Probability of extracting k different coloured balls in a sample of m>k balls.












1












$begingroup$


I am having some problems with the next excercise:




Suppose an urn with balls of only six different colours where the chances to obtain each colour is exactly the same for all of them in each extraction. i.e, the probabiblity doesn't change from one iteration to the next one.



Now, let's extract a sample of 10 balls and compute the probability of obtaining the six different colours in it.






This might be a dumb question but I have no idea about how to proceed. Please, help me.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Well, the first thing to notice is that every possible sequence of colors has the same probability, $6^{-10},$ so the problem is simply to count the sequences that have at least one of each color.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Dec 6 '18 at 20:03










  • $begingroup$
    Yes. But that is exactly where I have the problem. I don't know how to find out how many favorable cases are there.
    $endgroup$
    – Israel Barquín
    Dec 6 '18 at 21:35










  • $begingroup$
    There are ten balls. Six of them are of different colors. That leaves only four balls to account for. Try writing down the possibilities.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Dec 6 '18 at 22:36
















1












$begingroup$


I am having some problems with the next excercise:




Suppose an urn with balls of only six different colours where the chances to obtain each colour is exactly the same for all of them in each extraction. i.e, the probabiblity doesn't change from one iteration to the next one.



Now, let's extract a sample of 10 balls and compute the probability of obtaining the six different colours in it.






This might be a dumb question but I have no idea about how to proceed. Please, help me.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Well, the first thing to notice is that every possible sequence of colors has the same probability, $6^{-10},$ so the problem is simply to count the sequences that have at least one of each color.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Dec 6 '18 at 20:03










  • $begingroup$
    Yes. But that is exactly where I have the problem. I don't know how to find out how many favorable cases are there.
    $endgroup$
    – Israel Barquín
    Dec 6 '18 at 21:35










  • $begingroup$
    There are ten balls. Six of them are of different colors. That leaves only four balls to account for. Try writing down the possibilities.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Dec 6 '18 at 22:36














1












1








1


1



$begingroup$


I am having some problems with the next excercise:




Suppose an urn with balls of only six different colours where the chances to obtain each colour is exactly the same for all of them in each extraction. i.e, the probabiblity doesn't change from one iteration to the next one.



Now, let's extract a sample of 10 balls and compute the probability of obtaining the six different colours in it.






This might be a dumb question but I have no idea about how to proceed. Please, help me.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I am having some problems with the next excercise:




Suppose an urn with balls of only six different colours where the chances to obtain each colour is exactly the same for all of them in each extraction. i.e, the probabiblity doesn't change from one iteration to the next one.



Now, let's extract a sample of 10 balls and compute the probability of obtaining the six different colours in it.






This might be a dumb question but I have no idea about how to proceed. Please, help me.







probability probability-theory statistics probability-distributions






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Dec 6 '18 at 19:41









Israel BarquínIsrael Barquín

276




276












  • $begingroup$
    Well, the first thing to notice is that every possible sequence of colors has the same probability, $6^{-10},$ so the problem is simply to count the sequences that have at least one of each color.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Dec 6 '18 at 20:03










  • $begingroup$
    Yes. But that is exactly where I have the problem. I don't know how to find out how many favorable cases are there.
    $endgroup$
    – Israel Barquín
    Dec 6 '18 at 21:35










  • $begingroup$
    There are ten balls. Six of them are of different colors. That leaves only four balls to account for. Try writing down the possibilities.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Dec 6 '18 at 22:36


















  • $begingroup$
    Well, the first thing to notice is that every possible sequence of colors has the same probability, $6^{-10},$ so the problem is simply to count the sequences that have at least one of each color.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Dec 6 '18 at 20:03










  • $begingroup$
    Yes. But that is exactly where I have the problem. I don't know how to find out how many favorable cases are there.
    $endgroup$
    – Israel Barquín
    Dec 6 '18 at 21:35










  • $begingroup$
    There are ten balls. Six of them are of different colors. That leaves only four balls to account for. Try writing down the possibilities.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Dec 6 '18 at 22:36
















$begingroup$
Well, the first thing to notice is that every possible sequence of colors has the same probability, $6^{-10},$ so the problem is simply to count the sequences that have at least one of each color.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Dec 6 '18 at 20:03




$begingroup$
Well, the first thing to notice is that every possible sequence of colors has the same probability, $6^{-10},$ so the problem is simply to count the sequences that have at least one of each color.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Dec 6 '18 at 20:03












$begingroup$
Yes. But that is exactly where I have the problem. I don't know how to find out how many favorable cases are there.
$endgroup$
– Israel Barquín
Dec 6 '18 at 21:35




$begingroup$
Yes. But that is exactly where I have the problem. I don't know how to find out how many favorable cases are there.
$endgroup$
– Israel Barquín
Dec 6 '18 at 21:35












$begingroup$
There are ten balls. Six of them are of different colors. That leaves only four balls to account for. Try writing down the possibilities.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Dec 6 '18 at 22:36




$begingroup$
There are ten balls. Six of them are of different colors. That leaves only four balls to account for. Try writing down the possibilities.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Dec 6 '18 at 22:36










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

This is an example of the famous coupon collector's problem which is part of a more general probability problem called the classical occupancy problem. It can be reframed as follows:




Suppose we have $n=10$ balls and $m=6$ (coloured) bins. We allocate the balls to the bins at random. Find the distribution of the number of non-empty bins (classical occupancy problem), and the probability that all bins are non-empty (coupon collector's problem).




Let $K$ be the number of colours obtained from this allocation (i.e., the number of bins that are non-empty). The distribution of this random variable is the classical occupancy distribution which has mass function (see related question):



$$text{Occ}(k|n,m) = frac{(m)_k cdot S(n,k)}{m^n} quad quad text{for all } k = 1,2,..., min(n,m).$$



(In this expression the values $(m)_k = m (m-1) cdots (m-k+1)$ are the falling factorials and the values $S(n,k)$ are the Stirling numbers of the second kind.) For the coupon collector's problem we are interested in the probability that $K=m$, which is:



$$text{Occ}(m|n,m) = frac{m! cdot S(n,m)}{m^n} cdot mathbb{I}(m leqslant n).$$



For your particular problem the desired probability for the coupon collector's problem is:



$$text{Occ}(6|10,6) = frac{6! cdot S(10,6)}{6^{10}}
= frac{720 cdot 22827}{60466176}
= frac{16435440}{60466176}
= 0.2718121.$$





Confirming this by simulation: We can easily simulate the occupancy number in R by simulating the underlying allocation problem. Taking $S = 10^6$ simulations gives the following sample proportions for the occupancy number.



#Simulate this problem S times
set.seed(1);
S <- 10^6;
BALLS <- array(ceiling(6*runif(10*S)), dim = c(S, 10));

#Count number of occupied bins
OCC <- rep(0, S);
for (s in 1:S) { OCC[s] <- dim(table(BALLS[s,])) }

#Show sample proportions of outcomes
table(OCC)/S;

OCC
2 3 4 5 6
0.000279 0.018522 0.203018 0.506310 0.271871


We can see that the proportion of cases where $K=6$ closely matches our probability calculation using the classical occupancy distribution.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    1












    $begingroup$

    Hint:



    There are two approaches to counting the number before dividing by $6^{10}$




    • The labour-intensive way is by inclusion-exclusion


    • The quick way is to take a particular known value of Stirling numbers of the second kind, and multiply by a suitable factorial to take account of the colours being distinguishable







    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes








      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      1












      $begingroup$

      This is an example of the famous coupon collector's problem which is part of a more general probability problem called the classical occupancy problem. It can be reframed as follows:




      Suppose we have $n=10$ balls and $m=6$ (coloured) bins. We allocate the balls to the bins at random. Find the distribution of the number of non-empty bins (classical occupancy problem), and the probability that all bins are non-empty (coupon collector's problem).




      Let $K$ be the number of colours obtained from this allocation (i.e., the number of bins that are non-empty). The distribution of this random variable is the classical occupancy distribution which has mass function (see related question):



      $$text{Occ}(k|n,m) = frac{(m)_k cdot S(n,k)}{m^n} quad quad text{for all } k = 1,2,..., min(n,m).$$



      (In this expression the values $(m)_k = m (m-1) cdots (m-k+1)$ are the falling factorials and the values $S(n,k)$ are the Stirling numbers of the second kind.) For the coupon collector's problem we are interested in the probability that $K=m$, which is:



      $$text{Occ}(m|n,m) = frac{m! cdot S(n,m)}{m^n} cdot mathbb{I}(m leqslant n).$$



      For your particular problem the desired probability for the coupon collector's problem is:



      $$text{Occ}(6|10,6) = frac{6! cdot S(10,6)}{6^{10}}
      = frac{720 cdot 22827}{60466176}
      = frac{16435440}{60466176}
      = 0.2718121.$$





      Confirming this by simulation: We can easily simulate the occupancy number in R by simulating the underlying allocation problem. Taking $S = 10^6$ simulations gives the following sample proportions for the occupancy number.



      #Simulate this problem S times
      set.seed(1);
      S <- 10^6;
      BALLS <- array(ceiling(6*runif(10*S)), dim = c(S, 10));

      #Count number of occupied bins
      OCC <- rep(0, S);
      for (s in 1:S) { OCC[s] <- dim(table(BALLS[s,])) }

      #Show sample proportions of outcomes
      table(OCC)/S;

      OCC
      2 3 4 5 6
      0.000279 0.018522 0.203018 0.506310 0.271871


      We can see that the proportion of cases where $K=6$ closely matches our probability calculation using the classical occupancy distribution.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$


















        1












        $begingroup$

        This is an example of the famous coupon collector's problem which is part of a more general probability problem called the classical occupancy problem. It can be reframed as follows:




        Suppose we have $n=10$ balls and $m=6$ (coloured) bins. We allocate the balls to the bins at random. Find the distribution of the number of non-empty bins (classical occupancy problem), and the probability that all bins are non-empty (coupon collector's problem).




        Let $K$ be the number of colours obtained from this allocation (i.e., the number of bins that are non-empty). The distribution of this random variable is the classical occupancy distribution which has mass function (see related question):



        $$text{Occ}(k|n,m) = frac{(m)_k cdot S(n,k)}{m^n} quad quad text{for all } k = 1,2,..., min(n,m).$$



        (In this expression the values $(m)_k = m (m-1) cdots (m-k+1)$ are the falling factorials and the values $S(n,k)$ are the Stirling numbers of the second kind.) For the coupon collector's problem we are interested in the probability that $K=m$, which is:



        $$text{Occ}(m|n,m) = frac{m! cdot S(n,m)}{m^n} cdot mathbb{I}(m leqslant n).$$



        For your particular problem the desired probability for the coupon collector's problem is:



        $$text{Occ}(6|10,6) = frac{6! cdot S(10,6)}{6^{10}}
        = frac{720 cdot 22827}{60466176}
        = frac{16435440}{60466176}
        = 0.2718121.$$





        Confirming this by simulation: We can easily simulate the occupancy number in R by simulating the underlying allocation problem. Taking $S = 10^6$ simulations gives the following sample proportions for the occupancy number.



        #Simulate this problem S times
        set.seed(1);
        S <- 10^6;
        BALLS <- array(ceiling(6*runif(10*S)), dim = c(S, 10));

        #Count number of occupied bins
        OCC <- rep(0, S);
        for (s in 1:S) { OCC[s] <- dim(table(BALLS[s,])) }

        #Show sample proportions of outcomes
        table(OCC)/S;

        OCC
        2 3 4 5 6
        0.000279 0.018522 0.203018 0.506310 0.271871


        We can see that the proportion of cases where $K=6$ closely matches our probability calculation using the classical occupancy distribution.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$
















          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          This is an example of the famous coupon collector's problem which is part of a more general probability problem called the classical occupancy problem. It can be reframed as follows:




          Suppose we have $n=10$ balls and $m=6$ (coloured) bins. We allocate the balls to the bins at random. Find the distribution of the number of non-empty bins (classical occupancy problem), and the probability that all bins are non-empty (coupon collector's problem).




          Let $K$ be the number of colours obtained from this allocation (i.e., the number of bins that are non-empty). The distribution of this random variable is the classical occupancy distribution which has mass function (see related question):



          $$text{Occ}(k|n,m) = frac{(m)_k cdot S(n,k)}{m^n} quad quad text{for all } k = 1,2,..., min(n,m).$$



          (In this expression the values $(m)_k = m (m-1) cdots (m-k+1)$ are the falling factorials and the values $S(n,k)$ are the Stirling numbers of the second kind.) For the coupon collector's problem we are interested in the probability that $K=m$, which is:



          $$text{Occ}(m|n,m) = frac{m! cdot S(n,m)}{m^n} cdot mathbb{I}(m leqslant n).$$



          For your particular problem the desired probability for the coupon collector's problem is:



          $$text{Occ}(6|10,6) = frac{6! cdot S(10,6)}{6^{10}}
          = frac{720 cdot 22827}{60466176}
          = frac{16435440}{60466176}
          = 0.2718121.$$





          Confirming this by simulation: We can easily simulate the occupancy number in R by simulating the underlying allocation problem. Taking $S = 10^6$ simulations gives the following sample proportions for the occupancy number.



          #Simulate this problem S times
          set.seed(1);
          S <- 10^6;
          BALLS <- array(ceiling(6*runif(10*S)), dim = c(S, 10));

          #Count number of occupied bins
          OCC <- rep(0, S);
          for (s in 1:S) { OCC[s] <- dim(table(BALLS[s,])) }

          #Show sample proportions of outcomes
          table(OCC)/S;

          OCC
          2 3 4 5 6
          0.000279 0.018522 0.203018 0.506310 0.271871


          We can see that the proportion of cases where $K=6$ closely matches our probability calculation using the classical occupancy distribution.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          This is an example of the famous coupon collector's problem which is part of a more general probability problem called the classical occupancy problem. It can be reframed as follows:




          Suppose we have $n=10$ balls and $m=6$ (coloured) bins. We allocate the balls to the bins at random. Find the distribution of the number of non-empty bins (classical occupancy problem), and the probability that all bins are non-empty (coupon collector's problem).




          Let $K$ be the number of colours obtained from this allocation (i.e., the number of bins that are non-empty). The distribution of this random variable is the classical occupancy distribution which has mass function (see related question):



          $$text{Occ}(k|n,m) = frac{(m)_k cdot S(n,k)}{m^n} quad quad text{for all } k = 1,2,..., min(n,m).$$



          (In this expression the values $(m)_k = m (m-1) cdots (m-k+1)$ are the falling factorials and the values $S(n,k)$ are the Stirling numbers of the second kind.) For the coupon collector's problem we are interested in the probability that $K=m$, which is:



          $$text{Occ}(m|n,m) = frac{m! cdot S(n,m)}{m^n} cdot mathbb{I}(m leqslant n).$$



          For your particular problem the desired probability for the coupon collector's problem is:



          $$text{Occ}(6|10,6) = frac{6! cdot S(10,6)}{6^{10}}
          = frac{720 cdot 22827}{60466176}
          = frac{16435440}{60466176}
          = 0.2718121.$$





          Confirming this by simulation: We can easily simulate the occupancy number in R by simulating the underlying allocation problem. Taking $S = 10^6$ simulations gives the following sample proportions for the occupancy number.



          #Simulate this problem S times
          set.seed(1);
          S <- 10^6;
          BALLS <- array(ceiling(6*runif(10*S)), dim = c(S, 10));

          #Count number of occupied bins
          OCC <- rep(0, S);
          for (s in 1:S) { OCC[s] <- dim(table(BALLS[s,])) }

          #Show sample proportions of outcomes
          table(OCC)/S;

          OCC
          2 3 4 5 6
          0.000279 0.018522 0.203018 0.506310 0.271871


          We can see that the proportion of cases where $K=6$ closely matches our probability calculation using the classical occupancy distribution.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Dec 7 '18 at 4:15

























          answered Dec 7 '18 at 0:11









          BenBen

          1,118115




          1,118115























              1












              $begingroup$

              Hint:



              There are two approaches to counting the number before dividing by $6^{10}$




              • The labour-intensive way is by inclusion-exclusion


              • The quick way is to take a particular known value of Stirling numbers of the second kind, and multiply by a suitable factorial to take account of the colours being distinguishable







              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                1












                $begingroup$

                Hint:



                There are two approaches to counting the number before dividing by $6^{10}$




                • The labour-intensive way is by inclusion-exclusion


                • The quick way is to take a particular known value of Stirling numbers of the second kind, and multiply by a suitable factorial to take account of the colours being distinguishable







                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  1












                  1








                  1





                  $begingroup$

                  Hint:



                  There are two approaches to counting the number before dividing by $6^{10}$




                  • The labour-intensive way is by inclusion-exclusion


                  • The quick way is to take a particular known value of Stirling numbers of the second kind, and multiply by a suitable factorial to take account of the colours being distinguishable







                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Hint:



                  There are two approaches to counting the number before dividing by $6^{10}$




                  • The labour-intensive way is by inclusion-exclusion


                  • The quick way is to take a particular known value of Stirling numbers of the second kind, and multiply by a suitable factorial to take account of the colours being distinguishable








                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Dec 6 '18 at 22:35









                  HenryHenry

                  99.9k480165




                  99.9k480165






























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