If $X$ is a finite dimensional space, then all linear functionals are bounded on $X$.
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Let $X$ be a finite dimensional space. I want to prove that all linear functionals are bounded.
MY TRIAL
Let $dim X=ngeq 1,$ and ${e_i}^{n}_{i=1}$ be a basis. Hence, there exists unique scalars ${alpha_i}^{n}_{i=1}$ such that for arbitrary $xin X,$
begin{align} x=sum^{n}_{i=1}alpha_i e_i.end{align}
Let $xin X$ be arbitrary. Then,
begin{align} |f(x)|
&=left|fleft(sum^{n}_{i=1}alpha_i e_iright)right|\&=left|sum^{n}_{i=1}alpha_i fleft(e_iright)right|\&leqsum^{n}_{i=1}left|alpha_iright| left|fleft(e_iright)right|\&leq maxlimits_{1leq ileq n}left|alpha_iright|sum^{n}_{i=1}left|fleft(e_iright)right|end{align}
Define $|cdot|_0$ as $|x|_0=maxlimits_{1leq ileq n}left|alpha_iright|$ which is a norm on $X$ [see Prove that $| cdot |_0$ defined by $| x |_0=maxlimits_{1leq ileq n}|alpha_i|$ is a norm on $E$.. Hence,
begin{align} |f(x)|
leq |x|_0sum^{n}_{i=1}left|fleft(e_iright)right|end{align}
But All norms defined on a finite dimensional normed linear space are equivalent, so any norm $| cdot |$ defined on $E,$ is equivalent to $| cdot |_0$, i.e.
begin{align} |f(x)|
leq |x|sum^{n}_{i=1}left|fleft(e_iright)right|=K|x|,;;text{where};K:=sum^{n}_{i=1}left|fleft(e_iright)right|geq 0,end{align}
and we are done! Please, I'm I right? Alternative proofs will be highly welcome!
functional-analysis normed-spaces
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $X$ be a finite dimensional space. I want to prove that all linear functionals are bounded.
MY TRIAL
Let $dim X=ngeq 1,$ and ${e_i}^{n}_{i=1}$ be a basis. Hence, there exists unique scalars ${alpha_i}^{n}_{i=1}$ such that for arbitrary $xin X,$
begin{align} x=sum^{n}_{i=1}alpha_i e_i.end{align}
Let $xin X$ be arbitrary. Then,
begin{align} |f(x)|
&=left|fleft(sum^{n}_{i=1}alpha_i e_iright)right|\&=left|sum^{n}_{i=1}alpha_i fleft(e_iright)right|\&leqsum^{n}_{i=1}left|alpha_iright| left|fleft(e_iright)right|\&leq maxlimits_{1leq ileq n}left|alpha_iright|sum^{n}_{i=1}left|fleft(e_iright)right|end{align}
Define $|cdot|_0$ as $|x|_0=maxlimits_{1leq ileq n}left|alpha_iright|$ which is a norm on $X$ [see Prove that $| cdot |_0$ defined by $| x |_0=maxlimits_{1leq ileq n}|alpha_i|$ is a norm on $E$.. Hence,
begin{align} |f(x)|
leq |x|_0sum^{n}_{i=1}left|fleft(e_iright)right|end{align}
But All norms defined on a finite dimensional normed linear space are equivalent, so any norm $| cdot |$ defined on $E,$ is equivalent to $| cdot |_0$, i.e.
begin{align} |f(x)|
leq |x|sum^{n}_{i=1}left|fleft(e_iright)right|=K|x|,;;text{where};K:=sum^{n}_{i=1}left|fleft(e_iright)right|geq 0,end{align}
and we are done! Please, I'm I right? Alternative proofs will be highly welcome!
functional-analysis normed-spaces
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
The equivalence of norms is not quite as strong as you use here; you need an additional constant in your final inequality (but you can just absorb that constant into the definition of $K$).
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Dec 27 '18 at 15:57
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@Mees de Vries: So, what do you say about the proof?
$endgroup$
– Omojola Micheal
Dec 27 '18 at 16:13
$begingroup$
Your proof is fine, although I think it's easier if you use the $2-$ norm because then Cauchy-Schwarz gives the result almost immediately.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Dec 27 '18 at 17:09
$begingroup$
@Matematleta: That's true! Thanks for your comment!
$endgroup$
– Omojola Micheal
Dec 27 '18 at 17:11
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $X$ be a finite dimensional space. I want to prove that all linear functionals are bounded.
MY TRIAL
Let $dim X=ngeq 1,$ and ${e_i}^{n}_{i=1}$ be a basis. Hence, there exists unique scalars ${alpha_i}^{n}_{i=1}$ such that for arbitrary $xin X,$
begin{align} x=sum^{n}_{i=1}alpha_i e_i.end{align}
Let $xin X$ be arbitrary. Then,
begin{align} |f(x)|
&=left|fleft(sum^{n}_{i=1}alpha_i e_iright)right|\&=left|sum^{n}_{i=1}alpha_i fleft(e_iright)right|\&leqsum^{n}_{i=1}left|alpha_iright| left|fleft(e_iright)right|\&leq maxlimits_{1leq ileq n}left|alpha_iright|sum^{n}_{i=1}left|fleft(e_iright)right|end{align}
Define $|cdot|_0$ as $|x|_0=maxlimits_{1leq ileq n}left|alpha_iright|$ which is a norm on $X$ [see Prove that $| cdot |_0$ defined by $| x |_0=maxlimits_{1leq ileq n}|alpha_i|$ is a norm on $E$.. Hence,
begin{align} |f(x)|
leq |x|_0sum^{n}_{i=1}left|fleft(e_iright)right|end{align}
But All norms defined on a finite dimensional normed linear space are equivalent, so any norm $| cdot |$ defined on $E,$ is equivalent to $| cdot |_0$, i.e.
begin{align} |f(x)|
leq |x|sum^{n}_{i=1}left|fleft(e_iright)right|=K|x|,;;text{where};K:=sum^{n}_{i=1}left|fleft(e_iright)right|geq 0,end{align}
and we are done! Please, I'm I right? Alternative proofs will be highly welcome!
functional-analysis normed-spaces
$endgroup$
Let $X$ be a finite dimensional space. I want to prove that all linear functionals are bounded.
MY TRIAL
Let $dim X=ngeq 1,$ and ${e_i}^{n}_{i=1}$ be a basis. Hence, there exists unique scalars ${alpha_i}^{n}_{i=1}$ such that for arbitrary $xin X,$
begin{align} x=sum^{n}_{i=1}alpha_i e_i.end{align}
Let $xin X$ be arbitrary. Then,
begin{align} |f(x)|
&=left|fleft(sum^{n}_{i=1}alpha_i e_iright)right|\&=left|sum^{n}_{i=1}alpha_i fleft(e_iright)right|\&leqsum^{n}_{i=1}left|alpha_iright| left|fleft(e_iright)right|\&leq maxlimits_{1leq ileq n}left|alpha_iright|sum^{n}_{i=1}left|fleft(e_iright)right|end{align}
Define $|cdot|_0$ as $|x|_0=maxlimits_{1leq ileq n}left|alpha_iright|$ which is a norm on $X$ [see Prove that $| cdot |_0$ defined by $| x |_0=maxlimits_{1leq ileq n}|alpha_i|$ is a norm on $E$.. Hence,
begin{align} |f(x)|
leq |x|_0sum^{n}_{i=1}left|fleft(e_iright)right|end{align}
But All norms defined on a finite dimensional normed linear space are equivalent, so any norm $| cdot |$ defined on $E,$ is equivalent to $| cdot |_0$, i.e.
begin{align} |f(x)|
leq |x|sum^{n}_{i=1}left|fleft(e_iright)right|=K|x|,;;text{where};K:=sum^{n}_{i=1}left|fleft(e_iright)right|geq 0,end{align}
and we are done! Please, I'm I right? Alternative proofs will be highly welcome!
functional-analysis normed-spaces
functional-analysis normed-spaces
edited Dec 27 '18 at 16:02
Omojola Micheal
asked Dec 27 '18 at 15:51
Omojola MichealOmojola Micheal
2,070424
2,070424
1
$begingroup$
The equivalence of norms is not quite as strong as you use here; you need an additional constant in your final inequality (but you can just absorb that constant into the definition of $K$).
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Dec 27 '18 at 15:57
$begingroup$
@Mees de Vries: So, what do you say about the proof?
$endgroup$
– Omojola Micheal
Dec 27 '18 at 16:13
$begingroup$
Your proof is fine, although I think it's easier if you use the $2-$ norm because then Cauchy-Schwarz gives the result almost immediately.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Dec 27 '18 at 17:09
$begingroup$
@Matematleta: That's true! Thanks for your comment!
$endgroup$
– Omojola Micheal
Dec 27 '18 at 17:11
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
The equivalence of norms is not quite as strong as you use here; you need an additional constant in your final inequality (but you can just absorb that constant into the definition of $K$).
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Dec 27 '18 at 15:57
$begingroup$
@Mees de Vries: So, what do you say about the proof?
$endgroup$
– Omojola Micheal
Dec 27 '18 at 16:13
$begingroup$
Your proof is fine, although I think it's easier if you use the $2-$ norm because then Cauchy-Schwarz gives the result almost immediately.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Dec 27 '18 at 17:09
$begingroup$
@Matematleta: That's true! Thanks for your comment!
$endgroup$
– Omojola Micheal
Dec 27 '18 at 17:11
1
1
$begingroup$
The equivalence of norms is not quite as strong as you use here; you need an additional constant in your final inequality (but you can just absorb that constant into the definition of $K$).
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Dec 27 '18 at 15:57
$begingroup$
The equivalence of norms is not quite as strong as you use here; you need an additional constant in your final inequality (but you can just absorb that constant into the definition of $K$).
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Dec 27 '18 at 15:57
$begingroup$
@Mees de Vries: So, what do you say about the proof?
$endgroup$
– Omojola Micheal
Dec 27 '18 at 16:13
$begingroup$
@Mees de Vries: So, what do you say about the proof?
$endgroup$
– Omojola Micheal
Dec 27 '18 at 16:13
$begingroup$
Your proof is fine, although I think it's easier if you use the $2-$ norm because then Cauchy-Schwarz gives the result almost immediately.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Dec 27 '18 at 17:09
$begingroup$
Your proof is fine, although I think it's easier if you use the $2-$ norm because then Cauchy-Schwarz gives the result almost immediately.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Dec 27 '18 at 17:09
$begingroup$
@Matematleta: That's true! Thanks for your comment!
$endgroup$
– Omojola Micheal
Dec 27 '18 at 17:11
$begingroup$
@Matematleta: That's true! Thanks for your comment!
$endgroup$
– Omojola Micheal
Dec 27 '18 at 17:11
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
The equivalence of norms is not quite as strong as you use here; you need an additional constant in your final inequality (but you can just absorb that constant into the definition of $K$).
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Dec 27 '18 at 15:57
$begingroup$
@Mees de Vries: So, what do you say about the proof?
$endgroup$
– Omojola Micheal
Dec 27 '18 at 16:13
$begingroup$
Your proof is fine, although I think it's easier if you use the $2-$ norm because then Cauchy-Schwarz gives the result almost immediately.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Dec 27 '18 at 17:09
$begingroup$
@Matematleta: That's true! Thanks for your comment!
$endgroup$
– Omojola Micheal
Dec 27 '18 at 17:11