Wanted to check if this proof is correct [Polynomials, 1st year university]












1












$begingroup$


WTP: If $Pin {Bbb C[x]}$ has a leading coefficient $a_n$, then P factorises completely into linear factors in $Bbb C$,
$$P(x) = a_n(x - alpha)(x - alpha_1)(x - alpha_2)ldots(x - alpha_n)$$



I have been told to use induction on $n$ (ignored base case here). Firstly I let the degree of P be $n$ ($n > 0$) and assumed that the result is true for polynomials of degree at most $n-1$. We know that P has at least one root in $Bbb C$ due to Fundamental Theorem of Algebra. Let us call that root $alpha$ which then implies that $(x-alpha)$ divides $P$. We then rewrite $P$ in the form of $P = (x-alpha)Q$ where the degree of $Q$ is $n-1$. Then by the inductive assumption, we know that $Q$ can be expressed in the form shown in the statement above i.e
$$ Q(x) = a_n(x - alpha)(x - alpha_1)(x - alpha_2)ldots(x - alpha_n)$$



As $P = (x-alpha)Q$, we can see that $P$ can be written in the form required.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Looks fine to me
    $endgroup$
    – Riquelme
    Dec 15 '18 at 21:51










  • $begingroup$
    @forward_behind you need to prove the base case in your induction argument.
    $endgroup$
    – Mustafa Said
    Dec 15 '18 at 22:19










  • $begingroup$
    Yeah I know, I just wanted to clarify the main body of the proof. Thanks for the help guys
    $endgroup$
    – forward_behind
    Dec 15 '18 at 22:48
















1












$begingroup$


WTP: If $Pin {Bbb C[x]}$ has a leading coefficient $a_n$, then P factorises completely into linear factors in $Bbb C$,
$$P(x) = a_n(x - alpha)(x - alpha_1)(x - alpha_2)ldots(x - alpha_n)$$



I have been told to use induction on $n$ (ignored base case here). Firstly I let the degree of P be $n$ ($n > 0$) and assumed that the result is true for polynomials of degree at most $n-1$. We know that P has at least one root in $Bbb C$ due to Fundamental Theorem of Algebra. Let us call that root $alpha$ which then implies that $(x-alpha)$ divides $P$. We then rewrite $P$ in the form of $P = (x-alpha)Q$ where the degree of $Q$ is $n-1$. Then by the inductive assumption, we know that $Q$ can be expressed in the form shown in the statement above i.e
$$ Q(x) = a_n(x - alpha)(x - alpha_1)(x - alpha_2)ldots(x - alpha_n)$$



As $P = (x-alpha)Q$, we can see that $P$ can be written in the form required.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Looks fine to me
    $endgroup$
    – Riquelme
    Dec 15 '18 at 21:51










  • $begingroup$
    @forward_behind you need to prove the base case in your induction argument.
    $endgroup$
    – Mustafa Said
    Dec 15 '18 at 22:19










  • $begingroup$
    Yeah I know, I just wanted to clarify the main body of the proof. Thanks for the help guys
    $endgroup$
    – forward_behind
    Dec 15 '18 at 22:48














1












1








1





$begingroup$


WTP: If $Pin {Bbb C[x]}$ has a leading coefficient $a_n$, then P factorises completely into linear factors in $Bbb C$,
$$P(x) = a_n(x - alpha)(x - alpha_1)(x - alpha_2)ldots(x - alpha_n)$$



I have been told to use induction on $n$ (ignored base case here). Firstly I let the degree of P be $n$ ($n > 0$) and assumed that the result is true for polynomials of degree at most $n-1$. We know that P has at least one root in $Bbb C$ due to Fundamental Theorem of Algebra. Let us call that root $alpha$ which then implies that $(x-alpha)$ divides $P$. We then rewrite $P$ in the form of $P = (x-alpha)Q$ where the degree of $Q$ is $n-1$. Then by the inductive assumption, we know that $Q$ can be expressed in the form shown in the statement above i.e
$$ Q(x) = a_n(x - alpha)(x - alpha_1)(x - alpha_2)ldots(x - alpha_n)$$



As $P = (x-alpha)Q$, we can see that $P$ can be written in the form required.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




WTP: If $Pin {Bbb C[x]}$ has a leading coefficient $a_n$, then P factorises completely into linear factors in $Bbb C$,
$$P(x) = a_n(x - alpha)(x - alpha_1)(x - alpha_2)ldots(x - alpha_n)$$



I have been told to use induction on $n$ (ignored base case here). Firstly I let the degree of P be $n$ ($n > 0$) and assumed that the result is true for polynomials of degree at most $n-1$. We know that P has at least one root in $Bbb C$ due to Fundamental Theorem of Algebra. Let us call that root $alpha$ which then implies that $(x-alpha)$ divides $P$. We then rewrite $P$ in the form of $P = (x-alpha)Q$ where the degree of $Q$ is $n-1$. Then by the inductive assumption, we know that $Q$ can be expressed in the form shown in the statement above i.e
$$ Q(x) = a_n(x - alpha)(x - alpha_1)(x - alpha_2)ldots(x - alpha_n)$$



As $P = (x-alpha)Q$, we can see that $P$ can be written in the form required.







polynomials






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 15 '18 at 22:14









DreaDk

6461318




6461318










asked Dec 15 '18 at 21:46









forward_behindforward_behind

62




62












  • $begingroup$
    Looks fine to me
    $endgroup$
    – Riquelme
    Dec 15 '18 at 21:51










  • $begingroup$
    @forward_behind you need to prove the base case in your induction argument.
    $endgroup$
    – Mustafa Said
    Dec 15 '18 at 22:19










  • $begingroup$
    Yeah I know, I just wanted to clarify the main body of the proof. Thanks for the help guys
    $endgroup$
    – forward_behind
    Dec 15 '18 at 22:48


















  • $begingroup$
    Looks fine to me
    $endgroup$
    – Riquelme
    Dec 15 '18 at 21:51










  • $begingroup$
    @forward_behind you need to prove the base case in your induction argument.
    $endgroup$
    – Mustafa Said
    Dec 15 '18 at 22:19










  • $begingroup$
    Yeah I know, I just wanted to clarify the main body of the proof. Thanks for the help guys
    $endgroup$
    – forward_behind
    Dec 15 '18 at 22:48
















$begingroup$
Looks fine to me
$endgroup$
– Riquelme
Dec 15 '18 at 21:51




$begingroup$
Looks fine to me
$endgroup$
– Riquelme
Dec 15 '18 at 21:51












$begingroup$
@forward_behind you need to prove the base case in your induction argument.
$endgroup$
– Mustafa Said
Dec 15 '18 at 22:19




$begingroup$
@forward_behind you need to prove the base case in your induction argument.
$endgroup$
– Mustafa Said
Dec 15 '18 at 22:19












$begingroup$
Yeah I know, I just wanted to clarify the main body of the proof. Thanks for the help guys
$endgroup$
– forward_behind
Dec 15 '18 at 22:48




$begingroup$
Yeah I know, I just wanted to clarify the main body of the proof. Thanks for the help guys
$endgroup$
– forward_behind
Dec 15 '18 at 22:48










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