Are the two definitions of that a map $F:Ato N$ is smooth on $A$ equivalent?












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enter image description here



In the above pictures, we can see two definitions of that a map $F:Ato N$ is smooth on $A$, are they equivalent?










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  • $begingroup$
    @JackLee Please take a look at my question.
    $endgroup$
    – Born to be proud
    Dec 11 '18 at 13:35










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    They're not always equivalent in case $N$ has nonempty boundary. Here's a counterexample: Let $M=mathbb R$, $N = [0,infty)$, $A = [0,infty)subseteq M$, and let $Fcolon Ato N$ be the identity map. Then $F$ is not smooth by the definition in the text, because there is no neighborhood of $0$ in $mathbb R$ on which $F$ has a smooth extension as a map into $N$. But the coordinate representation of $F$ using standard coordinates in domain and codomain (which is essentially the same map) has an extension to an open subset of $mathbb R$ as a map into $mathbb R$.
    $endgroup$
    – Jack Lee
    Dec 11 '18 at 23:15










  • $begingroup$
    See also this question.
    $endgroup$
    – Jack Lee
    Dec 11 '18 at 23:17










  • $begingroup$
    @JackLee Thank you very much!
    $endgroup$
    – Born to be proud
    Dec 11 '18 at 23:54
















0












$begingroup$


enter image description here



enter image description here



In the above pictures, we can see two definitions of that a map $F:Ato N$ is smooth on $A$, are they equivalent?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    @JackLee Please take a look at my question.
    $endgroup$
    – Born to be proud
    Dec 11 '18 at 13:35










  • $begingroup$
    They're not always equivalent in case $N$ has nonempty boundary. Here's a counterexample: Let $M=mathbb R$, $N = [0,infty)$, $A = [0,infty)subseteq M$, and let $Fcolon Ato N$ be the identity map. Then $F$ is not smooth by the definition in the text, because there is no neighborhood of $0$ in $mathbb R$ on which $F$ has a smooth extension as a map into $N$. But the coordinate representation of $F$ using standard coordinates in domain and codomain (which is essentially the same map) has an extension to an open subset of $mathbb R$ as a map into $mathbb R$.
    $endgroup$
    – Jack Lee
    Dec 11 '18 at 23:15










  • $begingroup$
    See also this question.
    $endgroup$
    – Jack Lee
    Dec 11 '18 at 23:17










  • $begingroup$
    @JackLee Thank you very much!
    $endgroup$
    – Born to be proud
    Dec 11 '18 at 23:54














0












0








0





$begingroup$


enter image description here



enter image description here



In the above pictures, we can see two definitions of that a map $F:Ato N$ is smooth on $A$, are they equivalent?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




enter image description here



enter image description here



In the above pictures, we can see two definitions of that a map $F:Ato N$ is smooth on $A$, are they equivalent?







manifolds smooth-manifolds manifolds-with-boundary






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share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Dec 11 '18 at 11:56









Born to be proudBorn to be proud

848510




848510












  • $begingroup$
    @JackLee Please take a look at my question.
    $endgroup$
    – Born to be proud
    Dec 11 '18 at 13:35










  • $begingroup$
    They're not always equivalent in case $N$ has nonempty boundary. Here's a counterexample: Let $M=mathbb R$, $N = [0,infty)$, $A = [0,infty)subseteq M$, and let $Fcolon Ato N$ be the identity map. Then $F$ is not smooth by the definition in the text, because there is no neighborhood of $0$ in $mathbb R$ on which $F$ has a smooth extension as a map into $N$. But the coordinate representation of $F$ using standard coordinates in domain and codomain (which is essentially the same map) has an extension to an open subset of $mathbb R$ as a map into $mathbb R$.
    $endgroup$
    – Jack Lee
    Dec 11 '18 at 23:15










  • $begingroup$
    See also this question.
    $endgroup$
    – Jack Lee
    Dec 11 '18 at 23:17










  • $begingroup$
    @JackLee Thank you very much!
    $endgroup$
    – Born to be proud
    Dec 11 '18 at 23:54


















  • $begingroup$
    @JackLee Please take a look at my question.
    $endgroup$
    – Born to be proud
    Dec 11 '18 at 13:35










  • $begingroup$
    They're not always equivalent in case $N$ has nonempty boundary. Here's a counterexample: Let $M=mathbb R$, $N = [0,infty)$, $A = [0,infty)subseteq M$, and let $Fcolon Ato N$ be the identity map. Then $F$ is not smooth by the definition in the text, because there is no neighborhood of $0$ in $mathbb R$ on which $F$ has a smooth extension as a map into $N$. But the coordinate representation of $F$ using standard coordinates in domain and codomain (which is essentially the same map) has an extension to an open subset of $mathbb R$ as a map into $mathbb R$.
    $endgroup$
    – Jack Lee
    Dec 11 '18 at 23:15










  • $begingroup$
    See also this question.
    $endgroup$
    – Jack Lee
    Dec 11 '18 at 23:17










  • $begingroup$
    @JackLee Thank you very much!
    $endgroup$
    – Born to be proud
    Dec 11 '18 at 23:54
















$begingroup$
@JackLee Please take a look at my question.
$endgroup$
– Born to be proud
Dec 11 '18 at 13:35




$begingroup$
@JackLee Please take a look at my question.
$endgroup$
– Born to be proud
Dec 11 '18 at 13:35












$begingroup$
They're not always equivalent in case $N$ has nonempty boundary. Here's a counterexample: Let $M=mathbb R$, $N = [0,infty)$, $A = [0,infty)subseteq M$, and let $Fcolon Ato N$ be the identity map. Then $F$ is not smooth by the definition in the text, because there is no neighborhood of $0$ in $mathbb R$ on which $F$ has a smooth extension as a map into $N$. But the coordinate representation of $F$ using standard coordinates in domain and codomain (which is essentially the same map) has an extension to an open subset of $mathbb R$ as a map into $mathbb R$.
$endgroup$
– Jack Lee
Dec 11 '18 at 23:15




$begingroup$
They're not always equivalent in case $N$ has nonempty boundary. Here's a counterexample: Let $M=mathbb R$, $N = [0,infty)$, $A = [0,infty)subseteq M$, and let $Fcolon Ato N$ be the identity map. Then $F$ is not smooth by the definition in the text, because there is no neighborhood of $0$ in $mathbb R$ on which $F$ has a smooth extension as a map into $N$. But the coordinate representation of $F$ using standard coordinates in domain and codomain (which is essentially the same map) has an extension to an open subset of $mathbb R$ as a map into $mathbb R$.
$endgroup$
– Jack Lee
Dec 11 '18 at 23:15












$begingroup$
See also this question.
$endgroup$
– Jack Lee
Dec 11 '18 at 23:17




$begingroup$
See also this question.
$endgroup$
– Jack Lee
Dec 11 '18 at 23:17












$begingroup$
@JackLee Thank you very much!
$endgroup$
– Born to be proud
Dec 11 '18 at 23:54




$begingroup$
@JackLee Thank you very much!
$endgroup$
– Born to be proud
Dec 11 '18 at 23:54










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