Proof of $j=1$ where $v_j in span(v_1, …,v_{j-1})$












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In Linear Algebra Done Right, it presents the Linear Dependence Lemma which states that :



Suppose $v_1,...,v_m$ is a linearly dependent list in $V$. Then there exists $j in {1,2,...,m}$ such that the following hold: $v_j in span(v_1,...,v_{j-1})$. I follow the proof, but get confused on a special case where $j=1$. The book said choosing $j=1$ means that $v_1=0$, because if $j=1$ then the condition above is interpreted to mean that $v_1 in span()$.



I tried to follow the example in the proof:



Because the list $v_1,...,v_m$ is linearly dependent, there exist numbers $a_1,...,a_m in mathbb{F}$ , not all $0$ such that $$a_1v_1+...+a_mv_m = 0$$



Let $j$ be the first element of {1,...,m}, such that $a_j neq 0$. Then
$$a_1v_1 = -a_2v_2 -...-a_jv_j$$
$$v_1 = frac{-a_2}{a_1}v_2-...-frac{a_j}{a_1}v_j$$



Then does it mean $v_1$ is the span of $v_2,....v_j$?










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    0












    $begingroup$


    In Linear Algebra Done Right, it presents the Linear Dependence Lemma which states that :



    Suppose $v_1,...,v_m$ is a linearly dependent list in $V$. Then there exists $j in {1,2,...,m}$ such that the following hold: $v_j in span(v_1,...,v_{j-1})$. I follow the proof, but get confused on a special case where $j=1$. The book said choosing $j=1$ means that $v_1=0$, because if $j=1$ then the condition above is interpreted to mean that $v_1 in span()$.



    I tried to follow the example in the proof:



    Because the list $v_1,...,v_m$ is linearly dependent, there exist numbers $a_1,...,a_m in mathbb{F}$ , not all $0$ such that $$a_1v_1+...+a_mv_m = 0$$



    Let $j$ be the first element of {1,...,m}, such that $a_j neq 0$. Then
    $$a_1v_1 = -a_2v_2 -...-a_jv_j$$
    $$v_1 = frac{-a_2}{a_1}v_2-...-frac{a_j}{a_1}v_j$$



    Then does it mean $v_1$ is the span of $v_2,....v_j$?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      In Linear Algebra Done Right, it presents the Linear Dependence Lemma which states that :



      Suppose $v_1,...,v_m$ is a linearly dependent list in $V$. Then there exists $j in {1,2,...,m}$ such that the following hold: $v_j in span(v_1,...,v_{j-1})$. I follow the proof, but get confused on a special case where $j=1$. The book said choosing $j=1$ means that $v_1=0$, because if $j=1$ then the condition above is interpreted to mean that $v_1 in span()$.



      I tried to follow the example in the proof:



      Because the list $v_1,...,v_m$ is linearly dependent, there exist numbers $a_1,...,a_m in mathbb{F}$ , not all $0$ such that $$a_1v_1+...+a_mv_m = 0$$



      Let $j$ be the first element of {1,...,m}, such that $a_j neq 0$. Then
      $$a_1v_1 = -a_2v_2 -...-a_jv_j$$
      $$v_1 = frac{-a_2}{a_1}v_2-...-frac{a_j}{a_1}v_j$$



      Then does it mean $v_1$ is the span of $v_2,....v_j$?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      In Linear Algebra Done Right, it presents the Linear Dependence Lemma which states that :



      Suppose $v_1,...,v_m$ is a linearly dependent list in $V$. Then there exists $j in {1,2,...,m}$ such that the following hold: $v_j in span(v_1,...,v_{j-1})$. I follow the proof, but get confused on a special case where $j=1$. The book said choosing $j=1$ means that $v_1=0$, because if $j=1$ then the condition above is interpreted to mean that $v_1 in span()$.



      I tried to follow the example in the proof:



      Because the list $v_1,...,v_m$ is linearly dependent, there exist numbers $a_1,...,a_m in mathbb{F}$ , not all $0$ such that $$a_1v_1+...+a_mv_m = 0$$



      Let $j$ be the first element of {1,...,m}, such that $a_j neq 0$. Then
      $$a_1v_1 = -a_2v_2 -...-a_jv_j$$
      $$v_1 = frac{-a_2}{a_1}v_2-...-frac{a_j}{a_1}v_j$$



      Then does it mean $v_1$ is the span of $v_2,....v_j$?







      linear-algebra






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      asked Dec 30 '18 at 22:38









      JOHN JOHN

      4589




      4589






















          2 Answers
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          $begingroup$

          You've a mistake in the line after "Let $;j;$ be the first ..." . It must be;



          $$a_jv_j=-a_1v_1-ldots-a_{j-1}v_{j-1}implies v_j=-frac{a_1}{a_j}v_1-ldots-frac{a_{j-1}}{a_j}v_{j-1}$$



          and thus



          $$v_jintext{Span},{v_1,...,v_{j-1}}$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$





















            0












            $begingroup$

            I have misunderstood the proof. It should be :



            Let $j$ be the largest element of {1,...,m} such that $a_j neq 0$. It means that $a_{j+1} = 0, a_{j+2} = 0$, and so on.



            Therefore, $v_j in span(v1,...,v_{j-1})$ actually means if the list is linearly independent, one of the vectors is in the span of the PREVIOUS ones.



            So, in the case of $j=1$, $v_1 in span()$



            More reference here






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$














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              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

              votes








              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes









              3












              $begingroup$

              You've a mistake in the line after "Let $;j;$ be the first ..." . It must be;



              $$a_jv_j=-a_1v_1-ldots-a_{j-1}v_{j-1}implies v_j=-frac{a_1}{a_j}v_1-ldots-frac{a_{j-1}}{a_j}v_{j-1}$$



              and thus



              $$v_jintext{Span},{v_1,...,v_{j-1}}$$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                3












                $begingroup$

                You've a mistake in the line after "Let $;j;$ be the first ..." . It must be;



                $$a_jv_j=-a_1v_1-ldots-a_{j-1}v_{j-1}implies v_j=-frac{a_1}{a_j}v_1-ldots-frac{a_{j-1}}{a_j}v_{j-1}$$



                and thus



                $$v_jintext{Span},{v_1,...,v_{j-1}}$$






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  3












                  3








                  3





                  $begingroup$

                  You've a mistake in the line after "Let $;j;$ be the first ..." . It must be;



                  $$a_jv_j=-a_1v_1-ldots-a_{j-1}v_{j-1}implies v_j=-frac{a_1}{a_j}v_1-ldots-frac{a_{j-1}}{a_j}v_{j-1}$$



                  and thus



                  $$v_jintext{Span},{v_1,...,v_{j-1}}$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  You've a mistake in the line after "Let $;j;$ be the first ..." . It must be;



                  $$a_jv_j=-a_1v_1-ldots-a_{j-1}v_{j-1}implies v_j=-frac{a_1}{a_j}v_1-ldots-frac{a_{j-1}}{a_j}v_{j-1}$$



                  and thus



                  $$v_jintext{Span},{v_1,...,v_{j-1}}$$







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Dec 30 '18 at 22:46









                  DonAntonioDonAntonio

                  180k1495233




                  180k1495233























                      0












                      $begingroup$

                      I have misunderstood the proof. It should be :



                      Let $j$ be the largest element of {1,...,m} such that $a_j neq 0$. It means that $a_{j+1} = 0, a_{j+2} = 0$, and so on.



                      Therefore, $v_j in span(v1,...,v_{j-1})$ actually means if the list is linearly independent, one of the vectors is in the span of the PREVIOUS ones.



                      So, in the case of $j=1$, $v_1 in span()$



                      More reference here






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$


















                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        I have misunderstood the proof. It should be :



                        Let $j$ be the largest element of {1,...,m} such that $a_j neq 0$. It means that $a_{j+1} = 0, a_{j+2} = 0$, and so on.



                        Therefore, $v_j in span(v1,...,v_{j-1})$ actually means if the list is linearly independent, one of the vectors is in the span of the PREVIOUS ones.



                        So, in the case of $j=1$, $v_1 in span()$



                        More reference here






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$
















                          0












                          0








                          0





                          $begingroup$

                          I have misunderstood the proof. It should be :



                          Let $j$ be the largest element of {1,...,m} such that $a_j neq 0$. It means that $a_{j+1} = 0, a_{j+2} = 0$, and so on.



                          Therefore, $v_j in span(v1,...,v_{j-1})$ actually means if the list is linearly independent, one of the vectors is in the span of the PREVIOUS ones.



                          So, in the case of $j=1$, $v_1 in span()$



                          More reference here






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          I have misunderstood the proof. It should be :



                          Let $j$ be the largest element of {1,...,m} such that $a_j neq 0$. It means that $a_{j+1} = 0, a_{j+2} = 0$, and so on.



                          Therefore, $v_j in span(v1,...,v_{j-1})$ actually means if the list is linearly independent, one of the vectors is in the span of the PREVIOUS ones.



                          So, in the case of $j=1$, $v_1 in span()$



                          More reference here







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Dec 30 '18 at 23:02









                          JOHN JOHN

                          4589




                          4589






























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