Nerve Theorem: Is the finite union of closed convex sets triangulable?











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My Question: Let $A_1, ldots, A_k subseteq mathbb{R}^n$ be closed convex sets.
Is the union $bigcup_{i=1}^k A_i$ triangulable$^1$? If so, why?



Background:
I'm trying to better understand the Nerve Theorem from Topology. In his Book Computational Topology (p.71) Edelsbrunner presents the following Nerve theorem without giving a proof:




Let F be a finite collection of closed, convex sets in Euclidean Space. Then the nerve$^2$ of $F$ is homotopy equivalent to $bigcup F$.




He also mentions the following classical nerve theorem, which one can find in Topological methods (p.1850), and which is supposed to be more general:




Let $X$ be a triangulable space and let
$mathcal{A} = {A_1, ldots, A_k}$ be a finite closed cover$^3$ of $X$ such that
every non-empty intersection of the ${A_i}'s$ is contractible. Then the nerve of $mathcal{A}$ is homotopy equivalent to $X$.




So does the former follow from the later?



$^1$ A space is called triangulable if it is homeomorphic to some simplicial complex.



$^2$ The nerve of a collection $F$ of sets is the abstract simplicial complex ${Y subseteq F : bigcap Y neq emptyset}$.



$^3$ A closed cover is a covering by closed subset of a topological space.










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  • The definition of the nerve of F would make this question more self-contained.
    – coffeemath
    Jun 6 '14 at 5:31






  • 1




    Thanks for suggesting this. I added the definition.
    – kleenstar
    Jun 6 '14 at 5:36















up vote
13
down vote

favorite
3












My Question: Let $A_1, ldots, A_k subseteq mathbb{R}^n$ be closed convex sets.
Is the union $bigcup_{i=1}^k A_i$ triangulable$^1$? If so, why?



Background:
I'm trying to better understand the Nerve Theorem from Topology. In his Book Computational Topology (p.71) Edelsbrunner presents the following Nerve theorem without giving a proof:




Let F be a finite collection of closed, convex sets in Euclidean Space. Then the nerve$^2$ of $F$ is homotopy equivalent to $bigcup F$.




He also mentions the following classical nerve theorem, which one can find in Topological methods (p.1850), and which is supposed to be more general:




Let $X$ be a triangulable space and let
$mathcal{A} = {A_1, ldots, A_k}$ be a finite closed cover$^3$ of $X$ such that
every non-empty intersection of the ${A_i}'s$ is contractible. Then the nerve of $mathcal{A}$ is homotopy equivalent to $X$.




So does the former follow from the later?



$^1$ A space is called triangulable if it is homeomorphic to some simplicial complex.



$^2$ The nerve of a collection $F$ of sets is the abstract simplicial complex ${Y subseteq F : bigcap Y neq emptyset}$.



$^3$ A closed cover is a covering by closed subset of a topological space.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • The definition of the nerve of F would make this question more self-contained.
    – coffeemath
    Jun 6 '14 at 5:31






  • 1




    Thanks for suggesting this. I added the definition.
    – kleenstar
    Jun 6 '14 at 5:36













up vote
13
down vote

favorite
3









up vote
13
down vote

favorite
3






3





My Question: Let $A_1, ldots, A_k subseteq mathbb{R}^n$ be closed convex sets.
Is the union $bigcup_{i=1}^k A_i$ triangulable$^1$? If so, why?



Background:
I'm trying to better understand the Nerve Theorem from Topology. In his Book Computational Topology (p.71) Edelsbrunner presents the following Nerve theorem without giving a proof:




Let F be a finite collection of closed, convex sets in Euclidean Space. Then the nerve$^2$ of $F$ is homotopy equivalent to $bigcup F$.




He also mentions the following classical nerve theorem, which one can find in Topological methods (p.1850), and which is supposed to be more general:




Let $X$ be a triangulable space and let
$mathcal{A} = {A_1, ldots, A_k}$ be a finite closed cover$^3$ of $X$ such that
every non-empty intersection of the ${A_i}'s$ is contractible. Then the nerve of $mathcal{A}$ is homotopy equivalent to $X$.




So does the former follow from the later?



$^1$ A space is called triangulable if it is homeomorphic to some simplicial complex.



$^2$ The nerve of a collection $F$ of sets is the abstract simplicial complex ${Y subseteq F : bigcap Y neq emptyset}$.



$^3$ A closed cover is a covering by closed subset of a topological space.










share|cite|improve this question















My Question: Let $A_1, ldots, A_k subseteq mathbb{R}^n$ be closed convex sets.
Is the union $bigcup_{i=1}^k A_i$ triangulable$^1$? If so, why?



Background:
I'm trying to better understand the Nerve Theorem from Topology. In his Book Computational Topology (p.71) Edelsbrunner presents the following Nerve theorem without giving a proof:




Let F be a finite collection of closed, convex sets in Euclidean Space. Then the nerve$^2$ of $F$ is homotopy equivalent to $bigcup F$.




He also mentions the following classical nerve theorem, which one can find in Topological methods (p.1850), and which is supposed to be more general:




Let $X$ be a triangulable space and let
$mathcal{A} = {A_1, ldots, A_k}$ be a finite closed cover$^3$ of $X$ such that
every non-empty intersection of the ${A_i}'s$ is contractible. Then the nerve of $mathcal{A}$ is homotopy equivalent to $X$.




So does the former follow from the later?



$^1$ A space is called triangulable if it is homeomorphic to some simplicial complex.



$^2$ The nerve of a collection $F$ of sets is the abstract simplicial complex ${Y subseteq F : bigcap Y neq emptyset}$.



$^3$ A closed cover is a covering by closed subset of a topological space.







general-topology convex-analysis computational-mathematics






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edited Jun 24 '14 at 10:38

























asked Jun 6 '14 at 5:27









kleenstar

966




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  • The definition of the nerve of F would make this question more self-contained.
    – coffeemath
    Jun 6 '14 at 5:31






  • 1




    Thanks for suggesting this. I added the definition.
    – kleenstar
    Jun 6 '14 at 5:36


















  • The definition of the nerve of F would make this question more self-contained.
    – coffeemath
    Jun 6 '14 at 5:31






  • 1




    Thanks for suggesting this. I added the definition.
    – kleenstar
    Jun 6 '14 at 5:36
















The definition of the nerve of F would make this question more self-contained.
– coffeemath
Jun 6 '14 at 5:31




The definition of the nerve of F would make this question more self-contained.
– coffeemath
Jun 6 '14 at 5:31




1




1




Thanks for suggesting this. I added the definition.
– kleenstar
Jun 6 '14 at 5:36




Thanks for suggesting this. I added the definition.
– kleenstar
Jun 6 '14 at 5:36










1 Answer
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0
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It seems like this is a few years too late, but yes, the former follows for the latter. To see this, we need the following two things:




  • convex sets are contractible

  • an intersection of convex sets is convex.


From here, the former statement follows from the latter, since a collection of closed convex sets in Euclidean space is a closed cover of their union such that each non-empty intersection of the sets is contractible.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • The question isn't about the cover or the contractibility conditions, but rather the part "let $X$ be a triangulable space". I shouldn't have voted "Looks OK".
    – epimorphic
    May 19 '17 at 1:41












  • Oh, wow. I completely misread the question. I was wondering why it was still unanswered.
    – Caitlin
    Jun 6 '17 at 16:15










  • I believe the answer is yes. First you need to show that a single closed convex set can be triangulated with simplices that are straight with respect to the standard metric on $mathbb R^n$. Once you have this, you can triangulate a union by separately triangulating the pieces. Since both triangulations are straight, you can find a common subdivision.
    – Cheerful Parsnip
    Mar 18 at 6:15











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up vote
0
down vote













It seems like this is a few years too late, but yes, the former follows for the latter. To see this, we need the following two things:




  • convex sets are contractible

  • an intersection of convex sets is convex.


From here, the former statement follows from the latter, since a collection of closed convex sets in Euclidean space is a closed cover of their union such that each non-empty intersection of the sets is contractible.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • The question isn't about the cover or the contractibility conditions, but rather the part "let $X$ be a triangulable space". I shouldn't have voted "Looks OK".
    – epimorphic
    May 19 '17 at 1:41












  • Oh, wow. I completely misread the question. I was wondering why it was still unanswered.
    – Caitlin
    Jun 6 '17 at 16:15










  • I believe the answer is yes. First you need to show that a single closed convex set can be triangulated with simplices that are straight with respect to the standard metric on $mathbb R^n$. Once you have this, you can triangulate a union by separately triangulating the pieces. Since both triangulations are straight, you can find a common subdivision.
    – Cheerful Parsnip
    Mar 18 at 6:15















up vote
0
down vote













It seems like this is a few years too late, but yes, the former follows for the latter. To see this, we need the following two things:




  • convex sets are contractible

  • an intersection of convex sets is convex.


From here, the former statement follows from the latter, since a collection of closed convex sets in Euclidean space is a closed cover of their union such that each non-empty intersection of the sets is contractible.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • The question isn't about the cover or the contractibility conditions, but rather the part "let $X$ be a triangulable space". I shouldn't have voted "Looks OK".
    – epimorphic
    May 19 '17 at 1:41












  • Oh, wow. I completely misread the question. I was wondering why it was still unanswered.
    – Caitlin
    Jun 6 '17 at 16:15










  • I believe the answer is yes. First you need to show that a single closed convex set can be triangulated with simplices that are straight with respect to the standard metric on $mathbb R^n$. Once you have this, you can triangulate a union by separately triangulating the pieces. Since both triangulations are straight, you can find a common subdivision.
    – Cheerful Parsnip
    Mar 18 at 6:15













up vote
0
down vote










up vote
0
down vote









It seems like this is a few years too late, but yes, the former follows for the latter. To see this, we need the following two things:




  • convex sets are contractible

  • an intersection of convex sets is convex.


From here, the former statement follows from the latter, since a collection of closed convex sets in Euclidean space is a closed cover of their union such that each non-empty intersection of the sets is contractible.






share|cite|improve this answer












It seems like this is a few years too late, but yes, the former follows for the latter. To see this, we need the following two things:




  • convex sets are contractible

  • an intersection of convex sets is convex.


From here, the former statement follows from the latter, since a collection of closed convex sets in Euclidean space is a closed cover of their union such that each non-empty intersection of the sets is contractible.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered May 18 '17 at 23:02









Caitlin

11




11












  • The question isn't about the cover or the contractibility conditions, but rather the part "let $X$ be a triangulable space". I shouldn't have voted "Looks OK".
    – epimorphic
    May 19 '17 at 1:41












  • Oh, wow. I completely misread the question. I was wondering why it was still unanswered.
    – Caitlin
    Jun 6 '17 at 16:15










  • I believe the answer is yes. First you need to show that a single closed convex set can be triangulated with simplices that are straight with respect to the standard metric on $mathbb R^n$. Once you have this, you can triangulate a union by separately triangulating the pieces. Since both triangulations are straight, you can find a common subdivision.
    – Cheerful Parsnip
    Mar 18 at 6:15


















  • The question isn't about the cover or the contractibility conditions, but rather the part "let $X$ be a triangulable space". I shouldn't have voted "Looks OK".
    – epimorphic
    May 19 '17 at 1:41












  • Oh, wow. I completely misread the question. I was wondering why it was still unanswered.
    – Caitlin
    Jun 6 '17 at 16:15










  • I believe the answer is yes. First you need to show that a single closed convex set can be triangulated with simplices that are straight with respect to the standard metric on $mathbb R^n$. Once you have this, you can triangulate a union by separately triangulating the pieces. Since both triangulations are straight, you can find a common subdivision.
    – Cheerful Parsnip
    Mar 18 at 6:15
















The question isn't about the cover or the contractibility conditions, but rather the part "let $X$ be a triangulable space". I shouldn't have voted "Looks OK".
– epimorphic
May 19 '17 at 1:41






The question isn't about the cover or the contractibility conditions, but rather the part "let $X$ be a triangulable space". I shouldn't have voted "Looks OK".
– epimorphic
May 19 '17 at 1:41














Oh, wow. I completely misread the question. I was wondering why it was still unanswered.
– Caitlin
Jun 6 '17 at 16:15




Oh, wow. I completely misread the question. I was wondering why it was still unanswered.
– Caitlin
Jun 6 '17 at 16:15












I believe the answer is yes. First you need to show that a single closed convex set can be triangulated with simplices that are straight with respect to the standard metric on $mathbb R^n$. Once you have this, you can triangulate a union by separately triangulating the pieces. Since both triangulations are straight, you can find a common subdivision.
– Cheerful Parsnip
Mar 18 at 6:15




I believe the answer is yes. First you need to show that a single closed convex set can be triangulated with simplices that are straight with respect to the standard metric on $mathbb R^n$. Once you have this, you can triangulate a union by separately triangulating the pieces. Since both triangulations are straight, you can find a common subdivision.
– Cheerful Parsnip
Mar 18 at 6:15


















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