Asymptotics of a root












3












$begingroup$


Suppose $a,binmathbb{N}$ and, moreoever, $1leqslant a$ and $bgeqslant a+2$.



I am considering the polynomial
$$
f_{a,b}(x):=x^{2b}-frac{x^{b-a}-1}{x-1}
$$

which has exactly one positive (simple) root $x_{a,b}$ and, moreover, $x_{a,b}>1$. In particular, $lim_{atoinfty}x_{a,b}=1$.



I am trying to analyse at which rate $x_{a,b}$ tends to $1$ as $atoinfty$. To this end, I make the ansatz
$$
x_{a,b}=1+y_{a,b}
$$

and now try to analyse at which rate $y_{a,b}to 0$ as $atoinfty$, say, $y_{a,b}=frac{1}{a}+o(1/a)$ or whatever the correct rate might be.



Do you have any idea how to get this?



My first attempt was to plug the ansatz for $x_{a,b}$ in the polynomial:
begin{align*}
&(1+y_{a,b})^{2b}-frac{(1+y_{a,b})^{b-a}-1}{(1+y_{a,b})-1}=0\
&Leftrightarrow (1+y_{a,b})^{2b+1}-(1+y_{a,b})^{2b}-(1+y_{a,b})^{b-a}+1=0
end{align*}



Using the binomial theorem, I wrote the last equation as
begin{align*}
&sum_{k=1}^{2b+1}binom{2b+1}{k}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=1}^{2b}binom{2b}{k}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=1}^{b-a}binom{b-a}{k}y_{a,b}^k\
&=y_{a,b}(1-(b-a))+sum_{k=2}^{2b+1}binom{2b+1}{k}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=2}^{2b}binom{2b}{k}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=2}^{b-a}binom{b-a}{k}y_{a,b}^k\
&=0
end{align*}



Factoring out $y_{a,b}$, what I get is
begin{equation*}
y_{a,b}cdot left(1-b+a+sum_{k=1}^{2b}binom{2b+1}{k+1}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=1}^{2b-1}binom{2b}{k+1}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=1}^{b-a-1}binom{b-a}{k+1}y_{a,b}^kright)=0.
end{equation*}



This equation is fulfilled exactly if $y_{a,b}=0$ (what seems not to be helpful for my purpose) or if
begin{equation}
sum_{k=1}^{2b}binom{2b+1}{k+1}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=1}^{2b-1}binom{2b}{k+1}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=1}^{b-a-1}binom{b-a}{k+1}y_{a,b}^k=b-a-1.
end{equation}



Maybe this last equation can help to get the desired Information about $y_{a,b}$; however, I don’t see how.



I am thankful for your ideas.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    How does $b$ vary with $a$ ?
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Cohen
    Dec 22 '18 at 19:18












  • $begingroup$
    @JoelCohen I always assume that $bgeq a+2$, i.e the difference $b-a$ is at least 2. Hence, if $atoinfty$, then, automatically, $btoinfty$.
    $endgroup$
    – J. Doe
    Dec 22 '18 at 19:26








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @JDoe The answer really depends on the rate of growth of $b-a$ compared to $b$. As is shown in my answer below, if $(b-a) ln(b-a) = o(b)$, then we can show $y_{a,b} sim frac{ln(b-a)}{2b}$. In cases where $b-a$ grows faster, I don't know the answer (except that it isn't $ frac{ln(b-a)}{2b}$).
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Cohen
    Dec 23 '18 at 2:26


















3












$begingroup$


Suppose $a,binmathbb{N}$ and, moreoever, $1leqslant a$ and $bgeqslant a+2$.



I am considering the polynomial
$$
f_{a,b}(x):=x^{2b}-frac{x^{b-a}-1}{x-1}
$$

which has exactly one positive (simple) root $x_{a,b}$ and, moreover, $x_{a,b}>1$. In particular, $lim_{atoinfty}x_{a,b}=1$.



I am trying to analyse at which rate $x_{a,b}$ tends to $1$ as $atoinfty$. To this end, I make the ansatz
$$
x_{a,b}=1+y_{a,b}
$$

and now try to analyse at which rate $y_{a,b}to 0$ as $atoinfty$, say, $y_{a,b}=frac{1}{a}+o(1/a)$ or whatever the correct rate might be.



Do you have any idea how to get this?



My first attempt was to plug the ansatz for $x_{a,b}$ in the polynomial:
begin{align*}
&(1+y_{a,b})^{2b}-frac{(1+y_{a,b})^{b-a}-1}{(1+y_{a,b})-1}=0\
&Leftrightarrow (1+y_{a,b})^{2b+1}-(1+y_{a,b})^{2b}-(1+y_{a,b})^{b-a}+1=0
end{align*}



Using the binomial theorem, I wrote the last equation as
begin{align*}
&sum_{k=1}^{2b+1}binom{2b+1}{k}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=1}^{2b}binom{2b}{k}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=1}^{b-a}binom{b-a}{k}y_{a,b}^k\
&=y_{a,b}(1-(b-a))+sum_{k=2}^{2b+1}binom{2b+1}{k}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=2}^{2b}binom{2b}{k}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=2}^{b-a}binom{b-a}{k}y_{a,b}^k\
&=0
end{align*}



Factoring out $y_{a,b}$, what I get is
begin{equation*}
y_{a,b}cdot left(1-b+a+sum_{k=1}^{2b}binom{2b+1}{k+1}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=1}^{2b-1}binom{2b}{k+1}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=1}^{b-a-1}binom{b-a}{k+1}y_{a,b}^kright)=0.
end{equation*}



This equation is fulfilled exactly if $y_{a,b}=0$ (what seems not to be helpful for my purpose) or if
begin{equation}
sum_{k=1}^{2b}binom{2b+1}{k+1}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=1}^{2b-1}binom{2b}{k+1}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=1}^{b-a-1}binom{b-a}{k+1}y_{a,b}^k=b-a-1.
end{equation}



Maybe this last equation can help to get the desired Information about $y_{a,b}$; however, I don’t see how.



I am thankful for your ideas.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    How does $b$ vary with $a$ ?
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Cohen
    Dec 22 '18 at 19:18












  • $begingroup$
    @JoelCohen I always assume that $bgeq a+2$, i.e the difference $b-a$ is at least 2. Hence, if $atoinfty$, then, automatically, $btoinfty$.
    $endgroup$
    – J. Doe
    Dec 22 '18 at 19:26








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @JDoe The answer really depends on the rate of growth of $b-a$ compared to $b$. As is shown in my answer below, if $(b-a) ln(b-a) = o(b)$, then we can show $y_{a,b} sim frac{ln(b-a)}{2b}$. In cases where $b-a$ grows faster, I don't know the answer (except that it isn't $ frac{ln(b-a)}{2b}$).
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Cohen
    Dec 23 '18 at 2:26
















3












3








3





$begingroup$


Suppose $a,binmathbb{N}$ and, moreoever, $1leqslant a$ and $bgeqslant a+2$.



I am considering the polynomial
$$
f_{a,b}(x):=x^{2b}-frac{x^{b-a}-1}{x-1}
$$

which has exactly one positive (simple) root $x_{a,b}$ and, moreover, $x_{a,b}>1$. In particular, $lim_{atoinfty}x_{a,b}=1$.



I am trying to analyse at which rate $x_{a,b}$ tends to $1$ as $atoinfty$. To this end, I make the ansatz
$$
x_{a,b}=1+y_{a,b}
$$

and now try to analyse at which rate $y_{a,b}to 0$ as $atoinfty$, say, $y_{a,b}=frac{1}{a}+o(1/a)$ or whatever the correct rate might be.



Do you have any idea how to get this?



My first attempt was to plug the ansatz for $x_{a,b}$ in the polynomial:
begin{align*}
&(1+y_{a,b})^{2b}-frac{(1+y_{a,b})^{b-a}-1}{(1+y_{a,b})-1}=0\
&Leftrightarrow (1+y_{a,b})^{2b+1}-(1+y_{a,b})^{2b}-(1+y_{a,b})^{b-a}+1=0
end{align*}



Using the binomial theorem, I wrote the last equation as
begin{align*}
&sum_{k=1}^{2b+1}binom{2b+1}{k}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=1}^{2b}binom{2b}{k}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=1}^{b-a}binom{b-a}{k}y_{a,b}^k\
&=y_{a,b}(1-(b-a))+sum_{k=2}^{2b+1}binom{2b+1}{k}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=2}^{2b}binom{2b}{k}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=2}^{b-a}binom{b-a}{k}y_{a,b}^k\
&=0
end{align*}



Factoring out $y_{a,b}$, what I get is
begin{equation*}
y_{a,b}cdot left(1-b+a+sum_{k=1}^{2b}binom{2b+1}{k+1}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=1}^{2b-1}binom{2b}{k+1}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=1}^{b-a-1}binom{b-a}{k+1}y_{a,b}^kright)=0.
end{equation*}



This equation is fulfilled exactly if $y_{a,b}=0$ (what seems not to be helpful for my purpose) or if
begin{equation}
sum_{k=1}^{2b}binom{2b+1}{k+1}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=1}^{2b-1}binom{2b}{k+1}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=1}^{b-a-1}binom{b-a}{k+1}y_{a,b}^k=b-a-1.
end{equation}



Maybe this last equation can help to get the desired Information about $y_{a,b}$; however, I don’t see how.



I am thankful for your ideas.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Suppose $a,binmathbb{N}$ and, moreoever, $1leqslant a$ and $bgeqslant a+2$.



I am considering the polynomial
$$
f_{a,b}(x):=x^{2b}-frac{x^{b-a}-1}{x-1}
$$

which has exactly one positive (simple) root $x_{a,b}$ and, moreover, $x_{a,b}>1$. In particular, $lim_{atoinfty}x_{a,b}=1$.



I am trying to analyse at which rate $x_{a,b}$ tends to $1$ as $atoinfty$. To this end, I make the ansatz
$$
x_{a,b}=1+y_{a,b}
$$

and now try to analyse at which rate $y_{a,b}to 0$ as $atoinfty$, say, $y_{a,b}=frac{1}{a}+o(1/a)$ or whatever the correct rate might be.



Do you have any idea how to get this?



My first attempt was to plug the ansatz for $x_{a,b}$ in the polynomial:
begin{align*}
&(1+y_{a,b})^{2b}-frac{(1+y_{a,b})^{b-a}-1}{(1+y_{a,b})-1}=0\
&Leftrightarrow (1+y_{a,b})^{2b+1}-(1+y_{a,b})^{2b}-(1+y_{a,b})^{b-a}+1=0
end{align*}



Using the binomial theorem, I wrote the last equation as
begin{align*}
&sum_{k=1}^{2b+1}binom{2b+1}{k}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=1}^{2b}binom{2b}{k}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=1}^{b-a}binom{b-a}{k}y_{a,b}^k\
&=y_{a,b}(1-(b-a))+sum_{k=2}^{2b+1}binom{2b+1}{k}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=2}^{2b}binom{2b}{k}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=2}^{b-a}binom{b-a}{k}y_{a,b}^k\
&=0
end{align*}



Factoring out $y_{a,b}$, what I get is
begin{equation*}
y_{a,b}cdot left(1-b+a+sum_{k=1}^{2b}binom{2b+1}{k+1}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=1}^{2b-1}binom{2b}{k+1}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=1}^{b-a-1}binom{b-a}{k+1}y_{a,b}^kright)=0.
end{equation*}



This equation is fulfilled exactly if $y_{a,b}=0$ (what seems not to be helpful for my purpose) or if
begin{equation}
sum_{k=1}^{2b}binom{2b+1}{k+1}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=1}^{2b-1}binom{2b}{k+1}y_{a,b}^k-sum_{k=1}^{b-a-1}binom{b-a}{k+1}y_{a,b}^k=b-a-1.
end{equation}



Maybe this last equation can help to get the desired Information about $y_{a,b}$; however, I don’t see how.



I am thankful for your ideas.







real-analysis polynomials roots






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 22 '18 at 16:05







J. Doe

















asked Dec 22 '18 at 11:01









J. DoeJ. Doe

163




163








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    How does $b$ vary with $a$ ?
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Cohen
    Dec 22 '18 at 19:18












  • $begingroup$
    @JoelCohen I always assume that $bgeq a+2$, i.e the difference $b-a$ is at least 2. Hence, if $atoinfty$, then, automatically, $btoinfty$.
    $endgroup$
    – J. Doe
    Dec 22 '18 at 19:26








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @JDoe The answer really depends on the rate of growth of $b-a$ compared to $b$. As is shown in my answer below, if $(b-a) ln(b-a) = o(b)$, then we can show $y_{a,b} sim frac{ln(b-a)}{2b}$. In cases where $b-a$ grows faster, I don't know the answer (except that it isn't $ frac{ln(b-a)}{2b}$).
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Cohen
    Dec 23 '18 at 2:26
















  • 1




    $begingroup$
    How does $b$ vary with $a$ ?
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Cohen
    Dec 22 '18 at 19:18












  • $begingroup$
    @JoelCohen I always assume that $bgeq a+2$, i.e the difference $b-a$ is at least 2. Hence, if $atoinfty$, then, automatically, $btoinfty$.
    $endgroup$
    – J. Doe
    Dec 22 '18 at 19:26








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @JDoe The answer really depends on the rate of growth of $b-a$ compared to $b$. As is shown in my answer below, if $(b-a) ln(b-a) = o(b)$, then we can show $y_{a,b} sim frac{ln(b-a)}{2b}$. In cases where $b-a$ grows faster, I don't know the answer (except that it isn't $ frac{ln(b-a)}{2b}$).
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Cohen
    Dec 23 '18 at 2:26










1




1




$begingroup$
How does $b$ vary with $a$ ?
$endgroup$
– Joel Cohen
Dec 22 '18 at 19:18






$begingroup$
How does $b$ vary with $a$ ?
$endgroup$
– Joel Cohen
Dec 22 '18 at 19:18














$begingroup$
@JoelCohen I always assume that $bgeq a+2$, i.e the difference $b-a$ is at least 2. Hence, if $atoinfty$, then, automatically, $btoinfty$.
$endgroup$
– J. Doe
Dec 22 '18 at 19:26






$begingroup$
@JoelCohen I always assume that $bgeq a+2$, i.e the difference $b-a$ is at least 2. Hence, if $atoinfty$, then, automatically, $btoinfty$.
$endgroup$
– J. Doe
Dec 22 '18 at 19:26






1




1




$begingroup$
@JDoe The answer really depends on the rate of growth of $b-a$ compared to $b$. As is shown in my answer below, if $(b-a) ln(b-a) = o(b)$, then we can show $y_{a,b} sim frac{ln(b-a)}{2b}$. In cases where $b-a$ grows faster, I don't know the answer (except that it isn't $ frac{ln(b-a)}{2b}$).
$endgroup$
– Joel Cohen
Dec 23 '18 at 2:26






$begingroup$
@JDoe The answer really depends on the rate of growth of $b-a$ compared to $b$. As is shown in my answer below, if $(b-a) ln(b-a) = o(b)$, then we can show $y_{a,b} sim frac{ln(b-a)}{2b}$. In cases where $b-a$ grows faster, I don't know the answer (except that it isn't $ frac{ln(b-a)}{2b}$).
$endgroup$
– Joel Cohen
Dec 23 '18 at 2:26












1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















3












$begingroup$

For brevity, I will denote $n = 2b$, $k = b-a$ and drop the index $a,b$ in $y := y_{a,b}$. Our equation is
$$(1+y)^n = frac{(1+y)^k - 1}{y}$$
which we can rewrite as
$$(1+y)^k = 1 + y (1+y)^n$$
and taking logarithms, we get
$$k ln(1+y) = ln(1 + y (1+y)^n)$$
Now, assuming $y (1+y)^n underset{a to infty}{longrightarrow} 0$, we get the equivalents
$$k y underset{a to infty}{sim} y (1+y)^n$$
dividing by $y$ and taking logarithms yields
$$ln(k) underset{a to infty}{sim} n ln(1+y) underset{a to infty}{sim} n y$$
and finally we get
$$y underset{a to infty}{sim} frac{ln(k)}{n} = frac{ln(b-a)}{2b}$$





EDIT : There was a mistake initially in assuming the condition $y (1+y)^n underset{a to infty}{longrightarrow} 0$ was automatic, but it's only true under the assumption that $k ln(k) = o(n)$. In this section, we prove the following three properties are equivalent :



1) $y (1+y)^n underset{a to infty}{longrightarrow} 0$



2) $y sim frac{ln(k)}{n}$



3) $k ln(k) = o(n)$



We have just proved that $1) Longrightarrow 2)$.



Let's prove $2) Longrightarrow 3)$. We assume 2), that is $y sim frac{ln(k)}{n}$. We can then compute that
begin{eqnarray*}
y (1+y)^n &=& frac{ln(k)}{n} e^{n ln(1 + frac{ln(k)}{n})} \
&=& frac{ln(k)}{n} e^{ln(k) - frac{(ln(k))^2}{2n} + oleft(frac{(ln(k))^2}{n}right)} \
&=& frac{ln(k)}{n} k , e^{- frac{(ln(k))^2}{2n} + oleft(frac{(ln(k))^2}{n}right)} \
&sim& frac{k ln(k)}{n}
end{eqnarray*}

Which implies that $frac{k ln(k)}{n} to 0$, which is property 3).



And finally, we prove that $3) Longrightarrow 1)$. We assume $k ln(k) = o(n)$. Let $epsilon > 0$ be a fixed parameter. We prove that for $a$ sufficiently large
$$frac{ln(k) - epsilon}{n} < y < frac{ln(k) + epsilon}{n}$$
To do that, we compute the asymptotic expansion of $f_{a,b}left(1+ frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}right)$ and look at its sign. Indeed we have
begin{eqnarray*}
left(1 + frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}right)^n &=& e^{n lnleft(1+ frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}right)}\
&=& e^{(ln(k) pm epsilon) - frac{(ln(k) pm epsilon)^2}{2n} + oleft(frac{(ln k pm epsilon)^2}{2n}right)}\
&=& k , e^{pmepsilon} e^{- frac{(ln(k) pm epsilon)^2}{2n} + oleft(frac{(ln k pm epsilon)^2}{2n}right)}\
&=& k , e^{pmepsilon} + o(k)
end{eqnarray*}

And
begin{eqnarray*}
frac{left(1 + frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}right)^k-1}{frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}} &=& frac{n}{ln(k) pm epsilon} left(e^{k lnleft(1+ frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}right)}-1right) \
&=& frac{n}{ln(k) pm epsilon} left(e^{frac{k(ln(k) pm epsilon)}{n} + oleft(frac{k(ln(k) pm epsilon)}{n}right)} - 1 right)\
&=& k + o(k)
end{eqnarray*}

So we finally get
$$f_{a,b}left(1+ frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}right) sim (e^{pmepsilon}-1) , k $$
This means that for $a$ sufficiently large, we have $f_{a,b}left(1+ frac{ln(k) - epsilon}{n}right) < 0$ and $f_{a,b}left(1+ frac{ln(k) + epsilon}{n}right) > 0$ and so there is a root of $f_{a,b}$ between those two boundaries. But because there is only one positive root, it must be $y$, and we deduce
$$frac{ln(k) - epsilon}{n} < y < frac{ln(k) + epsilon}{n}$$



And now we can asymptotically bound the quantity $y (1+y)^n$ by



$$ underbrace{frac{ln(k) - epsilon}{n} left(1 + frac{ln(k) - epsilon}{n}right)^n}_{sim frac{k (ln(k)-epsilon) e^{-epsilon}}{n}} < y (1+y)^n < underbrace{frac{ln(k) + epsilon}{n} left(1 + frac{ln(k) + epsilon}{n}right)^n }_{sim frac{k (ln(k)+epsilon) e^{epsilon}}{n}}$$



where both bounds converge to $0$ from the assumption that $k ln(k) = o(n)$. Which proves 1).






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$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Where does the condition $kln(k)=o(n)$ come from? Of course , you showed the equivalences but what is the origin of this condition? How to see that $y(1+y)^nto 0$ if and only if this condition holds? Is it possible to say this directly without using statement 2? Or asked in other words: How did you find this condition to be necessary? The factor $y$ tends to $0$ and the factor $(1+y)^n$ then needs to exist, right? Is $kln(k)=o(n)$ necessary to have convergence of $(1+y)^n$?
    $endgroup$
    – J. Doe
    Dec 23 '18 at 10:42








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Those are good questions. In hindsight, my approach can be simplified, and contains a mistake (we have $1) Leftrightarrow 3)$ and $1) Rightarrow 2)$ but I don't think $2) Rightarrow 1)$). I'll try to update to correct the mistake and take a simpler approach (using the fact the condition $y (1+y)^n$ is actually equivalent to $ky to 0$, which simplifies the proof).
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Cohen
    Dec 23 '18 at 11:18












  • $begingroup$
    I think you are pointing to the following: 1) implies 2) and 3). On the other hand, 2) and 3) together imply $kysimfrac{kln k}{n}to 0$ as $atoinfty$. Using $e^{ky}sim e^{kln(1+y)}=(1+y)^k=1+y(1+y)^n$ and $e^{ky}to e^0=1$ as $atoinfty$, this implies that the RHS tends to $1$, i.e. $1+y(1+y)^nto 1$ as $atoinfty$, meaning that $y(1+y)^nto 0$ as $atoinfty$. Hence, 1) exactly if $kyto 0$ as $atoinfty$. - - In particular, if $b-a=textrm{const}$, the condition $kyto 0$ as $atoinfty$ is satisfied; at least, if $b-a$ is no multiple of $e$ (which I think has to be excluded?)-
    $endgroup$
    – J. Doe
    Dec 25 '18 at 16:22












  • $begingroup$
    Addendum: For example, $b=2a$ would not fit into the framework (unless we assume that $y=o(1/a)$ as $atoinfty$ in order to ensure that $kyto 0$ as $atoinfty$)?
    $endgroup$
    – J. Doe
    Dec 26 '18 at 11:04












  • $begingroup$
    Yes $y(1+y)^n to 0$ is equivalent to $(1+y)^k to 1$ (from equation $(*)$). And taking logarithms, this is equivalent to $k ln(1+y) to 0$, which is equivalent to $kyto 0$ (because $ln(1+y) sim y$).
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Cohen
    Dec 27 '18 at 12:07












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$begingroup$

For brevity, I will denote $n = 2b$, $k = b-a$ and drop the index $a,b$ in $y := y_{a,b}$. Our equation is
$$(1+y)^n = frac{(1+y)^k - 1}{y}$$
which we can rewrite as
$$(1+y)^k = 1 + y (1+y)^n$$
and taking logarithms, we get
$$k ln(1+y) = ln(1 + y (1+y)^n)$$
Now, assuming $y (1+y)^n underset{a to infty}{longrightarrow} 0$, we get the equivalents
$$k y underset{a to infty}{sim} y (1+y)^n$$
dividing by $y$ and taking logarithms yields
$$ln(k) underset{a to infty}{sim} n ln(1+y) underset{a to infty}{sim} n y$$
and finally we get
$$y underset{a to infty}{sim} frac{ln(k)}{n} = frac{ln(b-a)}{2b}$$





EDIT : There was a mistake initially in assuming the condition $y (1+y)^n underset{a to infty}{longrightarrow} 0$ was automatic, but it's only true under the assumption that $k ln(k) = o(n)$. In this section, we prove the following three properties are equivalent :



1) $y (1+y)^n underset{a to infty}{longrightarrow} 0$



2) $y sim frac{ln(k)}{n}$



3) $k ln(k) = o(n)$



We have just proved that $1) Longrightarrow 2)$.



Let's prove $2) Longrightarrow 3)$. We assume 2), that is $y sim frac{ln(k)}{n}$. We can then compute that
begin{eqnarray*}
y (1+y)^n &=& frac{ln(k)}{n} e^{n ln(1 + frac{ln(k)}{n})} \
&=& frac{ln(k)}{n} e^{ln(k) - frac{(ln(k))^2}{2n} + oleft(frac{(ln(k))^2}{n}right)} \
&=& frac{ln(k)}{n} k , e^{- frac{(ln(k))^2}{2n} + oleft(frac{(ln(k))^2}{n}right)} \
&sim& frac{k ln(k)}{n}
end{eqnarray*}

Which implies that $frac{k ln(k)}{n} to 0$, which is property 3).



And finally, we prove that $3) Longrightarrow 1)$. We assume $k ln(k) = o(n)$. Let $epsilon > 0$ be a fixed parameter. We prove that for $a$ sufficiently large
$$frac{ln(k) - epsilon}{n} < y < frac{ln(k) + epsilon}{n}$$
To do that, we compute the asymptotic expansion of $f_{a,b}left(1+ frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}right)$ and look at its sign. Indeed we have
begin{eqnarray*}
left(1 + frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}right)^n &=& e^{n lnleft(1+ frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}right)}\
&=& e^{(ln(k) pm epsilon) - frac{(ln(k) pm epsilon)^2}{2n} + oleft(frac{(ln k pm epsilon)^2}{2n}right)}\
&=& k , e^{pmepsilon} e^{- frac{(ln(k) pm epsilon)^2}{2n} + oleft(frac{(ln k pm epsilon)^2}{2n}right)}\
&=& k , e^{pmepsilon} + o(k)
end{eqnarray*}

And
begin{eqnarray*}
frac{left(1 + frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}right)^k-1}{frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}} &=& frac{n}{ln(k) pm epsilon} left(e^{k lnleft(1+ frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}right)}-1right) \
&=& frac{n}{ln(k) pm epsilon} left(e^{frac{k(ln(k) pm epsilon)}{n} + oleft(frac{k(ln(k) pm epsilon)}{n}right)} - 1 right)\
&=& k + o(k)
end{eqnarray*}

So we finally get
$$f_{a,b}left(1+ frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}right) sim (e^{pmepsilon}-1) , k $$
This means that for $a$ sufficiently large, we have $f_{a,b}left(1+ frac{ln(k) - epsilon}{n}right) < 0$ and $f_{a,b}left(1+ frac{ln(k) + epsilon}{n}right) > 0$ and so there is a root of $f_{a,b}$ between those two boundaries. But because there is only one positive root, it must be $y$, and we deduce
$$frac{ln(k) - epsilon}{n} < y < frac{ln(k) + epsilon}{n}$$



And now we can asymptotically bound the quantity $y (1+y)^n$ by



$$ underbrace{frac{ln(k) - epsilon}{n} left(1 + frac{ln(k) - epsilon}{n}right)^n}_{sim frac{k (ln(k)-epsilon) e^{-epsilon}}{n}} < y (1+y)^n < underbrace{frac{ln(k) + epsilon}{n} left(1 + frac{ln(k) + epsilon}{n}right)^n }_{sim frac{k (ln(k)+epsilon) e^{epsilon}}{n}}$$



where both bounds converge to $0$ from the assumption that $k ln(k) = o(n)$. Which proves 1).






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Where does the condition $kln(k)=o(n)$ come from? Of course , you showed the equivalences but what is the origin of this condition? How to see that $y(1+y)^nto 0$ if and only if this condition holds? Is it possible to say this directly without using statement 2? Or asked in other words: How did you find this condition to be necessary? The factor $y$ tends to $0$ and the factor $(1+y)^n$ then needs to exist, right? Is $kln(k)=o(n)$ necessary to have convergence of $(1+y)^n$?
    $endgroup$
    – J. Doe
    Dec 23 '18 at 10:42








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Those are good questions. In hindsight, my approach can be simplified, and contains a mistake (we have $1) Leftrightarrow 3)$ and $1) Rightarrow 2)$ but I don't think $2) Rightarrow 1)$). I'll try to update to correct the mistake and take a simpler approach (using the fact the condition $y (1+y)^n$ is actually equivalent to $ky to 0$, which simplifies the proof).
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Cohen
    Dec 23 '18 at 11:18












  • $begingroup$
    I think you are pointing to the following: 1) implies 2) and 3). On the other hand, 2) and 3) together imply $kysimfrac{kln k}{n}to 0$ as $atoinfty$. Using $e^{ky}sim e^{kln(1+y)}=(1+y)^k=1+y(1+y)^n$ and $e^{ky}to e^0=1$ as $atoinfty$, this implies that the RHS tends to $1$, i.e. $1+y(1+y)^nto 1$ as $atoinfty$, meaning that $y(1+y)^nto 0$ as $atoinfty$. Hence, 1) exactly if $kyto 0$ as $atoinfty$. - - In particular, if $b-a=textrm{const}$, the condition $kyto 0$ as $atoinfty$ is satisfied; at least, if $b-a$ is no multiple of $e$ (which I think has to be excluded?)-
    $endgroup$
    – J. Doe
    Dec 25 '18 at 16:22












  • $begingroup$
    Addendum: For example, $b=2a$ would not fit into the framework (unless we assume that $y=o(1/a)$ as $atoinfty$ in order to ensure that $kyto 0$ as $atoinfty$)?
    $endgroup$
    – J. Doe
    Dec 26 '18 at 11:04












  • $begingroup$
    Yes $y(1+y)^n to 0$ is equivalent to $(1+y)^k to 1$ (from equation $(*)$). And taking logarithms, this is equivalent to $k ln(1+y) to 0$, which is equivalent to $kyto 0$ (because $ln(1+y) sim y$).
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Cohen
    Dec 27 '18 at 12:07
















3












$begingroup$

For brevity, I will denote $n = 2b$, $k = b-a$ and drop the index $a,b$ in $y := y_{a,b}$. Our equation is
$$(1+y)^n = frac{(1+y)^k - 1}{y}$$
which we can rewrite as
$$(1+y)^k = 1 + y (1+y)^n$$
and taking logarithms, we get
$$k ln(1+y) = ln(1 + y (1+y)^n)$$
Now, assuming $y (1+y)^n underset{a to infty}{longrightarrow} 0$, we get the equivalents
$$k y underset{a to infty}{sim} y (1+y)^n$$
dividing by $y$ and taking logarithms yields
$$ln(k) underset{a to infty}{sim} n ln(1+y) underset{a to infty}{sim} n y$$
and finally we get
$$y underset{a to infty}{sim} frac{ln(k)}{n} = frac{ln(b-a)}{2b}$$





EDIT : There was a mistake initially in assuming the condition $y (1+y)^n underset{a to infty}{longrightarrow} 0$ was automatic, but it's only true under the assumption that $k ln(k) = o(n)$. In this section, we prove the following three properties are equivalent :



1) $y (1+y)^n underset{a to infty}{longrightarrow} 0$



2) $y sim frac{ln(k)}{n}$



3) $k ln(k) = o(n)$



We have just proved that $1) Longrightarrow 2)$.



Let's prove $2) Longrightarrow 3)$. We assume 2), that is $y sim frac{ln(k)}{n}$. We can then compute that
begin{eqnarray*}
y (1+y)^n &=& frac{ln(k)}{n} e^{n ln(1 + frac{ln(k)}{n})} \
&=& frac{ln(k)}{n} e^{ln(k) - frac{(ln(k))^2}{2n} + oleft(frac{(ln(k))^2}{n}right)} \
&=& frac{ln(k)}{n} k , e^{- frac{(ln(k))^2}{2n} + oleft(frac{(ln(k))^2}{n}right)} \
&sim& frac{k ln(k)}{n}
end{eqnarray*}

Which implies that $frac{k ln(k)}{n} to 0$, which is property 3).



And finally, we prove that $3) Longrightarrow 1)$. We assume $k ln(k) = o(n)$. Let $epsilon > 0$ be a fixed parameter. We prove that for $a$ sufficiently large
$$frac{ln(k) - epsilon}{n} < y < frac{ln(k) + epsilon}{n}$$
To do that, we compute the asymptotic expansion of $f_{a,b}left(1+ frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}right)$ and look at its sign. Indeed we have
begin{eqnarray*}
left(1 + frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}right)^n &=& e^{n lnleft(1+ frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}right)}\
&=& e^{(ln(k) pm epsilon) - frac{(ln(k) pm epsilon)^2}{2n} + oleft(frac{(ln k pm epsilon)^2}{2n}right)}\
&=& k , e^{pmepsilon} e^{- frac{(ln(k) pm epsilon)^2}{2n} + oleft(frac{(ln k pm epsilon)^2}{2n}right)}\
&=& k , e^{pmepsilon} + o(k)
end{eqnarray*}

And
begin{eqnarray*}
frac{left(1 + frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}right)^k-1}{frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}} &=& frac{n}{ln(k) pm epsilon} left(e^{k lnleft(1+ frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}right)}-1right) \
&=& frac{n}{ln(k) pm epsilon} left(e^{frac{k(ln(k) pm epsilon)}{n} + oleft(frac{k(ln(k) pm epsilon)}{n}right)} - 1 right)\
&=& k + o(k)
end{eqnarray*}

So we finally get
$$f_{a,b}left(1+ frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}right) sim (e^{pmepsilon}-1) , k $$
This means that for $a$ sufficiently large, we have $f_{a,b}left(1+ frac{ln(k) - epsilon}{n}right) < 0$ and $f_{a,b}left(1+ frac{ln(k) + epsilon}{n}right) > 0$ and so there is a root of $f_{a,b}$ between those two boundaries. But because there is only one positive root, it must be $y$, and we deduce
$$frac{ln(k) - epsilon}{n} < y < frac{ln(k) + epsilon}{n}$$



And now we can asymptotically bound the quantity $y (1+y)^n$ by



$$ underbrace{frac{ln(k) - epsilon}{n} left(1 + frac{ln(k) - epsilon}{n}right)^n}_{sim frac{k (ln(k)-epsilon) e^{-epsilon}}{n}} < y (1+y)^n < underbrace{frac{ln(k) + epsilon}{n} left(1 + frac{ln(k) + epsilon}{n}right)^n }_{sim frac{k (ln(k)+epsilon) e^{epsilon}}{n}}$$



where both bounds converge to $0$ from the assumption that $k ln(k) = o(n)$. Which proves 1).






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Where does the condition $kln(k)=o(n)$ come from? Of course , you showed the equivalences but what is the origin of this condition? How to see that $y(1+y)^nto 0$ if and only if this condition holds? Is it possible to say this directly without using statement 2? Or asked in other words: How did you find this condition to be necessary? The factor $y$ tends to $0$ and the factor $(1+y)^n$ then needs to exist, right? Is $kln(k)=o(n)$ necessary to have convergence of $(1+y)^n$?
    $endgroup$
    – J. Doe
    Dec 23 '18 at 10:42








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Those are good questions. In hindsight, my approach can be simplified, and contains a mistake (we have $1) Leftrightarrow 3)$ and $1) Rightarrow 2)$ but I don't think $2) Rightarrow 1)$). I'll try to update to correct the mistake and take a simpler approach (using the fact the condition $y (1+y)^n$ is actually equivalent to $ky to 0$, which simplifies the proof).
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Cohen
    Dec 23 '18 at 11:18












  • $begingroup$
    I think you are pointing to the following: 1) implies 2) and 3). On the other hand, 2) and 3) together imply $kysimfrac{kln k}{n}to 0$ as $atoinfty$. Using $e^{ky}sim e^{kln(1+y)}=(1+y)^k=1+y(1+y)^n$ and $e^{ky}to e^0=1$ as $atoinfty$, this implies that the RHS tends to $1$, i.e. $1+y(1+y)^nto 1$ as $atoinfty$, meaning that $y(1+y)^nto 0$ as $atoinfty$. Hence, 1) exactly if $kyto 0$ as $atoinfty$. - - In particular, if $b-a=textrm{const}$, the condition $kyto 0$ as $atoinfty$ is satisfied; at least, if $b-a$ is no multiple of $e$ (which I think has to be excluded?)-
    $endgroup$
    – J. Doe
    Dec 25 '18 at 16:22












  • $begingroup$
    Addendum: For example, $b=2a$ would not fit into the framework (unless we assume that $y=o(1/a)$ as $atoinfty$ in order to ensure that $kyto 0$ as $atoinfty$)?
    $endgroup$
    – J. Doe
    Dec 26 '18 at 11:04












  • $begingroup$
    Yes $y(1+y)^n to 0$ is equivalent to $(1+y)^k to 1$ (from equation $(*)$). And taking logarithms, this is equivalent to $k ln(1+y) to 0$, which is equivalent to $kyto 0$ (because $ln(1+y) sim y$).
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Cohen
    Dec 27 '18 at 12:07














3












3








3





$begingroup$

For brevity, I will denote $n = 2b$, $k = b-a$ and drop the index $a,b$ in $y := y_{a,b}$. Our equation is
$$(1+y)^n = frac{(1+y)^k - 1}{y}$$
which we can rewrite as
$$(1+y)^k = 1 + y (1+y)^n$$
and taking logarithms, we get
$$k ln(1+y) = ln(1 + y (1+y)^n)$$
Now, assuming $y (1+y)^n underset{a to infty}{longrightarrow} 0$, we get the equivalents
$$k y underset{a to infty}{sim} y (1+y)^n$$
dividing by $y$ and taking logarithms yields
$$ln(k) underset{a to infty}{sim} n ln(1+y) underset{a to infty}{sim} n y$$
and finally we get
$$y underset{a to infty}{sim} frac{ln(k)}{n} = frac{ln(b-a)}{2b}$$





EDIT : There was a mistake initially in assuming the condition $y (1+y)^n underset{a to infty}{longrightarrow} 0$ was automatic, but it's only true under the assumption that $k ln(k) = o(n)$. In this section, we prove the following three properties are equivalent :



1) $y (1+y)^n underset{a to infty}{longrightarrow} 0$



2) $y sim frac{ln(k)}{n}$



3) $k ln(k) = o(n)$



We have just proved that $1) Longrightarrow 2)$.



Let's prove $2) Longrightarrow 3)$. We assume 2), that is $y sim frac{ln(k)}{n}$. We can then compute that
begin{eqnarray*}
y (1+y)^n &=& frac{ln(k)}{n} e^{n ln(1 + frac{ln(k)}{n})} \
&=& frac{ln(k)}{n} e^{ln(k) - frac{(ln(k))^2}{2n} + oleft(frac{(ln(k))^2}{n}right)} \
&=& frac{ln(k)}{n} k , e^{- frac{(ln(k))^2}{2n} + oleft(frac{(ln(k))^2}{n}right)} \
&sim& frac{k ln(k)}{n}
end{eqnarray*}

Which implies that $frac{k ln(k)}{n} to 0$, which is property 3).



And finally, we prove that $3) Longrightarrow 1)$. We assume $k ln(k) = o(n)$. Let $epsilon > 0$ be a fixed parameter. We prove that for $a$ sufficiently large
$$frac{ln(k) - epsilon}{n} < y < frac{ln(k) + epsilon}{n}$$
To do that, we compute the asymptotic expansion of $f_{a,b}left(1+ frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}right)$ and look at its sign. Indeed we have
begin{eqnarray*}
left(1 + frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}right)^n &=& e^{n lnleft(1+ frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}right)}\
&=& e^{(ln(k) pm epsilon) - frac{(ln(k) pm epsilon)^2}{2n} + oleft(frac{(ln k pm epsilon)^2}{2n}right)}\
&=& k , e^{pmepsilon} e^{- frac{(ln(k) pm epsilon)^2}{2n} + oleft(frac{(ln k pm epsilon)^2}{2n}right)}\
&=& k , e^{pmepsilon} + o(k)
end{eqnarray*}

And
begin{eqnarray*}
frac{left(1 + frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}right)^k-1}{frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}} &=& frac{n}{ln(k) pm epsilon} left(e^{k lnleft(1+ frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}right)}-1right) \
&=& frac{n}{ln(k) pm epsilon} left(e^{frac{k(ln(k) pm epsilon)}{n} + oleft(frac{k(ln(k) pm epsilon)}{n}right)} - 1 right)\
&=& k + o(k)
end{eqnarray*}

So we finally get
$$f_{a,b}left(1+ frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}right) sim (e^{pmepsilon}-1) , k $$
This means that for $a$ sufficiently large, we have $f_{a,b}left(1+ frac{ln(k) - epsilon}{n}right) < 0$ and $f_{a,b}left(1+ frac{ln(k) + epsilon}{n}right) > 0$ and so there is a root of $f_{a,b}$ between those two boundaries. But because there is only one positive root, it must be $y$, and we deduce
$$frac{ln(k) - epsilon}{n} < y < frac{ln(k) + epsilon}{n}$$



And now we can asymptotically bound the quantity $y (1+y)^n$ by



$$ underbrace{frac{ln(k) - epsilon}{n} left(1 + frac{ln(k) - epsilon}{n}right)^n}_{sim frac{k (ln(k)-epsilon) e^{-epsilon}}{n}} < y (1+y)^n < underbrace{frac{ln(k) + epsilon}{n} left(1 + frac{ln(k) + epsilon}{n}right)^n }_{sim frac{k (ln(k)+epsilon) e^{epsilon}}{n}}$$



where both bounds converge to $0$ from the assumption that $k ln(k) = o(n)$. Which proves 1).






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



For brevity, I will denote $n = 2b$, $k = b-a$ and drop the index $a,b$ in $y := y_{a,b}$. Our equation is
$$(1+y)^n = frac{(1+y)^k - 1}{y}$$
which we can rewrite as
$$(1+y)^k = 1 + y (1+y)^n$$
and taking logarithms, we get
$$k ln(1+y) = ln(1 + y (1+y)^n)$$
Now, assuming $y (1+y)^n underset{a to infty}{longrightarrow} 0$, we get the equivalents
$$k y underset{a to infty}{sim} y (1+y)^n$$
dividing by $y$ and taking logarithms yields
$$ln(k) underset{a to infty}{sim} n ln(1+y) underset{a to infty}{sim} n y$$
and finally we get
$$y underset{a to infty}{sim} frac{ln(k)}{n} = frac{ln(b-a)}{2b}$$





EDIT : There was a mistake initially in assuming the condition $y (1+y)^n underset{a to infty}{longrightarrow} 0$ was automatic, but it's only true under the assumption that $k ln(k) = o(n)$. In this section, we prove the following three properties are equivalent :



1) $y (1+y)^n underset{a to infty}{longrightarrow} 0$



2) $y sim frac{ln(k)}{n}$



3) $k ln(k) = o(n)$



We have just proved that $1) Longrightarrow 2)$.



Let's prove $2) Longrightarrow 3)$. We assume 2), that is $y sim frac{ln(k)}{n}$. We can then compute that
begin{eqnarray*}
y (1+y)^n &=& frac{ln(k)}{n} e^{n ln(1 + frac{ln(k)}{n})} \
&=& frac{ln(k)}{n} e^{ln(k) - frac{(ln(k))^2}{2n} + oleft(frac{(ln(k))^2}{n}right)} \
&=& frac{ln(k)}{n} k , e^{- frac{(ln(k))^2}{2n} + oleft(frac{(ln(k))^2}{n}right)} \
&sim& frac{k ln(k)}{n}
end{eqnarray*}

Which implies that $frac{k ln(k)}{n} to 0$, which is property 3).



And finally, we prove that $3) Longrightarrow 1)$. We assume $k ln(k) = o(n)$. Let $epsilon > 0$ be a fixed parameter. We prove that for $a$ sufficiently large
$$frac{ln(k) - epsilon}{n} < y < frac{ln(k) + epsilon}{n}$$
To do that, we compute the asymptotic expansion of $f_{a,b}left(1+ frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}right)$ and look at its sign. Indeed we have
begin{eqnarray*}
left(1 + frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}right)^n &=& e^{n lnleft(1+ frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}right)}\
&=& e^{(ln(k) pm epsilon) - frac{(ln(k) pm epsilon)^2}{2n} + oleft(frac{(ln k pm epsilon)^2}{2n}right)}\
&=& k , e^{pmepsilon} e^{- frac{(ln(k) pm epsilon)^2}{2n} + oleft(frac{(ln k pm epsilon)^2}{2n}right)}\
&=& k , e^{pmepsilon} + o(k)
end{eqnarray*}

And
begin{eqnarray*}
frac{left(1 + frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}right)^k-1}{frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}} &=& frac{n}{ln(k) pm epsilon} left(e^{k lnleft(1+ frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}right)}-1right) \
&=& frac{n}{ln(k) pm epsilon} left(e^{frac{k(ln(k) pm epsilon)}{n} + oleft(frac{k(ln(k) pm epsilon)}{n}right)} - 1 right)\
&=& k + o(k)
end{eqnarray*}

So we finally get
$$f_{a,b}left(1+ frac{ln(k) pm epsilon}{n}right) sim (e^{pmepsilon}-1) , k $$
This means that for $a$ sufficiently large, we have $f_{a,b}left(1+ frac{ln(k) - epsilon}{n}right) < 0$ and $f_{a,b}left(1+ frac{ln(k) + epsilon}{n}right) > 0$ and so there is a root of $f_{a,b}$ between those two boundaries. But because there is only one positive root, it must be $y$, and we deduce
$$frac{ln(k) - epsilon}{n} < y < frac{ln(k) + epsilon}{n}$$



And now we can asymptotically bound the quantity $y (1+y)^n$ by



$$ underbrace{frac{ln(k) - epsilon}{n} left(1 + frac{ln(k) - epsilon}{n}right)^n}_{sim frac{k (ln(k)-epsilon) e^{-epsilon}}{n}} < y (1+y)^n < underbrace{frac{ln(k) + epsilon}{n} left(1 + frac{ln(k) + epsilon}{n}right)^n }_{sim frac{k (ln(k)+epsilon) e^{epsilon}}{n}}$$



where both bounds converge to $0$ from the assumption that $k ln(k) = o(n)$. Which proves 1).







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Dec 23 '18 at 2:16

























answered Dec 22 '18 at 20:05









Joel CohenJoel Cohen

7,44412238




7,44412238












  • $begingroup$
    Where does the condition $kln(k)=o(n)$ come from? Of course , you showed the equivalences but what is the origin of this condition? How to see that $y(1+y)^nto 0$ if and only if this condition holds? Is it possible to say this directly without using statement 2? Or asked in other words: How did you find this condition to be necessary? The factor $y$ tends to $0$ and the factor $(1+y)^n$ then needs to exist, right? Is $kln(k)=o(n)$ necessary to have convergence of $(1+y)^n$?
    $endgroup$
    – J. Doe
    Dec 23 '18 at 10:42








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Those are good questions. In hindsight, my approach can be simplified, and contains a mistake (we have $1) Leftrightarrow 3)$ and $1) Rightarrow 2)$ but I don't think $2) Rightarrow 1)$). I'll try to update to correct the mistake and take a simpler approach (using the fact the condition $y (1+y)^n$ is actually equivalent to $ky to 0$, which simplifies the proof).
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Cohen
    Dec 23 '18 at 11:18












  • $begingroup$
    I think you are pointing to the following: 1) implies 2) and 3). On the other hand, 2) and 3) together imply $kysimfrac{kln k}{n}to 0$ as $atoinfty$. Using $e^{ky}sim e^{kln(1+y)}=(1+y)^k=1+y(1+y)^n$ and $e^{ky}to e^0=1$ as $atoinfty$, this implies that the RHS tends to $1$, i.e. $1+y(1+y)^nto 1$ as $atoinfty$, meaning that $y(1+y)^nto 0$ as $atoinfty$. Hence, 1) exactly if $kyto 0$ as $atoinfty$. - - In particular, if $b-a=textrm{const}$, the condition $kyto 0$ as $atoinfty$ is satisfied; at least, if $b-a$ is no multiple of $e$ (which I think has to be excluded?)-
    $endgroup$
    – J. Doe
    Dec 25 '18 at 16:22












  • $begingroup$
    Addendum: For example, $b=2a$ would not fit into the framework (unless we assume that $y=o(1/a)$ as $atoinfty$ in order to ensure that $kyto 0$ as $atoinfty$)?
    $endgroup$
    – J. Doe
    Dec 26 '18 at 11:04












  • $begingroup$
    Yes $y(1+y)^n to 0$ is equivalent to $(1+y)^k to 1$ (from equation $(*)$). And taking logarithms, this is equivalent to $k ln(1+y) to 0$, which is equivalent to $kyto 0$ (because $ln(1+y) sim y$).
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Cohen
    Dec 27 '18 at 12:07


















  • $begingroup$
    Where does the condition $kln(k)=o(n)$ come from? Of course , you showed the equivalences but what is the origin of this condition? How to see that $y(1+y)^nto 0$ if and only if this condition holds? Is it possible to say this directly without using statement 2? Or asked in other words: How did you find this condition to be necessary? The factor $y$ tends to $0$ and the factor $(1+y)^n$ then needs to exist, right? Is $kln(k)=o(n)$ necessary to have convergence of $(1+y)^n$?
    $endgroup$
    – J. Doe
    Dec 23 '18 at 10:42








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Those are good questions. In hindsight, my approach can be simplified, and contains a mistake (we have $1) Leftrightarrow 3)$ and $1) Rightarrow 2)$ but I don't think $2) Rightarrow 1)$). I'll try to update to correct the mistake and take a simpler approach (using the fact the condition $y (1+y)^n$ is actually equivalent to $ky to 0$, which simplifies the proof).
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Cohen
    Dec 23 '18 at 11:18












  • $begingroup$
    I think you are pointing to the following: 1) implies 2) and 3). On the other hand, 2) and 3) together imply $kysimfrac{kln k}{n}to 0$ as $atoinfty$. Using $e^{ky}sim e^{kln(1+y)}=(1+y)^k=1+y(1+y)^n$ and $e^{ky}to e^0=1$ as $atoinfty$, this implies that the RHS tends to $1$, i.e. $1+y(1+y)^nto 1$ as $atoinfty$, meaning that $y(1+y)^nto 0$ as $atoinfty$. Hence, 1) exactly if $kyto 0$ as $atoinfty$. - - In particular, if $b-a=textrm{const}$, the condition $kyto 0$ as $atoinfty$ is satisfied; at least, if $b-a$ is no multiple of $e$ (which I think has to be excluded?)-
    $endgroup$
    – J. Doe
    Dec 25 '18 at 16:22












  • $begingroup$
    Addendum: For example, $b=2a$ would not fit into the framework (unless we assume that $y=o(1/a)$ as $atoinfty$ in order to ensure that $kyto 0$ as $atoinfty$)?
    $endgroup$
    – J. Doe
    Dec 26 '18 at 11:04












  • $begingroup$
    Yes $y(1+y)^n to 0$ is equivalent to $(1+y)^k to 1$ (from equation $(*)$). And taking logarithms, this is equivalent to $k ln(1+y) to 0$, which is equivalent to $kyto 0$ (because $ln(1+y) sim y$).
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Cohen
    Dec 27 '18 at 12:07
















$begingroup$
Where does the condition $kln(k)=o(n)$ come from? Of course , you showed the equivalences but what is the origin of this condition? How to see that $y(1+y)^nto 0$ if and only if this condition holds? Is it possible to say this directly without using statement 2? Or asked in other words: How did you find this condition to be necessary? The factor $y$ tends to $0$ and the factor $(1+y)^n$ then needs to exist, right? Is $kln(k)=o(n)$ necessary to have convergence of $(1+y)^n$?
$endgroup$
– J. Doe
Dec 23 '18 at 10:42






$begingroup$
Where does the condition $kln(k)=o(n)$ come from? Of course , you showed the equivalences but what is the origin of this condition? How to see that $y(1+y)^nto 0$ if and only if this condition holds? Is it possible to say this directly without using statement 2? Or asked in other words: How did you find this condition to be necessary? The factor $y$ tends to $0$ and the factor $(1+y)^n$ then needs to exist, right? Is $kln(k)=o(n)$ necessary to have convergence of $(1+y)^n$?
$endgroup$
– J. Doe
Dec 23 '18 at 10:42






1




1




$begingroup$
Those are good questions. In hindsight, my approach can be simplified, and contains a mistake (we have $1) Leftrightarrow 3)$ and $1) Rightarrow 2)$ but I don't think $2) Rightarrow 1)$). I'll try to update to correct the mistake and take a simpler approach (using the fact the condition $y (1+y)^n$ is actually equivalent to $ky to 0$, which simplifies the proof).
$endgroup$
– Joel Cohen
Dec 23 '18 at 11:18






$begingroup$
Those are good questions. In hindsight, my approach can be simplified, and contains a mistake (we have $1) Leftrightarrow 3)$ and $1) Rightarrow 2)$ but I don't think $2) Rightarrow 1)$). I'll try to update to correct the mistake and take a simpler approach (using the fact the condition $y (1+y)^n$ is actually equivalent to $ky to 0$, which simplifies the proof).
$endgroup$
– Joel Cohen
Dec 23 '18 at 11:18














$begingroup$
I think you are pointing to the following: 1) implies 2) and 3). On the other hand, 2) and 3) together imply $kysimfrac{kln k}{n}to 0$ as $atoinfty$. Using $e^{ky}sim e^{kln(1+y)}=(1+y)^k=1+y(1+y)^n$ and $e^{ky}to e^0=1$ as $atoinfty$, this implies that the RHS tends to $1$, i.e. $1+y(1+y)^nto 1$ as $atoinfty$, meaning that $y(1+y)^nto 0$ as $atoinfty$. Hence, 1) exactly if $kyto 0$ as $atoinfty$. - - In particular, if $b-a=textrm{const}$, the condition $kyto 0$ as $atoinfty$ is satisfied; at least, if $b-a$ is no multiple of $e$ (which I think has to be excluded?)-
$endgroup$
– J. Doe
Dec 25 '18 at 16:22






$begingroup$
I think you are pointing to the following: 1) implies 2) and 3). On the other hand, 2) and 3) together imply $kysimfrac{kln k}{n}to 0$ as $atoinfty$. Using $e^{ky}sim e^{kln(1+y)}=(1+y)^k=1+y(1+y)^n$ and $e^{ky}to e^0=1$ as $atoinfty$, this implies that the RHS tends to $1$, i.e. $1+y(1+y)^nto 1$ as $atoinfty$, meaning that $y(1+y)^nto 0$ as $atoinfty$. Hence, 1) exactly if $kyto 0$ as $atoinfty$. - - In particular, if $b-a=textrm{const}$, the condition $kyto 0$ as $atoinfty$ is satisfied; at least, if $b-a$ is no multiple of $e$ (which I think has to be excluded?)-
$endgroup$
– J. Doe
Dec 25 '18 at 16:22














$begingroup$
Addendum: For example, $b=2a$ would not fit into the framework (unless we assume that $y=o(1/a)$ as $atoinfty$ in order to ensure that $kyto 0$ as $atoinfty$)?
$endgroup$
– J. Doe
Dec 26 '18 at 11:04






$begingroup$
Addendum: For example, $b=2a$ would not fit into the framework (unless we assume that $y=o(1/a)$ as $atoinfty$ in order to ensure that $kyto 0$ as $atoinfty$)?
$endgroup$
– J. Doe
Dec 26 '18 at 11:04














$begingroup$
Yes $y(1+y)^n to 0$ is equivalent to $(1+y)^k to 1$ (from equation $(*)$). And taking logarithms, this is equivalent to $k ln(1+y) to 0$, which is equivalent to $kyto 0$ (because $ln(1+y) sim y$).
$endgroup$
– Joel Cohen
Dec 27 '18 at 12:07




$begingroup$
Yes $y(1+y)^n to 0$ is equivalent to $(1+y)^k to 1$ (from equation $(*)$). And taking logarithms, this is equivalent to $k ln(1+y) to 0$, which is equivalent to $kyto 0$ (because $ln(1+y) sim y$).
$endgroup$
– Joel Cohen
Dec 27 '18 at 12:07


















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