How to calculate the following integrals? [closed]












1












$begingroup$


How the calculate the following integrals? Therein $D$ is a constant.



$$(1);;int_{0}^{2pi}frac{1}{1-Dcdotcostheta} dtheta$$



and



$$(2);;int_{0}^{2pi}frac{1}{1+Dcdotcostheta} dtheta$$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



closed as off-topic by Nosrati, RRL, user10354138, Paramanand Singh, Rebellos Dec 12 '18 at 9:34


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Nosrati, RRL, user10354138, Paramanand Singh, Rebellos

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.
















  • $begingroup$
    I suppose $dtheta$ is in the numerator?
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Dec 11 '18 at 11:17










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for your checking, $dtheta$ is not in the numerator, I re-edit the problem
    $endgroup$
    – JLiu
    Dec 11 '18 at 11:19






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    What is the difference between $(1)$ and $(2)$? Also have you tried to use this: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tangent_half-angle_substitution ? After splitting the interval from $0, pi$ to $pi , 2pi$ cause $tan frac{x}{2}$ is undefined there.
    $endgroup$
    – Zacky
    Dec 11 '18 at 11:20












  • $begingroup$
    Aren't those two integrals the very same one...?
    $endgroup$
    – DonAntonio
    Dec 11 '18 at 11:20










  • $begingroup$
    @ClaudeLeibovici Salut Claude, mon ami!
    $endgroup$
    – DonAntonio
    Dec 11 '18 at 11:24
















1












$begingroup$


How the calculate the following integrals? Therein $D$ is a constant.



$$(1);;int_{0}^{2pi}frac{1}{1-Dcdotcostheta} dtheta$$



and



$$(2);;int_{0}^{2pi}frac{1}{1+Dcdotcostheta} dtheta$$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



closed as off-topic by Nosrati, RRL, user10354138, Paramanand Singh, Rebellos Dec 12 '18 at 9:34


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Nosrati, RRL, user10354138, Paramanand Singh, Rebellos

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.
















  • $begingroup$
    I suppose $dtheta$ is in the numerator?
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Dec 11 '18 at 11:17










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for your checking, $dtheta$ is not in the numerator, I re-edit the problem
    $endgroup$
    – JLiu
    Dec 11 '18 at 11:19






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    What is the difference between $(1)$ and $(2)$? Also have you tried to use this: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tangent_half-angle_substitution ? After splitting the interval from $0, pi$ to $pi , 2pi$ cause $tan frac{x}{2}$ is undefined there.
    $endgroup$
    – Zacky
    Dec 11 '18 at 11:20












  • $begingroup$
    Aren't those two integrals the very same one...?
    $endgroup$
    – DonAntonio
    Dec 11 '18 at 11:20










  • $begingroup$
    @ClaudeLeibovici Salut Claude, mon ami!
    $endgroup$
    – DonAntonio
    Dec 11 '18 at 11:24














1












1








1





$begingroup$


How the calculate the following integrals? Therein $D$ is a constant.



$$(1);;int_{0}^{2pi}frac{1}{1-Dcdotcostheta} dtheta$$



and



$$(2);;int_{0}^{2pi}frac{1}{1+Dcdotcostheta} dtheta$$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




How the calculate the following integrals? Therein $D$ is a constant.



$$(1);;int_{0}^{2pi}frac{1}{1-Dcdotcostheta} dtheta$$



and



$$(2);;int_{0}^{2pi}frac{1}{1+Dcdotcostheta} dtheta$$







calculus integration






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 11 '18 at 11:21







JLiu

















asked Dec 11 '18 at 11:16









JLiuJLiu

396




396




closed as off-topic by Nosrati, RRL, user10354138, Paramanand Singh, Rebellos Dec 12 '18 at 9:34


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Nosrati, RRL, user10354138, Paramanand Singh, Rebellos

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.







closed as off-topic by Nosrati, RRL, user10354138, Paramanand Singh, Rebellos Dec 12 '18 at 9:34


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Nosrati, RRL, user10354138, Paramanand Singh, Rebellos

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.












  • $begingroup$
    I suppose $dtheta$ is in the numerator?
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Dec 11 '18 at 11:17










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for your checking, $dtheta$ is not in the numerator, I re-edit the problem
    $endgroup$
    – JLiu
    Dec 11 '18 at 11:19






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    What is the difference between $(1)$ and $(2)$? Also have you tried to use this: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tangent_half-angle_substitution ? After splitting the interval from $0, pi$ to $pi , 2pi$ cause $tan frac{x}{2}$ is undefined there.
    $endgroup$
    – Zacky
    Dec 11 '18 at 11:20












  • $begingroup$
    Aren't those two integrals the very same one...?
    $endgroup$
    – DonAntonio
    Dec 11 '18 at 11:20










  • $begingroup$
    @ClaudeLeibovici Salut Claude, mon ami!
    $endgroup$
    – DonAntonio
    Dec 11 '18 at 11:24


















  • $begingroup$
    I suppose $dtheta$ is in the numerator?
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Dec 11 '18 at 11:17










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for your checking, $dtheta$ is not in the numerator, I re-edit the problem
    $endgroup$
    – JLiu
    Dec 11 '18 at 11:19






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    What is the difference between $(1)$ and $(2)$? Also have you tried to use this: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tangent_half-angle_substitution ? After splitting the interval from $0, pi$ to $pi , 2pi$ cause $tan frac{x}{2}$ is undefined there.
    $endgroup$
    – Zacky
    Dec 11 '18 at 11:20












  • $begingroup$
    Aren't those two integrals the very same one...?
    $endgroup$
    – DonAntonio
    Dec 11 '18 at 11:20










  • $begingroup$
    @ClaudeLeibovici Salut Claude, mon ami!
    $endgroup$
    – DonAntonio
    Dec 11 '18 at 11:24
















$begingroup$
I suppose $dtheta$ is in the numerator?
$endgroup$
– Bernard
Dec 11 '18 at 11:17




$begingroup$
I suppose $dtheta$ is in the numerator?
$endgroup$
– Bernard
Dec 11 '18 at 11:17












$begingroup$
Thanks for your checking, $dtheta$ is not in the numerator, I re-edit the problem
$endgroup$
– JLiu
Dec 11 '18 at 11:19




$begingroup$
Thanks for your checking, $dtheta$ is not in the numerator, I re-edit the problem
$endgroup$
– JLiu
Dec 11 '18 at 11:19




1




1




$begingroup$
What is the difference between $(1)$ and $(2)$? Also have you tried to use this: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tangent_half-angle_substitution ? After splitting the interval from $0, pi$ to $pi , 2pi$ cause $tan frac{x}{2}$ is undefined there.
$endgroup$
– Zacky
Dec 11 '18 at 11:20






$begingroup$
What is the difference between $(1)$ and $(2)$? Also have you tried to use this: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tangent_half-angle_substitution ? After splitting the interval from $0, pi$ to $pi , 2pi$ cause $tan frac{x}{2}$ is undefined there.
$endgroup$
– Zacky
Dec 11 '18 at 11:20














$begingroup$
Aren't those two integrals the very same one...?
$endgroup$
– DonAntonio
Dec 11 '18 at 11:20




$begingroup$
Aren't those two integrals the very same one...?
$endgroup$
– DonAntonio
Dec 11 '18 at 11:20












$begingroup$
@ClaudeLeibovici Salut Claude, mon ami!
$endgroup$
– DonAntonio
Dec 11 '18 at 11:24




$begingroup$
@ClaudeLeibovici Salut Claude, mon ami!
$endgroup$
– DonAntonio
Dec 11 '18 at 11:24










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

$$I_2=int_0^{2pi}frac{dtheta}{1+Dcos(theta)}=int_0^{pi}frac{dtheta}{1+Dcos(theta)}+int_{pi}^{2pi}frac{dtheta}{1+Dcos(theta)}$$ Let $theta=tan(frac{x}{2})$
$$I_2=int_0^{infty}frac{1}{1+Dfrac{1-x^2}{1+x^2}}frac{2dx}{1+x^2}+int_{-infty}^0frac{1}{1+Dfrac{1-x^2}{1+x^2}}frac{2dx}{1+x^2}=2int_{-infty}^{infty}frac{dx}{1+x^2+D-Dx^2}=2int_{-infty}^infty frac{dx}{(1-D)x^2+(1+D)}=frac{2}{1-D}int_{-infty}^{infty}frac{dx}{x^2+frac{1+D}{1-D}}=frac{2pi}{sqrt{1-D^2}}$$ Hopefully all my computation is correct, the other integral can be done in the same way. Just use Weierstrass Substitution.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Many thanks for your contributions!
    $endgroup$
    – JLiu
    Dec 12 '18 at 2:17


















1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









2












$begingroup$

$$I_2=int_0^{2pi}frac{dtheta}{1+Dcos(theta)}=int_0^{pi}frac{dtheta}{1+Dcos(theta)}+int_{pi}^{2pi}frac{dtheta}{1+Dcos(theta)}$$ Let $theta=tan(frac{x}{2})$
$$I_2=int_0^{infty}frac{1}{1+Dfrac{1-x^2}{1+x^2}}frac{2dx}{1+x^2}+int_{-infty}^0frac{1}{1+Dfrac{1-x^2}{1+x^2}}frac{2dx}{1+x^2}=2int_{-infty}^{infty}frac{dx}{1+x^2+D-Dx^2}=2int_{-infty}^infty frac{dx}{(1-D)x^2+(1+D)}=frac{2}{1-D}int_{-infty}^{infty}frac{dx}{x^2+frac{1+D}{1-D}}=frac{2pi}{sqrt{1-D^2}}$$ Hopefully all my computation is correct, the other integral can be done in the same way. Just use Weierstrass Substitution.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Many thanks for your contributions!
    $endgroup$
    – JLiu
    Dec 12 '18 at 2:17
















2












$begingroup$

$$I_2=int_0^{2pi}frac{dtheta}{1+Dcos(theta)}=int_0^{pi}frac{dtheta}{1+Dcos(theta)}+int_{pi}^{2pi}frac{dtheta}{1+Dcos(theta)}$$ Let $theta=tan(frac{x}{2})$
$$I_2=int_0^{infty}frac{1}{1+Dfrac{1-x^2}{1+x^2}}frac{2dx}{1+x^2}+int_{-infty}^0frac{1}{1+Dfrac{1-x^2}{1+x^2}}frac{2dx}{1+x^2}=2int_{-infty}^{infty}frac{dx}{1+x^2+D-Dx^2}=2int_{-infty}^infty frac{dx}{(1-D)x^2+(1+D)}=frac{2}{1-D}int_{-infty}^{infty}frac{dx}{x^2+frac{1+D}{1-D}}=frac{2pi}{sqrt{1-D^2}}$$ Hopefully all my computation is correct, the other integral can be done in the same way. Just use Weierstrass Substitution.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Many thanks for your contributions!
    $endgroup$
    – JLiu
    Dec 12 '18 at 2:17














2












2








2





$begingroup$

$$I_2=int_0^{2pi}frac{dtheta}{1+Dcos(theta)}=int_0^{pi}frac{dtheta}{1+Dcos(theta)}+int_{pi}^{2pi}frac{dtheta}{1+Dcos(theta)}$$ Let $theta=tan(frac{x}{2})$
$$I_2=int_0^{infty}frac{1}{1+Dfrac{1-x^2}{1+x^2}}frac{2dx}{1+x^2}+int_{-infty}^0frac{1}{1+Dfrac{1-x^2}{1+x^2}}frac{2dx}{1+x^2}=2int_{-infty}^{infty}frac{dx}{1+x^2+D-Dx^2}=2int_{-infty}^infty frac{dx}{(1-D)x^2+(1+D)}=frac{2}{1-D}int_{-infty}^{infty}frac{dx}{x^2+frac{1+D}{1-D}}=frac{2pi}{sqrt{1-D^2}}$$ Hopefully all my computation is correct, the other integral can be done in the same way. Just use Weierstrass Substitution.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



$$I_2=int_0^{2pi}frac{dtheta}{1+Dcos(theta)}=int_0^{pi}frac{dtheta}{1+Dcos(theta)}+int_{pi}^{2pi}frac{dtheta}{1+Dcos(theta)}$$ Let $theta=tan(frac{x}{2})$
$$I_2=int_0^{infty}frac{1}{1+Dfrac{1-x^2}{1+x^2}}frac{2dx}{1+x^2}+int_{-infty}^0frac{1}{1+Dfrac{1-x^2}{1+x^2}}frac{2dx}{1+x^2}=2int_{-infty}^{infty}frac{dx}{1+x^2+D-Dx^2}=2int_{-infty}^infty frac{dx}{(1-D)x^2+(1+D)}=frac{2}{1-D}int_{-infty}^{infty}frac{dx}{x^2+frac{1+D}{1-D}}=frac{2pi}{sqrt{1-D^2}}$$ Hopefully all my computation is correct, the other integral can be done in the same way. Just use Weierstrass Substitution.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Dec 11 '18 at 15:37









aledenaleden

2,362511




2,362511












  • $begingroup$
    Many thanks for your contributions!
    $endgroup$
    – JLiu
    Dec 12 '18 at 2:17


















  • $begingroup$
    Many thanks for your contributions!
    $endgroup$
    – JLiu
    Dec 12 '18 at 2:17
















$begingroup$
Many thanks for your contributions!
$endgroup$
– JLiu
Dec 12 '18 at 2:17




$begingroup$
Many thanks for your contributions!
$endgroup$
– JLiu
Dec 12 '18 at 2:17



Popular posts from this blog

Bundesstraße 106

Ida-Boy-Ed-Garten

Le Mesnil-Réaume