what is integral of this function?












0












$begingroup$


Let $f(x)$ be an arbitrary continuous function, $nin mathbb{N}$ and
$$g(x) = frac{1}{1+ncdot f(x)^2}$$
then what is anti-derivative of this:
$$
int left(frac{d}{dx}g(x)right)cdottanhleft(ncdot f(x)cdotfrac{d}{dx}f(x)right)dx = ?
$$

or
$$
int left(frac{d}{dx}g(x)right)cdottanhleft(ncdot f(x)right)cdottanhleft(ncdotfrac{d}{dx}f(x)right)dx = ?
$$

Both integral equals(in the limit when n goes to infinity).
Also we know that $int left(frac{d}{dx}g(x)right)dx = g(x)$ and $int left(n.f(x).frac{d}{dx}f(x)right)dx = ncdotfrac{f(x)^2}{2}$










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  • $begingroup$
    Let $u=2[1+nf(x)^2]$. Observe that $g(x)=2/u$ so that $g'(x)dx=-2du/u^2$. Note also that $u'=nf(x)f'(x)$. We can now write the first integral as $-2intfrac{tanh(u')}{u^2};du$. Not sure that helps though.
    $endgroup$
    – Ben W
    Dec 28 '18 at 16:19
















0












$begingroup$


Let $f(x)$ be an arbitrary continuous function, $nin mathbb{N}$ and
$$g(x) = frac{1}{1+ncdot f(x)^2}$$
then what is anti-derivative of this:
$$
int left(frac{d}{dx}g(x)right)cdottanhleft(ncdot f(x)cdotfrac{d}{dx}f(x)right)dx = ?
$$

or
$$
int left(frac{d}{dx}g(x)right)cdottanhleft(ncdot f(x)right)cdottanhleft(ncdotfrac{d}{dx}f(x)right)dx = ?
$$

Both integral equals(in the limit when n goes to infinity).
Also we know that $int left(frac{d}{dx}g(x)right)dx = g(x)$ and $int left(n.f(x).frac{d}{dx}f(x)right)dx = ncdotfrac{f(x)^2}{2}$










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Let $u=2[1+nf(x)^2]$. Observe that $g(x)=2/u$ so that $g'(x)dx=-2du/u^2$. Note also that $u'=nf(x)f'(x)$. We can now write the first integral as $-2intfrac{tanh(u')}{u^2};du$. Not sure that helps though.
    $endgroup$
    – Ben W
    Dec 28 '18 at 16:19














0












0








0





$begingroup$


Let $f(x)$ be an arbitrary continuous function, $nin mathbb{N}$ and
$$g(x) = frac{1}{1+ncdot f(x)^2}$$
then what is anti-derivative of this:
$$
int left(frac{d}{dx}g(x)right)cdottanhleft(ncdot f(x)cdotfrac{d}{dx}f(x)right)dx = ?
$$

or
$$
int left(frac{d}{dx}g(x)right)cdottanhleft(ncdot f(x)right)cdottanhleft(ncdotfrac{d}{dx}f(x)right)dx = ?
$$

Both integral equals(in the limit when n goes to infinity).
Also we know that $int left(frac{d}{dx}g(x)right)dx = g(x)$ and $int left(n.f(x).frac{d}{dx}f(x)right)dx = ncdotfrac{f(x)^2}{2}$










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Let $f(x)$ be an arbitrary continuous function, $nin mathbb{N}$ and
$$g(x) = frac{1}{1+ncdot f(x)^2}$$
then what is anti-derivative of this:
$$
int left(frac{d}{dx}g(x)right)cdottanhleft(ncdot f(x)cdotfrac{d}{dx}f(x)right)dx = ?
$$

or
$$
int left(frac{d}{dx}g(x)right)cdottanhleft(ncdot f(x)right)cdottanhleft(ncdotfrac{d}{dx}f(x)right)dx = ?
$$

Both integral equals(in the limit when n goes to infinity).
Also we know that $int left(frac{d}{dx}g(x)right)dx = g(x)$ and $int left(n.f(x).frac{d}{dx}f(x)right)dx = ncdotfrac{f(x)^2}{2}$







calculus integration complex-analysis limits special-functions






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asked Dec 28 '18 at 15:59









Michael BrockhausenMichael Brockhausen

122




122












  • $begingroup$
    Let $u=2[1+nf(x)^2]$. Observe that $g(x)=2/u$ so that $g'(x)dx=-2du/u^2$. Note also that $u'=nf(x)f'(x)$. We can now write the first integral as $-2intfrac{tanh(u')}{u^2};du$. Not sure that helps though.
    $endgroup$
    – Ben W
    Dec 28 '18 at 16:19


















  • $begingroup$
    Let $u=2[1+nf(x)^2]$. Observe that $g(x)=2/u$ so that $g'(x)dx=-2du/u^2$. Note also that $u'=nf(x)f'(x)$. We can now write the first integral as $-2intfrac{tanh(u')}{u^2};du$. Not sure that helps though.
    $endgroup$
    – Ben W
    Dec 28 '18 at 16:19
















$begingroup$
Let $u=2[1+nf(x)^2]$. Observe that $g(x)=2/u$ so that $g'(x)dx=-2du/u^2$. Note also that $u'=nf(x)f'(x)$. We can now write the first integral as $-2intfrac{tanh(u')}{u^2};du$. Not sure that helps though.
$endgroup$
– Ben W
Dec 28 '18 at 16:19




$begingroup$
Let $u=2[1+nf(x)^2]$. Observe that $g(x)=2/u$ so that $g'(x)dx=-2du/u^2$. Note also that $u'=nf(x)f'(x)$. We can now write the first integral as $-2intfrac{tanh(u')}{u^2};du$. Not sure that helps though.
$endgroup$
– Ben W
Dec 28 '18 at 16:19










1 Answer
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There is no reason to expect a closed form answer for this problem; take $n=1$ and $f(x)=x^2$, and ask your favorite CAS to do your first antiderivative. Wolfram Alpha states that there is no closed form, and while that is not a proof, it is good enough for me (at least until you can demonstrate that there should be a closed form somehow).






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    1 Answer
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    3












    $begingroup$

    There is no reason to expect a closed form answer for this problem; take $n=1$ and $f(x)=x^2$, and ask your favorite CAS to do your first antiderivative. Wolfram Alpha states that there is no closed form, and while that is not a proof, it is good enough for me (at least until you can demonstrate that there should be a closed form somehow).






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      3












      $begingroup$

      There is no reason to expect a closed form answer for this problem; take $n=1$ and $f(x)=x^2$, and ask your favorite CAS to do your first antiderivative. Wolfram Alpha states that there is no closed form, and while that is not a proof, it is good enough for me (at least until you can demonstrate that there should be a closed form somehow).






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        3












        3








        3





        $begingroup$

        There is no reason to expect a closed form answer for this problem; take $n=1$ and $f(x)=x^2$, and ask your favorite CAS to do your first antiderivative. Wolfram Alpha states that there is no closed form, and while that is not a proof, it is good enough for me (at least until you can demonstrate that there should be a closed form somehow).






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        There is no reason to expect a closed form answer for this problem; take $n=1$ and $f(x)=x^2$, and ask your favorite CAS to do your first antiderivative. Wolfram Alpha states that there is no closed form, and while that is not a proof, it is good enough for me (at least until you can demonstrate that there should be a closed form somehow).







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 28 '18 at 16:08









        DudeManDudeMan

        1113




        1113






























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