Proof verification. Show that if ${x_n}$ diverges then there must be a sequence ${p_n}subsetBbb N$ such that...












0












$begingroup$



Let ${x_n}$ denote a non-convergent sequence. Show that there exists a sequence of natural numbers ${p_n} subset Bbb N$ such that:
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}(x_{n+p_n} - x_n) ne 0
$$




Suppose that:
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}(x_{n+p_n} - x_n) = 0
$$



Clearly $n+p_n > n$. Denote $n+p_n = m_n$:
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}(x_{m_n} - x_n) = 0 iff forall epsilon > 0 exists N inBbb N: forall m_n > n > N implies |x_{m_n} - x_n| < epsilon
$$

which denotes a Cauchy Criterion for the sequence $x_n$. If $x_n$ is fundamental then it must converge to some limit, but from the problem statement $x_n$ is divergent and hence we've arrived at a contradiction.



Therefore for $x_n$ to be divergent there must exist some sequence ${p_n}$ for which:
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}(x_{n+p_n} - x_n) ne 0
$$



Please let me know whether there is anything wrong with the proof or whether it's fine. Thank you!










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$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    As Rafay Ashary noted, there's a problem with the reformulation. Something like "for every sequence $p_n$" should appear on both sides of the equivalence. Here, it seems to appear in the wrong place in the RHS, and it doesn't appear in the LHS at all.
    $endgroup$
    – Michał Miśkiewicz
    Dec 26 '18 at 18:03












  • $begingroup$
    A visualization of the idea from @RafayAshary answer. Just for the case
    $endgroup$
    – roman
    Dec 26 '18 at 18:36


















0












$begingroup$



Let ${x_n}$ denote a non-convergent sequence. Show that there exists a sequence of natural numbers ${p_n} subset Bbb N$ such that:
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}(x_{n+p_n} - x_n) ne 0
$$




Suppose that:
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}(x_{n+p_n} - x_n) = 0
$$



Clearly $n+p_n > n$. Denote $n+p_n = m_n$:
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}(x_{m_n} - x_n) = 0 iff forall epsilon > 0 exists N inBbb N: forall m_n > n > N implies |x_{m_n} - x_n| < epsilon
$$

which denotes a Cauchy Criterion for the sequence $x_n$. If $x_n$ is fundamental then it must converge to some limit, but from the problem statement $x_n$ is divergent and hence we've arrived at a contradiction.



Therefore for $x_n$ to be divergent there must exist some sequence ${p_n}$ for which:
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}(x_{n+p_n} - x_n) ne 0
$$



Please let me know whether there is anything wrong with the proof or whether it's fine. Thank you!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    As Rafay Ashary noted, there's a problem with the reformulation. Something like "for every sequence $p_n$" should appear on both sides of the equivalence. Here, it seems to appear in the wrong place in the RHS, and it doesn't appear in the LHS at all.
    $endgroup$
    – Michał Miśkiewicz
    Dec 26 '18 at 18:03












  • $begingroup$
    A visualization of the idea from @RafayAshary answer. Just for the case
    $endgroup$
    – roman
    Dec 26 '18 at 18:36
















0












0








0





$begingroup$



Let ${x_n}$ denote a non-convergent sequence. Show that there exists a sequence of natural numbers ${p_n} subset Bbb N$ such that:
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}(x_{n+p_n} - x_n) ne 0
$$




Suppose that:
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}(x_{n+p_n} - x_n) = 0
$$



Clearly $n+p_n > n$. Denote $n+p_n = m_n$:
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}(x_{m_n} - x_n) = 0 iff forall epsilon > 0 exists N inBbb N: forall m_n > n > N implies |x_{m_n} - x_n| < epsilon
$$

which denotes a Cauchy Criterion for the sequence $x_n$. If $x_n$ is fundamental then it must converge to some limit, but from the problem statement $x_n$ is divergent and hence we've arrived at a contradiction.



Therefore for $x_n$ to be divergent there must exist some sequence ${p_n}$ for which:
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}(x_{n+p_n} - x_n) ne 0
$$



Please let me know whether there is anything wrong with the proof or whether it's fine. Thank you!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





Let ${x_n}$ denote a non-convergent sequence. Show that there exists a sequence of natural numbers ${p_n} subset Bbb N$ such that:
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}(x_{n+p_n} - x_n) ne 0
$$




Suppose that:
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}(x_{n+p_n} - x_n) = 0
$$



Clearly $n+p_n > n$. Denote $n+p_n = m_n$:
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}(x_{m_n} - x_n) = 0 iff forall epsilon > 0 exists N inBbb N: forall m_n > n > N implies |x_{m_n} - x_n| < epsilon
$$

which denotes a Cauchy Criterion for the sequence $x_n$. If $x_n$ is fundamental then it must converge to some limit, but from the problem statement $x_n$ is divergent and hence we've arrived at a contradiction.



Therefore for $x_n$ to be divergent there must exist some sequence ${p_n}$ for which:
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}(x_{n+p_n} - x_n) ne 0
$$



Please let me know whether there is anything wrong with the proof or whether it's fine. Thank you!







calculus limits proof-verification convergence






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 26 '18 at 16:11







roman

















asked Dec 26 '18 at 15:53









romanroman

2,50721226




2,50721226








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    As Rafay Ashary noted, there's a problem with the reformulation. Something like "for every sequence $p_n$" should appear on both sides of the equivalence. Here, it seems to appear in the wrong place in the RHS, and it doesn't appear in the LHS at all.
    $endgroup$
    – Michał Miśkiewicz
    Dec 26 '18 at 18:03












  • $begingroup$
    A visualization of the idea from @RafayAshary answer. Just for the case
    $endgroup$
    – roman
    Dec 26 '18 at 18:36
















  • 1




    $begingroup$
    As Rafay Ashary noted, there's a problem with the reformulation. Something like "for every sequence $p_n$" should appear on both sides of the equivalence. Here, it seems to appear in the wrong place in the RHS, and it doesn't appear in the LHS at all.
    $endgroup$
    – Michał Miśkiewicz
    Dec 26 '18 at 18:03












  • $begingroup$
    A visualization of the idea from @RafayAshary answer. Just for the case
    $endgroup$
    – roman
    Dec 26 '18 at 18:36










1




1




$begingroup$
As Rafay Ashary noted, there's a problem with the reformulation. Something like "for every sequence $p_n$" should appear on both sides of the equivalence. Here, it seems to appear in the wrong place in the RHS, and it doesn't appear in the LHS at all.
$endgroup$
– Michał Miśkiewicz
Dec 26 '18 at 18:03






$begingroup$
As Rafay Ashary noted, there's a problem with the reformulation. Something like "for every sequence $p_n$" should appear on both sides of the equivalence. Here, it seems to appear in the wrong place in the RHS, and it doesn't appear in the LHS at all.
$endgroup$
– Michał Miśkiewicz
Dec 26 '18 at 18:03














$begingroup$
A visualization of the idea from @RafayAshary answer. Just for the case
$endgroup$
– roman
Dec 26 '18 at 18:36






$begingroup$
A visualization of the idea from @RafayAshary answer. Just for the case
$endgroup$
– roman
Dec 26 '18 at 18:36












1 Answer
1






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2












$begingroup$

I don't see why $$lim_{ntoinfty}(x_{m_n} - x_n) = 0 iff forall epsilon > 0 exists N inBbb N: forall m_n > n > N implies |x_{m_n} - x_n| < epsilon$$
Implies that ${x_n}_{ninmathbb N}$ converges. (What if $m_n=n+1$ and $x_n=sum_{i=1}^n tfrac{1}{i}$?)



An alternative approach is to take $x^+=limsup_{ntoinfty}(x_n)$ and $x^-=liminf_{ntoinfty}(x_n)$. Then by assumption (specifically the non-convergence of $x_n$) we have that $x^+neq x^-$. Let $x^+-x^-=delta>0$. By definition the two sets $I^+={ninmathbb N:x_n>x^+-tfrac{1}{3}delta}$ and $I^-={ninmathbb N:x_n<x^-+tfrac{1}{3}delta}$ are disjoint and infinite. So for each $nin I^-$ we may choose $n+p_nin I^+$, in which case $$x_{n+p_n}-x_n>(x^+-tfrac{1}{3}delta)-(x^-+tfrac{1}{3}delta)=tfrac{1}{3}delta$$ And this situation occurs infinitely often, so $lim_{ntoinfty}(x_{n+p_n}-x)$ cannot possibly exist $Box$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 2




    $begingroup$
    in your counter example, you mean $$x_n=sum_{i=1}^n frac{1}{i}$$
    $endgroup$
    – John Doe
    Dec 26 '18 at 18:01












  • $begingroup$
    Yes, my apologies :)
    $endgroup$
    – Rafay Ashary
    Dec 26 '18 at 18:19










  • $begingroup$
    That's a nice way to approach the proof, thank you!
    $endgroup$
    – roman
    Dec 26 '18 at 18:37












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2












$begingroup$

I don't see why $$lim_{ntoinfty}(x_{m_n} - x_n) = 0 iff forall epsilon > 0 exists N inBbb N: forall m_n > n > N implies |x_{m_n} - x_n| < epsilon$$
Implies that ${x_n}_{ninmathbb N}$ converges. (What if $m_n=n+1$ and $x_n=sum_{i=1}^n tfrac{1}{i}$?)



An alternative approach is to take $x^+=limsup_{ntoinfty}(x_n)$ and $x^-=liminf_{ntoinfty}(x_n)$. Then by assumption (specifically the non-convergence of $x_n$) we have that $x^+neq x^-$. Let $x^+-x^-=delta>0$. By definition the two sets $I^+={ninmathbb N:x_n>x^+-tfrac{1}{3}delta}$ and $I^-={ninmathbb N:x_n<x^-+tfrac{1}{3}delta}$ are disjoint and infinite. So for each $nin I^-$ we may choose $n+p_nin I^+$, in which case $$x_{n+p_n}-x_n>(x^+-tfrac{1}{3}delta)-(x^-+tfrac{1}{3}delta)=tfrac{1}{3}delta$$ And this situation occurs infinitely often, so $lim_{ntoinfty}(x_{n+p_n}-x)$ cannot possibly exist $Box$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 2




    $begingroup$
    in your counter example, you mean $$x_n=sum_{i=1}^n frac{1}{i}$$
    $endgroup$
    – John Doe
    Dec 26 '18 at 18:01












  • $begingroup$
    Yes, my apologies :)
    $endgroup$
    – Rafay Ashary
    Dec 26 '18 at 18:19










  • $begingroup$
    That's a nice way to approach the proof, thank you!
    $endgroup$
    – roman
    Dec 26 '18 at 18:37
















2












$begingroup$

I don't see why $$lim_{ntoinfty}(x_{m_n} - x_n) = 0 iff forall epsilon > 0 exists N inBbb N: forall m_n > n > N implies |x_{m_n} - x_n| < epsilon$$
Implies that ${x_n}_{ninmathbb N}$ converges. (What if $m_n=n+1$ and $x_n=sum_{i=1}^n tfrac{1}{i}$?)



An alternative approach is to take $x^+=limsup_{ntoinfty}(x_n)$ and $x^-=liminf_{ntoinfty}(x_n)$. Then by assumption (specifically the non-convergence of $x_n$) we have that $x^+neq x^-$. Let $x^+-x^-=delta>0$. By definition the two sets $I^+={ninmathbb N:x_n>x^+-tfrac{1}{3}delta}$ and $I^-={ninmathbb N:x_n<x^-+tfrac{1}{3}delta}$ are disjoint and infinite. So for each $nin I^-$ we may choose $n+p_nin I^+$, in which case $$x_{n+p_n}-x_n>(x^+-tfrac{1}{3}delta)-(x^-+tfrac{1}{3}delta)=tfrac{1}{3}delta$$ And this situation occurs infinitely often, so $lim_{ntoinfty}(x_{n+p_n}-x)$ cannot possibly exist $Box$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 2




    $begingroup$
    in your counter example, you mean $$x_n=sum_{i=1}^n frac{1}{i}$$
    $endgroup$
    – John Doe
    Dec 26 '18 at 18:01












  • $begingroup$
    Yes, my apologies :)
    $endgroup$
    – Rafay Ashary
    Dec 26 '18 at 18:19










  • $begingroup$
    That's a nice way to approach the proof, thank you!
    $endgroup$
    – roman
    Dec 26 '18 at 18:37














2












2








2





$begingroup$

I don't see why $$lim_{ntoinfty}(x_{m_n} - x_n) = 0 iff forall epsilon > 0 exists N inBbb N: forall m_n > n > N implies |x_{m_n} - x_n| < epsilon$$
Implies that ${x_n}_{ninmathbb N}$ converges. (What if $m_n=n+1$ and $x_n=sum_{i=1}^n tfrac{1}{i}$?)



An alternative approach is to take $x^+=limsup_{ntoinfty}(x_n)$ and $x^-=liminf_{ntoinfty}(x_n)$. Then by assumption (specifically the non-convergence of $x_n$) we have that $x^+neq x^-$. Let $x^+-x^-=delta>0$. By definition the two sets $I^+={ninmathbb N:x_n>x^+-tfrac{1}{3}delta}$ and $I^-={ninmathbb N:x_n<x^-+tfrac{1}{3}delta}$ are disjoint and infinite. So for each $nin I^-$ we may choose $n+p_nin I^+$, in which case $$x_{n+p_n}-x_n>(x^+-tfrac{1}{3}delta)-(x^-+tfrac{1}{3}delta)=tfrac{1}{3}delta$$ And this situation occurs infinitely often, so $lim_{ntoinfty}(x_{n+p_n}-x)$ cannot possibly exist $Box$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



I don't see why $$lim_{ntoinfty}(x_{m_n} - x_n) = 0 iff forall epsilon > 0 exists N inBbb N: forall m_n > n > N implies |x_{m_n} - x_n| < epsilon$$
Implies that ${x_n}_{ninmathbb N}$ converges. (What if $m_n=n+1$ and $x_n=sum_{i=1}^n tfrac{1}{i}$?)



An alternative approach is to take $x^+=limsup_{ntoinfty}(x_n)$ and $x^-=liminf_{ntoinfty}(x_n)$. Then by assumption (specifically the non-convergence of $x_n$) we have that $x^+neq x^-$. Let $x^+-x^-=delta>0$. By definition the two sets $I^+={ninmathbb N:x_n>x^+-tfrac{1}{3}delta}$ and $I^-={ninmathbb N:x_n<x^-+tfrac{1}{3}delta}$ are disjoint and infinite. So for each $nin I^-$ we may choose $n+p_nin I^+$, in which case $$x_{n+p_n}-x_n>(x^+-tfrac{1}{3}delta)-(x^-+tfrac{1}{3}delta)=tfrac{1}{3}delta$$ And this situation occurs infinitely often, so $lim_{ntoinfty}(x_{n+p_n}-x)$ cannot possibly exist $Box$







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Dec 26 '18 at 18:19

























answered Dec 26 '18 at 17:56









Rafay AsharyRafay Ashary

84618




84618








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    in your counter example, you mean $$x_n=sum_{i=1}^n frac{1}{i}$$
    $endgroup$
    – John Doe
    Dec 26 '18 at 18:01












  • $begingroup$
    Yes, my apologies :)
    $endgroup$
    – Rafay Ashary
    Dec 26 '18 at 18:19










  • $begingroup$
    That's a nice way to approach the proof, thank you!
    $endgroup$
    – roman
    Dec 26 '18 at 18:37














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    in your counter example, you mean $$x_n=sum_{i=1}^n frac{1}{i}$$
    $endgroup$
    – John Doe
    Dec 26 '18 at 18:01












  • $begingroup$
    Yes, my apologies :)
    $endgroup$
    – Rafay Ashary
    Dec 26 '18 at 18:19










  • $begingroup$
    That's a nice way to approach the proof, thank you!
    $endgroup$
    – roman
    Dec 26 '18 at 18:37








2




2




$begingroup$
in your counter example, you mean $$x_n=sum_{i=1}^n frac{1}{i}$$
$endgroup$
– John Doe
Dec 26 '18 at 18:01






$begingroup$
in your counter example, you mean $$x_n=sum_{i=1}^n frac{1}{i}$$
$endgroup$
– John Doe
Dec 26 '18 at 18:01














$begingroup$
Yes, my apologies :)
$endgroup$
– Rafay Ashary
Dec 26 '18 at 18:19




$begingroup$
Yes, my apologies :)
$endgroup$
– Rafay Ashary
Dec 26 '18 at 18:19












$begingroup$
That's a nice way to approach the proof, thank you!
$endgroup$
– roman
Dec 26 '18 at 18:37




$begingroup$
That's a nice way to approach the proof, thank you!
$endgroup$
– roman
Dec 26 '18 at 18:37


















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