Problems proving $e^{n+1} gt (1+n)^2$ [closed]
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I'm trying to prove by induction, but I'm getting stuck in the middle.
I'd use some help.
calculus
closed as off-topic by amWhy, José Carlos Santos, Cesareo, Chinnapparaj R, user302797 Nov 23 at 3:09
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – amWhy, José Carlos Santos, Cesareo, Chinnapparaj R, user302797
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I'm trying to prove by induction, but I'm getting stuck in the middle.
I'd use some help.
calculus
closed as off-topic by amWhy, José Carlos Santos, Cesareo, Chinnapparaj R, user302797 Nov 23 at 3:09
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – amWhy, José Carlos Santos, Cesareo, Chinnapparaj R, user302797
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.
1
Take $n=4$. Then $e^{n+1}approx148.4$, whereas $(1+n)^n=5^4=625$. So, you will never be able to prove that.
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 22 at 12:31
@JoséCarlosSantos My mistake, it should be $(1+n)^2$
– Bartosz
Nov 22 at 12:33
Where did you get stuck?
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 22 at 12:36
I end up with $e^{k+2} = e cdot e^{k+1} > e * (1+k)^2 > ... $
– Bartosz
Nov 22 at 12:42
It is enough to show that $f(x)=(x+1)^2 e^{-x}>0$ is bounded by $e$ on $mathbb{R}^+$. On the other hand $f'(x)$ only vanishes at $x=pm 1$, hence $f(x)leq f(1) = frac{4}{e} < e$.
– Jack D'Aurizio
Nov 22 at 21:02
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up vote
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down vote
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I'm trying to prove by induction, but I'm getting stuck in the middle.
I'd use some help.
calculus
I'm trying to prove by induction, but I'm getting stuck in the middle.
I'd use some help.
calculus
calculus
asked Nov 22 at 12:29
Bartosz
315
315
closed as off-topic by amWhy, José Carlos Santos, Cesareo, Chinnapparaj R, user302797 Nov 23 at 3:09
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – amWhy, José Carlos Santos, Cesareo, Chinnapparaj R, user302797
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.
closed as off-topic by amWhy, José Carlos Santos, Cesareo, Chinnapparaj R, user302797 Nov 23 at 3:09
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – amWhy, José Carlos Santos, Cesareo, Chinnapparaj R, user302797
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.
1
Take $n=4$. Then $e^{n+1}approx148.4$, whereas $(1+n)^n=5^4=625$. So, you will never be able to prove that.
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 22 at 12:31
@JoséCarlosSantos My mistake, it should be $(1+n)^2$
– Bartosz
Nov 22 at 12:33
Where did you get stuck?
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 22 at 12:36
I end up with $e^{k+2} = e cdot e^{k+1} > e * (1+k)^2 > ... $
– Bartosz
Nov 22 at 12:42
It is enough to show that $f(x)=(x+1)^2 e^{-x}>0$ is bounded by $e$ on $mathbb{R}^+$. On the other hand $f'(x)$ only vanishes at $x=pm 1$, hence $f(x)leq f(1) = frac{4}{e} < e$.
– Jack D'Aurizio
Nov 22 at 21:02
add a comment |
1
Take $n=4$. Then $e^{n+1}approx148.4$, whereas $(1+n)^n=5^4=625$. So, you will never be able to prove that.
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 22 at 12:31
@JoséCarlosSantos My mistake, it should be $(1+n)^2$
– Bartosz
Nov 22 at 12:33
Where did you get stuck?
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 22 at 12:36
I end up with $e^{k+2} = e cdot e^{k+1} > e * (1+k)^2 > ... $
– Bartosz
Nov 22 at 12:42
It is enough to show that $f(x)=(x+1)^2 e^{-x}>0$ is bounded by $e$ on $mathbb{R}^+$. On the other hand $f'(x)$ only vanishes at $x=pm 1$, hence $f(x)leq f(1) = frac{4}{e} < e$.
– Jack D'Aurizio
Nov 22 at 21:02
1
1
Take $n=4$. Then $e^{n+1}approx148.4$, whereas $(1+n)^n=5^4=625$. So, you will never be able to prove that.
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 22 at 12:31
Take $n=4$. Then $e^{n+1}approx148.4$, whereas $(1+n)^n=5^4=625$. So, you will never be able to prove that.
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 22 at 12:31
@JoséCarlosSantos My mistake, it should be $(1+n)^2$
– Bartosz
Nov 22 at 12:33
@JoséCarlosSantos My mistake, it should be $(1+n)^2$
– Bartosz
Nov 22 at 12:33
Where did you get stuck?
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 22 at 12:36
Where did you get stuck?
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 22 at 12:36
I end up with $e^{k+2} = e cdot e^{k+1} > e * (1+k)^2 > ... $
– Bartosz
Nov 22 at 12:42
I end up with $e^{k+2} = e cdot e^{k+1} > e * (1+k)^2 > ... $
– Bartosz
Nov 22 at 12:42
It is enough to show that $f(x)=(x+1)^2 e^{-x}>0$ is bounded by $e$ on $mathbb{R}^+$. On the other hand $f'(x)$ only vanishes at $x=pm 1$, hence $f(x)leq f(1) = frac{4}{e} < e$.
– Jack D'Aurizio
Nov 22 at 21:02
It is enough to show that $f(x)=(x+1)^2 e^{-x}>0$ is bounded by $e$ on $mathbb{R}^+$. On the other hand $f'(x)$ only vanishes at $x=pm 1$, hence $f(x)leq f(1) = frac{4}{e} < e$.
– Jack D'Aurizio
Nov 22 at 21:02
add a comment |
3 Answers
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down vote
Let consider
$$e^n>n^2$$
and we have
base case: $n=1$
induction step
$$e^{n+1}=ecdot e^n>ecdot n^2stackrel{?}>(n+1)^2$$
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1
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You can use the Taylor expansion of $e^{n+1}$.
begin{align}
e^{n+1}&=sum_{k=0}^inftyfrac{(n+1)^k}{k!}=1+1+n+frac{(n+1)^2}{2!}
+frac{(n+1)^3}{3!}+O((n+1)^4)\
&=1+n+1+frac{(n+1)^2}{2}+n^2/2+...=2+n+n^2+n+1/2+...\
&=n^2+2n+1+3/2+...>(n+1)^2
end{align}
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$n=1$ is ok.
Our assumption: $e^n>n^2$.
For $n>2ln(n)$ we must show that $n+1>2ln(n+1)$. $(n>1)$
$$n+1>2ln(n)+1 stackrel{?}>2ln(n+1)$$
$$1stackrel{?}>2ln(1+frac{1}{n})$$
$$e>(1+frac{1}{n})^2 text{Because maximum of } (1+frac{1}{n})^2=2.25 text{Big idea is there} n>1 . $$
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
Let consider
$$e^n>n^2$$
and we have
base case: $n=1$
induction step
$$e^{n+1}=ecdot e^n>ecdot n^2stackrel{?}>(n+1)^2$$
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
Let consider
$$e^n>n^2$$
and we have
base case: $n=1$
induction step
$$e^{n+1}=ecdot e^n>ecdot n^2stackrel{?}>(n+1)^2$$
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
up vote
3
down vote
Let consider
$$e^n>n^2$$
and we have
base case: $n=1$
induction step
$$e^{n+1}=ecdot e^n>ecdot n^2stackrel{?}>(n+1)^2$$
Let consider
$$e^n>n^2$$
and we have
base case: $n=1$
induction step
$$e^{n+1}=ecdot e^n>ecdot n^2stackrel{?}>(n+1)^2$$
answered Nov 22 at 12:37
gimusi
91.4k74495
91.4k74495
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up vote
1
down vote
You can use the Taylor expansion of $e^{n+1}$.
begin{align}
e^{n+1}&=sum_{k=0}^inftyfrac{(n+1)^k}{k!}=1+1+n+frac{(n+1)^2}{2!}
+frac{(n+1)^3}{3!}+O((n+1)^4)\
&=1+n+1+frac{(n+1)^2}{2}+n^2/2+...=2+n+n^2+n+1/2+...\
&=n^2+2n+1+3/2+...>(n+1)^2
end{align}
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
You can use the Taylor expansion of $e^{n+1}$.
begin{align}
e^{n+1}&=sum_{k=0}^inftyfrac{(n+1)^k}{k!}=1+1+n+frac{(n+1)^2}{2!}
+frac{(n+1)^3}{3!}+O((n+1)^4)\
&=1+n+1+frac{(n+1)^2}{2}+n^2/2+...=2+n+n^2+n+1/2+...\
&=n^2+2n+1+3/2+...>(n+1)^2
end{align}
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
You can use the Taylor expansion of $e^{n+1}$.
begin{align}
e^{n+1}&=sum_{k=0}^inftyfrac{(n+1)^k}{k!}=1+1+n+frac{(n+1)^2}{2!}
+frac{(n+1)^3}{3!}+O((n+1)^4)\
&=1+n+1+frac{(n+1)^2}{2}+n^2/2+...=2+n+n^2+n+1/2+...\
&=n^2+2n+1+3/2+...>(n+1)^2
end{align}
You can use the Taylor expansion of $e^{n+1}$.
begin{align}
e^{n+1}&=sum_{k=0}^inftyfrac{(n+1)^k}{k!}=1+1+n+frac{(n+1)^2}{2!}
+frac{(n+1)^3}{3!}+O((n+1)^4)\
&=1+n+1+frac{(n+1)^2}{2}+n^2/2+...=2+n+n^2+n+1/2+...\
&=n^2+2n+1+3/2+...>(n+1)^2
end{align}
edited Nov 22 at 13:24
answered Nov 22 at 12:39
minmax
48518
48518
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up vote
0
down vote
$n=1$ is ok.
Our assumption: $e^n>n^2$.
For $n>2ln(n)$ we must show that $n+1>2ln(n+1)$. $(n>1)$
$$n+1>2ln(n)+1 stackrel{?}>2ln(n+1)$$
$$1stackrel{?}>2ln(1+frac{1}{n})$$
$$e>(1+frac{1}{n})^2 text{Because maximum of } (1+frac{1}{n})^2=2.25 text{Big idea is there} n>1 . $$
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
$n=1$ is ok.
Our assumption: $e^n>n^2$.
For $n>2ln(n)$ we must show that $n+1>2ln(n+1)$. $(n>1)$
$$n+1>2ln(n)+1 stackrel{?}>2ln(n+1)$$
$$1stackrel{?}>2ln(1+frac{1}{n})$$
$$e>(1+frac{1}{n})^2 text{Because maximum of } (1+frac{1}{n})^2=2.25 text{Big idea is there} n>1 . $$
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
$n=1$ is ok.
Our assumption: $e^n>n^2$.
For $n>2ln(n)$ we must show that $n+1>2ln(n+1)$. $(n>1)$
$$n+1>2ln(n)+1 stackrel{?}>2ln(n+1)$$
$$1stackrel{?}>2ln(1+frac{1}{n})$$
$$e>(1+frac{1}{n})^2 text{Because maximum of } (1+frac{1}{n})^2=2.25 text{Big idea is there} n>1 . $$
$n=1$ is ok.
Our assumption: $e^n>n^2$.
For $n>2ln(n)$ we must show that $n+1>2ln(n+1)$. $(n>1)$
$$n+1>2ln(n)+1 stackrel{?}>2ln(n+1)$$
$$1stackrel{?}>2ln(1+frac{1}{n})$$
$$e>(1+frac{1}{n})^2 text{Because maximum of } (1+frac{1}{n})^2=2.25 text{Big idea is there} n>1 . $$
answered Nov 22 at 13:09
1ENİGMA1
960316
960316
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1
Take $n=4$. Then $e^{n+1}approx148.4$, whereas $(1+n)^n=5^4=625$. So, you will never be able to prove that.
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 22 at 12:31
@JoséCarlosSantos My mistake, it should be $(1+n)^2$
– Bartosz
Nov 22 at 12:33
Where did you get stuck?
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 22 at 12:36
I end up with $e^{k+2} = e cdot e^{k+1} > e * (1+k)^2 > ... $
– Bartosz
Nov 22 at 12:42
It is enough to show that $f(x)=(x+1)^2 e^{-x}>0$ is bounded by $e$ on $mathbb{R}^+$. On the other hand $f'(x)$ only vanishes at $x=pm 1$, hence $f(x)leq f(1) = frac{4}{e} < e$.
– Jack D'Aurizio
Nov 22 at 21:02