When and how is the map $ zmapsto int |x|^{-z}phi(x) dx $ analytic?












0












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In Wolff's Lectures on Harmonic Analysis (see also the AMS published version here), the author claims without proofs in details the following:




for $phiinmathcal{S}(mathbb{R}^n)$, where $mathcal{S}$ denotes the Schwartz space, the map
$$
zmapsto int |x|^{-z}phi(x) dx
$$

is analytic in the "indicated regime", which may be done by using the dominated convergence theorem to justify complex differentiation under the integral sign.




I have the following questions:




  • The "indicated regime" is not indicated in Wolff's notes. Where should it be?

  • in order to apply the dominated convergence theorem, it seems (doesn't it?) that one needs to estimate the integral
    $$
    int bigg||x|^{-z}bigg|cdot bigg|log |x|bigg|cdot |phi(x)| dx.
    $$

    What dominated function should one use?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$


    In Wolff's Lectures on Harmonic Analysis (see also the AMS published version here), the author claims without proofs in details the following:




    for $phiinmathcal{S}(mathbb{R}^n)$, where $mathcal{S}$ denotes the Schwartz space, the map
    $$
    zmapsto int |x|^{-z}phi(x) dx
    $$

    is analytic in the "indicated regime", which may be done by using the dominated convergence theorem to justify complex differentiation under the integral sign.




    I have the following questions:




    • The "indicated regime" is not indicated in Wolff's notes. Where should it be?

    • in order to apply the dominated convergence theorem, it seems (doesn't it?) that one needs to estimate the integral
      $$
      int bigg||x|^{-z}bigg|cdot bigg|log |x|bigg|cdot |phi(x)| dx.
      $$

      What dominated function should one use?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      In Wolff's Lectures on Harmonic Analysis (see also the AMS published version here), the author claims without proofs in details the following:




      for $phiinmathcal{S}(mathbb{R}^n)$, where $mathcal{S}$ denotes the Schwartz space, the map
      $$
      zmapsto int |x|^{-z}phi(x) dx
      $$

      is analytic in the "indicated regime", which may be done by using the dominated convergence theorem to justify complex differentiation under the integral sign.




      I have the following questions:




      • The "indicated regime" is not indicated in Wolff's notes. Where should it be?

      • in order to apply the dominated convergence theorem, it seems (doesn't it?) that one needs to estimate the integral
        $$
        int bigg||x|^{-z}bigg|cdot bigg|log |x|bigg|cdot |phi(x)| dx.
        $$

        What dominated function should one use?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      In Wolff's Lectures on Harmonic Analysis (see also the AMS published version here), the author claims without proofs in details the following:




      for $phiinmathcal{S}(mathbb{R}^n)$, where $mathcal{S}$ denotes the Schwartz space, the map
      $$
      zmapsto int |x|^{-z}phi(x) dx
      $$

      is analytic in the "indicated regime", which may be done by using the dominated convergence theorem to justify complex differentiation under the integral sign.




      I have the following questions:




      • The "indicated regime" is not indicated in Wolff's notes. Where should it be?

      • in order to apply the dominated convergence theorem, it seems (doesn't it?) that one needs to estimate the integral
        $$
        int bigg||x|^{-z}bigg|cdot bigg|log |x|bigg|cdot |phi(x)| dx.
        $$

        What dominated function should one use?







      real-analysis complex-analysis harmonic-analysis






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Dec 19 '18 at 19:40

























      asked Dec 19 '18 at 19:33







      user587192





























          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          2












          $begingroup$

          The basic theorem is that $g(z) = int_{mathbb R^n} f(x,z); dx$ is analytic in $z in U subseteq mathbb C$ if





          1. $f(x,z)$ is analytic in $U$ for every $xin mathbb R^n$,


          2. $f(x,z)$ is jointly measurable in $x$ and $z$,


          3. $int_{mathbb R^n} |f(x,z)|; dx$ is uniformly bounded on every compact subset of $U$.


          Then we can use Fubini's theorem to say
          if $Gamma$ is any closed triangle in $U$,
          $$ oint_Gamma g(z); dz = int_{mathbb R^n} oint_Gamma f(x,z); dz; dz = 0$$
          and then Morera's theorem says $g(z)$ is analytic in $U$.



          In your case, the only problem is the singularity of $|x|^{-z}$ at the origin: we have $$left| |x|^{-z} right| = |x|^{-text{Re}; z}$$
          and we need $n-1 - text{Re}; z > -1$, i.e. $text{Re}; z < n$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for your answer. I'm interested in a bit more details. While Fubini and Morera's theorems together are indeed handy (thanks for pointing that out!) I'm still curious about Wolff's argument using dominated convergence: how would you find a dominated function? Would you elaborate on why one (only) needs $n-1-text{Re }z>-1$? I don't know how to use the decaying properties of the Schwartz function $phi$ to get this inequality.
            $endgroup$
            – user587192
            Dec 19 '18 at 20:19






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            It doesn't have to do with the Schwartz function, just with the radial factor $r^{n-1} ; dr$ in the volume element of $mathbb R^n$ and the fact that $int_0^1 r^d ; dr$ converges iff $d > -1$. The Schwartz function $phi(x)$, since it goes to $0$ at $infty$ faster than any polynomial, takes care of the integration over a neighbourhood of $infty$.
            $endgroup$
            – Robert Israel
            Dec 19 '18 at 21:06











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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          2












          $begingroup$

          The basic theorem is that $g(z) = int_{mathbb R^n} f(x,z); dx$ is analytic in $z in U subseteq mathbb C$ if





          1. $f(x,z)$ is analytic in $U$ for every $xin mathbb R^n$,


          2. $f(x,z)$ is jointly measurable in $x$ and $z$,


          3. $int_{mathbb R^n} |f(x,z)|; dx$ is uniformly bounded on every compact subset of $U$.


          Then we can use Fubini's theorem to say
          if $Gamma$ is any closed triangle in $U$,
          $$ oint_Gamma g(z); dz = int_{mathbb R^n} oint_Gamma f(x,z); dz; dz = 0$$
          and then Morera's theorem says $g(z)$ is analytic in $U$.



          In your case, the only problem is the singularity of $|x|^{-z}$ at the origin: we have $$left| |x|^{-z} right| = |x|^{-text{Re}; z}$$
          and we need $n-1 - text{Re}; z > -1$, i.e. $text{Re}; z < n$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for your answer. I'm interested in a bit more details. While Fubini and Morera's theorems together are indeed handy (thanks for pointing that out!) I'm still curious about Wolff's argument using dominated convergence: how would you find a dominated function? Would you elaborate on why one (only) needs $n-1-text{Re }z>-1$? I don't know how to use the decaying properties of the Schwartz function $phi$ to get this inequality.
            $endgroup$
            – user587192
            Dec 19 '18 at 20:19






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            It doesn't have to do with the Schwartz function, just with the radial factor $r^{n-1} ; dr$ in the volume element of $mathbb R^n$ and the fact that $int_0^1 r^d ; dr$ converges iff $d > -1$. The Schwartz function $phi(x)$, since it goes to $0$ at $infty$ faster than any polynomial, takes care of the integration over a neighbourhood of $infty$.
            $endgroup$
            – Robert Israel
            Dec 19 '18 at 21:06
















          2












          $begingroup$

          The basic theorem is that $g(z) = int_{mathbb R^n} f(x,z); dx$ is analytic in $z in U subseteq mathbb C$ if





          1. $f(x,z)$ is analytic in $U$ for every $xin mathbb R^n$,


          2. $f(x,z)$ is jointly measurable in $x$ and $z$,


          3. $int_{mathbb R^n} |f(x,z)|; dx$ is uniformly bounded on every compact subset of $U$.


          Then we can use Fubini's theorem to say
          if $Gamma$ is any closed triangle in $U$,
          $$ oint_Gamma g(z); dz = int_{mathbb R^n} oint_Gamma f(x,z); dz; dz = 0$$
          and then Morera's theorem says $g(z)$ is analytic in $U$.



          In your case, the only problem is the singularity of $|x|^{-z}$ at the origin: we have $$left| |x|^{-z} right| = |x|^{-text{Re}; z}$$
          and we need $n-1 - text{Re}; z > -1$, i.e. $text{Re}; z < n$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for your answer. I'm interested in a bit more details. While Fubini and Morera's theorems together are indeed handy (thanks for pointing that out!) I'm still curious about Wolff's argument using dominated convergence: how would you find a dominated function? Would you elaborate on why one (only) needs $n-1-text{Re }z>-1$? I don't know how to use the decaying properties of the Schwartz function $phi$ to get this inequality.
            $endgroup$
            – user587192
            Dec 19 '18 at 20:19






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            It doesn't have to do with the Schwartz function, just with the radial factor $r^{n-1} ; dr$ in the volume element of $mathbb R^n$ and the fact that $int_0^1 r^d ; dr$ converges iff $d > -1$. The Schwartz function $phi(x)$, since it goes to $0$ at $infty$ faster than any polynomial, takes care of the integration over a neighbourhood of $infty$.
            $endgroup$
            – Robert Israel
            Dec 19 '18 at 21:06














          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          The basic theorem is that $g(z) = int_{mathbb R^n} f(x,z); dx$ is analytic in $z in U subseteq mathbb C$ if





          1. $f(x,z)$ is analytic in $U$ for every $xin mathbb R^n$,


          2. $f(x,z)$ is jointly measurable in $x$ and $z$,


          3. $int_{mathbb R^n} |f(x,z)|; dx$ is uniformly bounded on every compact subset of $U$.


          Then we can use Fubini's theorem to say
          if $Gamma$ is any closed triangle in $U$,
          $$ oint_Gamma g(z); dz = int_{mathbb R^n} oint_Gamma f(x,z); dz; dz = 0$$
          and then Morera's theorem says $g(z)$ is analytic in $U$.



          In your case, the only problem is the singularity of $|x|^{-z}$ at the origin: we have $$left| |x|^{-z} right| = |x|^{-text{Re}; z}$$
          and we need $n-1 - text{Re}; z > -1$, i.e. $text{Re}; z < n$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          The basic theorem is that $g(z) = int_{mathbb R^n} f(x,z); dx$ is analytic in $z in U subseteq mathbb C$ if





          1. $f(x,z)$ is analytic in $U$ for every $xin mathbb R^n$,


          2. $f(x,z)$ is jointly measurable in $x$ and $z$,


          3. $int_{mathbb R^n} |f(x,z)|; dx$ is uniformly bounded on every compact subset of $U$.


          Then we can use Fubini's theorem to say
          if $Gamma$ is any closed triangle in $U$,
          $$ oint_Gamma g(z); dz = int_{mathbb R^n} oint_Gamma f(x,z); dz; dz = 0$$
          and then Morera's theorem says $g(z)$ is analytic in $U$.



          In your case, the only problem is the singularity of $|x|^{-z}$ at the origin: we have $$left| |x|^{-z} right| = |x|^{-text{Re}; z}$$
          and we need $n-1 - text{Re}; z > -1$, i.e. $text{Re}; z < n$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 19 '18 at 19:57









          Robert IsraelRobert Israel

          328k23216469




          328k23216469












          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for your answer. I'm interested in a bit more details. While Fubini and Morera's theorems together are indeed handy (thanks for pointing that out!) I'm still curious about Wolff's argument using dominated convergence: how would you find a dominated function? Would you elaborate on why one (only) needs $n-1-text{Re }z>-1$? I don't know how to use the decaying properties of the Schwartz function $phi$ to get this inequality.
            $endgroup$
            – user587192
            Dec 19 '18 at 20:19






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            It doesn't have to do with the Schwartz function, just with the radial factor $r^{n-1} ; dr$ in the volume element of $mathbb R^n$ and the fact that $int_0^1 r^d ; dr$ converges iff $d > -1$. The Schwartz function $phi(x)$, since it goes to $0$ at $infty$ faster than any polynomial, takes care of the integration over a neighbourhood of $infty$.
            $endgroup$
            – Robert Israel
            Dec 19 '18 at 21:06


















          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for your answer. I'm interested in a bit more details. While Fubini and Morera's theorems together are indeed handy (thanks for pointing that out!) I'm still curious about Wolff's argument using dominated convergence: how would you find a dominated function? Would you elaborate on why one (only) needs $n-1-text{Re }z>-1$? I don't know how to use the decaying properties of the Schwartz function $phi$ to get this inequality.
            $endgroup$
            – user587192
            Dec 19 '18 at 20:19






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            It doesn't have to do with the Schwartz function, just with the radial factor $r^{n-1} ; dr$ in the volume element of $mathbb R^n$ and the fact that $int_0^1 r^d ; dr$ converges iff $d > -1$. The Schwartz function $phi(x)$, since it goes to $0$ at $infty$ faster than any polynomial, takes care of the integration over a neighbourhood of $infty$.
            $endgroup$
            – Robert Israel
            Dec 19 '18 at 21:06
















          $begingroup$
          Thanks for your answer. I'm interested in a bit more details. While Fubini and Morera's theorems together are indeed handy (thanks for pointing that out!) I'm still curious about Wolff's argument using dominated convergence: how would you find a dominated function? Would you elaborate on why one (only) needs $n-1-text{Re }z>-1$? I don't know how to use the decaying properties of the Schwartz function $phi$ to get this inequality.
          $endgroup$
          – user587192
          Dec 19 '18 at 20:19




          $begingroup$
          Thanks for your answer. I'm interested in a bit more details. While Fubini and Morera's theorems together are indeed handy (thanks for pointing that out!) I'm still curious about Wolff's argument using dominated convergence: how would you find a dominated function? Would you elaborate on why one (only) needs $n-1-text{Re }z>-1$? I don't know how to use the decaying properties of the Schwartz function $phi$ to get this inequality.
          $endgroup$
          – user587192
          Dec 19 '18 at 20:19




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          It doesn't have to do with the Schwartz function, just with the radial factor $r^{n-1} ; dr$ in the volume element of $mathbb R^n$ and the fact that $int_0^1 r^d ; dr$ converges iff $d > -1$. The Schwartz function $phi(x)$, since it goes to $0$ at $infty$ faster than any polynomial, takes care of the integration over a neighbourhood of $infty$.
          $endgroup$
          – Robert Israel
          Dec 19 '18 at 21:06




          $begingroup$
          It doesn't have to do with the Schwartz function, just with the radial factor $r^{n-1} ; dr$ in the volume element of $mathbb R^n$ and the fact that $int_0^1 r^d ; dr$ converges iff $d > -1$. The Schwartz function $phi(x)$, since it goes to $0$ at $infty$ faster than any polynomial, takes care of the integration over a neighbourhood of $infty$.
          $endgroup$
          – Robert Israel
          Dec 19 '18 at 21:06


















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