Justification of an isomorphism
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I am wondering if the following is true:
$$mathbb{Z}[t]/(t,3)congmathbb{Z}/3.$$
I can tell that the ideal $(t,3)$ is maximal. In contrast, the ideal $(t^2,2t)$ is not even irreducible. So it's less likely that we can simplify $mathbb{Z}[t]/(t^2,2t)$ further.
If the aforementioned isomorphism is true, that means $mathbb{Z}[t]/(t,3)cong(mathbb{Z}[t]/t)/(3)congmathbb{Z}/3$, where the $(3)$ is an ideal in $mathbb{Z}[t]/t$. My questions are:
1) Is this argument legitimate?
2) If it is true, is there any theorem justifying the aforementioned isomorphism?
abstract-algebra ring-theory
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up vote
2
down vote
favorite
I am wondering if the following is true:
$$mathbb{Z}[t]/(t,3)congmathbb{Z}/3.$$
I can tell that the ideal $(t,3)$ is maximal. In contrast, the ideal $(t^2,2t)$ is not even irreducible. So it's less likely that we can simplify $mathbb{Z}[t]/(t^2,2t)$ further.
If the aforementioned isomorphism is true, that means $mathbb{Z}[t]/(t,3)cong(mathbb{Z}[t]/t)/(3)congmathbb{Z}/3$, where the $(3)$ is an ideal in $mathbb{Z}[t]/t$. My questions are:
1) Is this argument legitimate?
2) If it is true, is there any theorem justifying the aforementioned isomorphism?
abstract-algebra ring-theory
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
I am wondering if the following is true:
$$mathbb{Z}[t]/(t,3)congmathbb{Z}/3.$$
I can tell that the ideal $(t,3)$ is maximal. In contrast, the ideal $(t^2,2t)$ is not even irreducible. So it's less likely that we can simplify $mathbb{Z}[t]/(t^2,2t)$ further.
If the aforementioned isomorphism is true, that means $mathbb{Z}[t]/(t,3)cong(mathbb{Z}[t]/t)/(3)congmathbb{Z}/3$, where the $(3)$ is an ideal in $mathbb{Z}[t]/t$. My questions are:
1) Is this argument legitimate?
2) If it is true, is there any theorem justifying the aforementioned isomorphism?
abstract-algebra ring-theory
I am wondering if the following is true:
$$mathbb{Z}[t]/(t,3)congmathbb{Z}/3.$$
I can tell that the ideal $(t,3)$ is maximal. In contrast, the ideal $(t^2,2t)$ is not even irreducible. So it's less likely that we can simplify $mathbb{Z}[t]/(t^2,2t)$ further.
If the aforementioned isomorphism is true, that means $mathbb{Z}[t]/(t,3)cong(mathbb{Z}[t]/t)/(3)congmathbb{Z}/3$, where the $(3)$ is an ideal in $mathbb{Z}[t]/t$. My questions are:
1) Is this argument legitimate?
2) If it is true, is there any theorem justifying the aforementioned isomorphism?
abstract-algebra ring-theory
abstract-algebra ring-theory
asked 2 hours ago
J. Wang
523
523
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
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up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Yes your intuition is correct and I try to explain necessary steps:
Claim. $Bbb{Z}[x]/<x,3>congBbb{Z}/<3>$
Well, I prove the following steps:
$$Bbb{Z}[x]/<x,3>cong frac{Bbb{Z}[x]/<x>}{<x,3>/<x>} congBbb{Z}/<3>$$
The first isomorphism is due to the 2nd Isomorphism Theorem of Ring theory.
I think $Bbb{Z}[x]/<x> cong Bbb{Z}$ is clear. (Hint: consider the homomorphism $f(x) mapsto f(0)$ form $Bbb{Z}[x]$ to $Bbb{Z}$ and use 1st Isomorphism Theorem on Rings.
Now for the equality $<x,3>/<x>cong <3>$ Try to define the homomorphism as follows:
$phi :<x,3> to <3>$ by mapping any element $xf(x)+3g(x)in <x,3>$ to $3g(0)$ in $<3>$ (N.B. Here, $f,g in Bbb{Z}[x]$), i.e. $$phi: xf(x)+3g(x) mapsto 3g(0)$$
See that this is an epimorphism. Also $ker phi=<x>$. Then by 1st Isomorphism theorem $<x,3>/ker phi cong <3>$. Which justifies all your steps...!!
N.B. To find out the $ker phi$, remember for any $g(x)in Bbb{Z}[x]$ if we have $g(0)=0$ that means $x$ is a factor of $g$ and so $gin <x>$.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
It's legitimate and a consequence of the isomorphism theorems.
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Yes your intuition is correct and I try to explain necessary steps:
Claim. $Bbb{Z}[x]/<x,3>congBbb{Z}/<3>$
Well, I prove the following steps:
$$Bbb{Z}[x]/<x,3>cong frac{Bbb{Z}[x]/<x>}{<x,3>/<x>} congBbb{Z}/<3>$$
The first isomorphism is due to the 2nd Isomorphism Theorem of Ring theory.
I think $Bbb{Z}[x]/<x> cong Bbb{Z}$ is clear. (Hint: consider the homomorphism $f(x) mapsto f(0)$ form $Bbb{Z}[x]$ to $Bbb{Z}$ and use 1st Isomorphism Theorem on Rings.
Now for the equality $<x,3>/<x>cong <3>$ Try to define the homomorphism as follows:
$phi :<x,3> to <3>$ by mapping any element $xf(x)+3g(x)in <x,3>$ to $3g(0)$ in $<3>$ (N.B. Here, $f,g in Bbb{Z}[x]$), i.e. $$phi: xf(x)+3g(x) mapsto 3g(0)$$
See that this is an epimorphism. Also $ker phi=<x>$. Then by 1st Isomorphism theorem $<x,3>/ker phi cong <3>$. Which justifies all your steps...!!
N.B. To find out the $ker phi$, remember for any $g(x)in Bbb{Z}[x]$ if we have $g(0)=0$ that means $x$ is a factor of $g$ and so $gin <x>$.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Yes your intuition is correct and I try to explain necessary steps:
Claim. $Bbb{Z}[x]/<x,3>congBbb{Z}/<3>$
Well, I prove the following steps:
$$Bbb{Z}[x]/<x,3>cong frac{Bbb{Z}[x]/<x>}{<x,3>/<x>} congBbb{Z}/<3>$$
The first isomorphism is due to the 2nd Isomorphism Theorem of Ring theory.
I think $Bbb{Z}[x]/<x> cong Bbb{Z}$ is clear. (Hint: consider the homomorphism $f(x) mapsto f(0)$ form $Bbb{Z}[x]$ to $Bbb{Z}$ and use 1st Isomorphism Theorem on Rings.
Now for the equality $<x,3>/<x>cong <3>$ Try to define the homomorphism as follows:
$phi :<x,3> to <3>$ by mapping any element $xf(x)+3g(x)in <x,3>$ to $3g(0)$ in $<3>$ (N.B. Here, $f,g in Bbb{Z}[x]$), i.e. $$phi: xf(x)+3g(x) mapsto 3g(0)$$
See that this is an epimorphism. Also $ker phi=<x>$. Then by 1st Isomorphism theorem $<x,3>/ker phi cong <3>$. Which justifies all your steps...!!
N.B. To find out the $ker phi$, remember for any $g(x)in Bbb{Z}[x]$ if we have $g(0)=0$ that means $x$ is a factor of $g$ and so $gin <x>$.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Yes your intuition is correct and I try to explain necessary steps:
Claim. $Bbb{Z}[x]/<x,3>congBbb{Z}/<3>$
Well, I prove the following steps:
$$Bbb{Z}[x]/<x,3>cong frac{Bbb{Z}[x]/<x>}{<x,3>/<x>} congBbb{Z}/<3>$$
The first isomorphism is due to the 2nd Isomorphism Theorem of Ring theory.
I think $Bbb{Z}[x]/<x> cong Bbb{Z}$ is clear. (Hint: consider the homomorphism $f(x) mapsto f(0)$ form $Bbb{Z}[x]$ to $Bbb{Z}$ and use 1st Isomorphism Theorem on Rings.
Now for the equality $<x,3>/<x>cong <3>$ Try to define the homomorphism as follows:
$phi :<x,3> to <3>$ by mapping any element $xf(x)+3g(x)in <x,3>$ to $3g(0)$ in $<3>$ (N.B. Here, $f,g in Bbb{Z}[x]$), i.e. $$phi: xf(x)+3g(x) mapsto 3g(0)$$
See that this is an epimorphism. Also $ker phi=<x>$. Then by 1st Isomorphism theorem $<x,3>/ker phi cong <3>$. Which justifies all your steps...!!
N.B. To find out the $ker phi$, remember for any $g(x)in Bbb{Z}[x]$ if we have $g(0)=0$ that means $x$ is a factor of $g$ and so $gin <x>$.
Yes your intuition is correct and I try to explain necessary steps:
Claim. $Bbb{Z}[x]/<x,3>congBbb{Z}/<3>$
Well, I prove the following steps:
$$Bbb{Z}[x]/<x,3>cong frac{Bbb{Z}[x]/<x>}{<x,3>/<x>} congBbb{Z}/<3>$$
The first isomorphism is due to the 2nd Isomorphism Theorem of Ring theory.
I think $Bbb{Z}[x]/<x> cong Bbb{Z}$ is clear. (Hint: consider the homomorphism $f(x) mapsto f(0)$ form $Bbb{Z}[x]$ to $Bbb{Z}$ and use 1st Isomorphism Theorem on Rings.
Now for the equality $<x,3>/<x>cong <3>$ Try to define the homomorphism as follows:
$phi :<x,3> to <3>$ by mapping any element $xf(x)+3g(x)in <x,3>$ to $3g(0)$ in $<3>$ (N.B. Here, $f,g in Bbb{Z}[x]$), i.e. $$phi: xf(x)+3g(x) mapsto 3g(0)$$
See that this is an epimorphism. Also $ker phi=<x>$. Then by 1st Isomorphism theorem $<x,3>/ker phi cong <3>$. Which justifies all your steps...!!
N.B. To find out the $ker phi$, remember for any $g(x)in Bbb{Z}[x]$ if we have $g(0)=0$ that means $x$ is a factor of $g$ and so $gin <x>$.
answered 1 hour ago
Indrajit Ghosh
1,0291717
1,0291717
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up vote
1
down vote
It's legitimate and a consequence of the isomorphism theorems.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
It's legitimate and a consequence of the isomorphism theorems.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
It's legitimate and a consequence of the isomorphism theorems.
It's legitimate and a consequence of the isomorphism theorems.
answered 1 hour ago
CyclotomicField
2,1241312
2,1241312
add a comment |
add a comment |
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