Rewriting a logical statement
Only lakers are irrational people.
I believe it technically should be translated as:
All irrational people are lakers.
Is there is any way at all to rewrite the above statement to mean the following and be logically correct:
All lakers are irrational people.
How would you justify it? (If it is possible)
logic logic-translation
add a comment |
Only lakers are irrational people.
I believe it technically should be translated as:
All irrational people are lakers.
Is there is any way at all to rewrite the above statement to mean the following and be logically correct:
All lakers are irrational people.
How would you justify it? (If it is possible)
logic logic-translation
add a comment |
Only lakers are irrational people.
I believe it technically should be translated as:
All irrational people are lakers.
Is there is any way at all to rewrite the above statement to mean the following and be logically correct:
All lakers are irrational people.
How would you justify it? (If it is possible)
logic logic-translation
Only lakers are irrational people.
I believe it technically should be translated as:
All irrational people are lakers.
Is there is any way at all to rewrite the above statement to mean the following and be logically correct:
All lakers are irrational people.
How would you justify it? (If it is possible)
logic logic-translation
logic logic-translation
asked Nov 26 at 17:42
Phillip
112
112
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3 Answers
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Indicating with $L$ the set of lakers $l$ and with $Pi$ the set of irrational people $pi$, the first statement is equivalent to
$$forall piin Pi quad piin L$$
the second one is
$$forall lin Lquad lin Pi $$
which is not equivalent to the first one, indeed from this last one we could also have $pi not in L$ for aome $pi$.
add a comment |
All rational people are not lakers.
The opposite converse is equally valid.
The converse that you posit is not equally valid.
add a comment |
Your initial translation is correct, though in standard form I would write
All non-rational people are lakers.
This is an Aristotelian A type statement, and A type statements have valid obverses and valid contrapositives. They do not have valid converses.
Obverse: No non-rational people are non-lakers.
Contrapositive: All non-lakers are rational people.
So the ultimate answer to your question is no, because you are trying to get the converse of an A statement to be true, which does not happen in general.
If you had an E or I statement, the converse would be valid.
add a comment |
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
Indicating with $L$ the set of lakers $l$ and with $Pi$ the set of irrational people $pi$, the first statement is equivalent to
$$forall piin Pi quad piin L$$
the second one is
$$forall lin Lquad lin Pi $$
which is not equivalent to the first one, indeed from this last one we could also have $pi not in L$ for aome $pi$.
add a comment |
Indicating with $L$ the set of lakers $l$ and with $Pi$ the set of irrational people $pi$, the first statement is equivalent to
$$forall piin Pi quad piin L$$
the second one is
$$forall lin Lquad lin Pi $$
which is not equivalent to the first one, indeed from this last one we could also have $pi not in L$ for aome $pi$.
add a comment |
Indicating with $L$ the set of lakers $l$ and with $Pi$ the set of irrational people $pi$, the first statement is equivalent to
$$forall piin Pi quad piin L$$
the second one is
$$forall lin Lquad lin Pi $$
which is not equivalent to the first one, indeed from this last one we could also have $pi not in L$ for aome $pi$.
Indicating with $L$ the set of lakers $l$ and with $Pi$ the set of irrational people $pi$, the first statement is equivalent to
$$forall piin Pi quad piin L$$
the second one is
$$forall lin Lquad lin Pi $$
which is not equivalent to the first one, indeed from this last one we could also have $pi not in L$ for aome $pi$.
answered Nov 26 at 17:49
gimusi
1
1
add a comment |
add a comment |
All rational people are not lakers.
The opposite converse is equally valid.
The converse that you posit is not equally valid.
add a comment |
All rational people are not lakers.
The opposite converse is equally valid.
The converse that you posit is not equally valid.
add a comment |
All rational people are not lakers.
The opposite converse is equally valid.
The converse that you posit is not equally valid.
All rational people are not lakers.
The opposite converse is equally valid.
The converse that you posit is not equally valid.
answered Nov 26 at 17:46
John L Winters
829
829
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Your initial translation is correct, though in standard form I would write
All non-rational people are lakers.
This is an Aristotelian A type statement, and A type statements have valid obverses and valid contrapositives. They do not have valid converses.
Obverse: No non-rational people are non-lakers.
Contrapositive: All non-lakers are rational people.
So the ultimate answer to your question is no, because you are trying to get the converse of an A statement to be true, which does not happen in general.
If you had an E or I statement, the converse would be valid.
add a comment |
Your initial translation is correct, though in standard form I would write
All non-rational people are lakers.
This is an Aristotelian A type statement, and A type statements have valid obverses and valid contrapositives. They do not have valid converses.
Obverse: No non-rational people are non-lakers.
Contrapositive: All non-lakers are rational people.
So the ultimate answer to your question is no, because you are trying to get the converse of an A statement to be true, which does not happen in general.
If you had an E or I statement, the converse would be valid.
add a comment |
Your initial translation is correct, though in standard form I would write
All non-rational people are lakers.
This is an Aristotelian A type statement, and A type statements have valid obverses and valid contrapositives. They do not have valid converses.
Obverse: No non-rational people are non-lakers.
Contrapositive: All non-lakers are rational people.
So the ultimate answer to your question is no, because you are trying to get the converse of an A statement to be true, which does not happen in general.
If you had an E or I statement, the converse would be valid.
Your initial translation is correct, though in standard form I would write
All non-rational people are lakers.
This is an Aristotelian A type statement, and A type statements have valid obverses and valid contrapositives. They do not have valid converses.
Obverse: No non-rational people are non-lakers.
Contrapositive: All non-lakers are rational people.
So the ultimate answer to your question is no, because you are trying to get the converse of an A statement to be true, which does not happen in general.
If you had an E or I statement, the converse would be valid.
answered Nov 26 at 17:51
Adrian Keister
4,77351933
4,77351933
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