Integral inequality for sin function

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Let $0<r<1$ and $tgeq 0$ real numbers. Is it true that $$int_t^{t+r} sin(x), dx leq int_{frac{pi}{2}-frac{r}{2}}^{frac{pi}{2}+frac{r}{2}}sin(x), dx ,? $$



I suspect that yes, since both integration intervals have length $r$ and $sin$ has maximum in second one (RHS).



Hints are welcome.










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    Let $0<r<1$ and $tgeq 0$ real numbers. Is it true that $$int_t^{t+r} sin(x), dx leq int_{frac{pi}{2}-frac{r}{2}}^{frac{pi}{2}+frac{r}{2}}sin(x), dx ,? $$



    I suspect that yes, since both integration intervals have length $r$ and $sin$ has maximum in second one (RHS).



    Hints are welcome.










    share|cite|improve this question



























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      0







      Let $0<r<1$ and $tgeq 0$ real numbers. Is it true that $$int_t^{t+r} sin(x), dx leq int_{frac{pi}{2}-frac{r}{2}}^{frac{pi}{2}+frac{r}{2}}sin(x), dx ,? $$



      I suspect that yes, since both integration intervals have length $r$ and $sin$ has maximum in second one (RHS).



      Hints are welcome.










      share|cite|improve this question















      Let $0<r<1$ and $tgeq 0$ real numbers. Is it true that $$int_t^{t+r} sin(x), dx leq int_{frac{pi}{2}-frac{r}{2}}^{frac{pi}{2}+frac{r}{2}}sin(x), dx ,? $$



      I suspect that yes, since both integration intervals have length $r$ and $sin$ has maximum in second one (RHS).



      Hints are welcome.







      integral-inequality






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      edited Nov 27 '18 at 21:18

























      asked Nov 27 '18 at 21:11









      Sigur

      4,48811736




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          Well, one way to do it (though unelegant) would be to write out the solutions to the integrals explicitly. So, you are asking us to prove that:
          $$cos(t)-cos(r+t)leq cos(pi/2-r/2)-cos(pi/2+r/2)$$
          This is true, since by one of the Prosthaphaeresis Formulas, namely:
          $$cos(alpha)-cos(beta)=-2sinleft[frac{1}{2}(alpha+beta)right]sinleft[frac{1}{2}(alpha-beta)right]$$
          We have that:
          $$cos(t)-cos(r+t)=2sin(r/2)sin(r/2+t)$$
          And:
          $$cos(pi/2-r/2)-cos(pi/2+r/2)=2sin(r/2)$$
          And fortunately, since $0<r<1$, we have that $sin(r/2)> 0$ and since $r/2+t$ is a real number, $sin(r/2+t)leq 1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer



















          • 1




            Fortunately, $sinleq 1$!!!
            – Sigur
            Nov 27 '18 at 21:40










          • Indeed. It would be nice however if someone could figure out a solution to this problem without having to explicitly solve the integrals.
            – projectilemotion
            Nov 27 '18 at 21:42












          • Sometimes, hard problems have simple solutions... and usually we don't look to the simple ones. Thanks.
            – Sigur
            Nov 27 '18 at 21:42











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          Well, one way to do it (though unelegant) would be to write out the solutions to the integrals explicitly. So, you are asking us to prove that:
          $$cos(t)-cos(r+t)leq cos(pi/2-r/2)-cos(pi/2+r/2)$$
          This is true, since by one of the Prosthaphaeresis Formulas, namely:
          $$cos(alpha)-cos(beta)=-2sinleft[frac{1}{2}(alpha+beta)right]sinleft[frac{1}{2}(alpha-beta)right]$$
          We have that:
          $$cos(t)-cos(r+t)=2sin(r/2)sin(r/2+t)$$
          And:
          $$cos(pi/2-r/2)-cos(pi/2+r/2)=2sin(r/2)$$
          And fortunately, since $0<r<1$, we have that $sin(r/2)> 0$ and since $r/2+t$ is a real number, $sin(r/2+t)leq 1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer



















          • 1




            Fortunately, $sinleq 1$!!!
            – Sigur
            Nov 27 '18 at 21:40










          • Indeed. It would be nice however if someone could figure out a solution to this problem without having to explicitly solve the integrals.
            – projectilemotion
            Nov 27 '18 at 21:42












          • Sometimes, hard problems have simple solutions... and usually we don't look to the simple ones. Thanks.
            – Sigur
            Nov 27 '18 at 21:42
















          1














          Well, one way to do it (though unelegant) would be to write out the solutions to the integrals explicitly. So, you are asking us to prove that:
          $$cos(t)-cos(r+t)leq cos(pi/2-r/2)-cos(pi/2+r/2)$$
          This is true, since by one of the Prosthaphaeresis Formulas, namely:
          $$cos(alpha)-cos(beta)=-2sinleft[frac{1}{2}(alpha+beta)right]sinleft[frac{1}{2}(alpha-beta)right]$$
          We have that:
          $$cos(t)-cos(r+t)=2sin(r/2)sin(r/2+t)$$
          And:
          $$cos(pi/2-r/2)-cos(pi/2+r/2)=2sin(r/2)$$
          And fortunately, since $0<r<1$, we have that $sin(r/2)> 0$ and since $r/2+t$ is a real number, $sin(r/2+t)leq 1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer



















          • 1




            Fortunately, $sinleq 1$!!!
            – Sigur
            Nov 27 '18 at 21:40










          • Indeed. It would be nice however if someone could figure out a solution to this problem without having to explicitly solve the integrals.
            – projectilemotion
            Nov 27 '18 at 21:42












          • Sometimes, hard problems have simple solutions... and usually we don't look to the simple ones. Thanks.
            – Sigur
            Nov 27 '18 at 21:42














          1












          1








          1






          Well, one way to do it (though unelegant) would be to write out the solutions to the integrals explicitly. So, you are asking us to prove that:
          $$cos(t)-cos(r+t)leq cos(pi/2-r/2)-cos(pi/2+r/2)$$
          This is true, since by one of the Prosthaphaeresis Formulas, namely:
          $$cos(alpha)-cos(beta)=-2sinleft[frac{1}{2}(alpha+beta)right]sinleft[frac{1}{2}(alpha-beta)right]$$
          We have that:
          $$cos(t)-cos(r+t)=2sin(r/2)sin(r/2+t)$$
          And:
          $$cos(pi/2-r/2)-cos(pi/2+r/2)=2sin(r/2)$$
          And fortunately, since $0<r<1$, we have that $sin(r/2)> 0$ and since $r/2+t$ is a real number, $sin(r/2+t)leq 1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          Well, one way to do it (though unelegant) would be to write out the solutions to the integrals explicitly. So, you are asking us to prove that:
          $$cos(t)-cos(r+t)leq cos(pi/2-r/2)-cos(pi/2+r/2)$$
          This is true, since by one of the Prosthaphaeresis Formulas, namely:
          $$cos(alpha)-cos(beta)=-2sinleft[frac{1}{2}(alpha+beta)right]sinleft[frac{1}{2}(alpha-beta)right]$$
          We have that:
          $$cos(t)-cos(r+t)=2sin(r/2)sin(r/2+t)$$
          And:
          $$cos(pi/2-r/2)-cos(pi/2+r/2)=2sin(r/2)$$
          And fortunately, since $0<r<1$, we have that $sin(r/2)> 0$ and since $r/2+t$ is a real number, $sin(r/2+t)leq 1$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Nov 27 '18 at 21:45

























          answered Nov 27 '18 at 21:38









          projectilemotion

          11.4k62041




          11.4k62041








          • 1




            Fortunately, $sinleq 1$!!!
            – Sigur
            Nov 27 '18 at 21:40










          • Indeed. It would be nice however if someone could figure out a solution to this problem without having to explicitly solve the integrals.
            – projectilemotion
            Nov 27 '18 at 21:42












          • Sometimes, hard problems have simple solutions... and usually we don't look to the simple ones. Thanks.
            – Sigur
            Nov 27 '18 at 21:42














          • 1




            Fortunately, $sinleq 1$!!!
            – Sigur
            Nov 27 '18 at 21:40










          • Indeed. It would be nice however if someone could figure out a solution to this problem without having to explicitly solve the integrals.
            – projectilemotion
            Nov 27 '18 at 21:42












          • Sometimes, hard problems have simple solutions... and usually we don't look to the simple ones. Thanks.
            – Sigur
            Nov 27 '18 at 21:42








          1




          1




          Fortunately, $sinleq 1$!!!
          – Sigur
          Nov 27 '18 at 21:40




          Fortunately, $sinleq 1$!!!
          – Sigur
          Nov 27 '18 at 21:40












          Indeed. It would be nice however if someone could figure out a solution to this problem without having to explicitly solve the integrals.
          – projectilemotion
          Nov 27 '18 at 21:42






          Indeed. It would be nice however if someone could figure out a solution to this problem without having to explicitly solve the integrals.
          – projectilemotion
          Nov 27 '18 at 21:42














          Sometimes, hard problems have simple solutions... and usually we don't look to the simple ones. Thanks.
          – Sigur
          Nov 27 '18 at 21:42




          Sometimes, hard problems have simple solutions... and usually we don't look to the simple ones. Thanks.
          – Sigur
          Nov 27 '18 at 21:42


















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