x']$.
            – andreshp
            Mar 6 '16 at 21:53
















          • 2




            Can you clarify your arguments for the contradiction? Specifically, why must we find such a number $x_n$ and why if $f'$ is not bounded, then $f$ is also not bounded?
            – Jason
            Mar 6 '16 at 17:02






          • 1




            You are assuming that if $g$ has no global maximum then it is unbounded. But $g$ may be bounded and NOT have a global maximum. For example, $g(x)=tan ^{-1} x$
            – Matematleta
            Mar 6 '16 at 17:21












          • @Chilango Do you have any proof for my exercise? Because nothing has been done yet...
            – Jason
            Mar 6 '16 at 18:13










          • Thanks for the observation. I repaired the solution. Note that the function $f(x) = sin(2e^x -1)$ verifies the hypothesis and the derivative is not bounded, that was a mistake.
            – andreshp
            Mar 6 '16 at 19:18






          • 1




            You can't use Rolle's theorem there because you need $g(x_0) ge 4$ and in order to affirm that you should $x_0$ as the global maximum of $[0,x']$.
            – andreshp
            Mar 6 '16 at 21:53










          2




          2




          Can you clarify your arguments for the contradiction? Specifically, why must we find such a number $x_n$ and why if $f'$ is not bounded, then $f$ is also not bounded?
          – Jason
          Mar 6 '16 at 17:02




          Can you clarify your arguments for the contradiction? Specifically, why must we find such a number $x_n$ and why if $f'$ is not bounded, then $f$ is also not bounded?
          – Jason
          Mar 6 '16 at 17:02




          1




          1




          You are assuming that if $g$ has no global maximum then it is unbounded. But $g$ may be bounded and NOT have a global maximum. For example, $g(x)=tan ^{-1} x$
          – Matematleta
          Mar 6 '16 at 17:21






          You are assuming that if $g$ has no global maximum then it is unbounded. But $g$ may be bounded and NOT have a global maximum. For example, $g(x)=tan ^{-1} x$
          – Matematleta
          Mar 6 '16 at 17:21














          @Chilango Do you have any proof for my exercise? Because nothing has been done yet...
          – Jason
          Mar 6 '16 at 18:13




          @Chilango Do you have any proof for my exercise? Because nothing has been done yet...
          – Jason
          Mar 6 '16 at 18:13












          Thanks for the observation. I repaired the solution. Note that the function $f(x) = sin(2e^x -1)$ verifies the hypothesis and the derivative is not bounded, that was a mistake.
          – andreshp
          Mar 6 '16 at 19:18




          Thanks for the observation. I repaired the solution. Note that the function $f(x) = sin(2e^x -1)$ verifies the hypothesis and the derivative is not bounded, that was a mistake.
          – andreshp
          Mar 6 '16 at 19:18




          1




          1




          You can't use Rolle's theorem there because you need $g(x_0) ge 4$ and in order to affirm that you should $x_0$ as the global maximum of $[0,x']$.
          – andreshp
          Mar 6 '16 at 21:53






          You can't use Rolle's theorem there because you need $g(x_0) ge 4$ and in order to affirm that you should $x_0$ as the global maximum of $[0,x']$.
          – andreshp
          Mar 6 '16 at 21:53












          up vote
          0
          down vote













          Try to explore the extrema of
          $$
          g(x)=f(x)^2+f'(x)^2implies g'(x)=2f'(x)(f(x)+f''(x)).
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • What about another, more specific, hint?
            – Jason
            Mar 6 '16 at 16:30















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          Try to explore the extrema of
          $$
          g(x)=f(x)^2+f'(x)^2implies g'(x)=2f'(x)(f(x)+f''(x)).
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • What about another, more specific, hint?
            – Jason
            Mar 6 '16 at 16:30













          up vote
          0
          down vote










          up vote
          0
          down vote









          Try to explore the extrema of
          $$
          g(x)=f(x)^2+f'(x)^2implies g'(x)=2f'(x)(f(x)+f''(x)).
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Try to explore the extrema of
          $$
          g(x)=f(x)^2+f'(x)^2implies g'(x)=2f'(x)(f(x)+f''(x)).
          $$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Mar 6 '16 at 15:48









          LutzL

          54.3k41953




          54.3k41953












          • What about another, more specific, hint?
            – Jason
            Mar 6 '16 at 16:30


















          • What about another, more specific, hint?
            – Jason
            Mar 6 '16 at 16:30
















          What about another, more specific, hint?
          – Jason
          Mar 6 '16 at 16:30




          What about another, more specific, hint?
          – Jason
          Mar 6 '16 at 16:30


















          draft saved

          draft discarded




















































          Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


          • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

          But avoid



          • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

          • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


          Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


          To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.





          Some of your past answers have not been well-received, and you're in danger of being blocked from answering.


          Please pay close attention to the following guidance:


          • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

          But avoid



          • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

          • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


          To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




          draft saved


          draft discarded














          StackExchange.ready(
          function () {
          StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f1685616%2fprove-that-there-exists-at-least-one-x-0-in-mathbbr-such-that-fx-0fx%23new-answer', 'question_page');
          }
          );

          Post as a guest















          Required, but never shown





















































          Required, but never shown














          Required, but never shown












          Required, but never shown







          Required, but never shown

































          Required, but never shown














          Required, but never shown












          Required, but never shown







          Required, but never shown







          Popular posts from this blog

          Bundesstraße 106

          Verónica Boquete

          Ida-Boy-Ed-Garten