Dual space and kernel
Having X , a normed vector space and X* = B(X,R) its dual space ( R is the real numbers).
Show that for all f contained in X*, we have that Ker f included in X is a closed subspace.
Knowing that X* is a Banach space, since R is a complete space, does that make X a Banach space too ?
Needing a little help with this one.
real-analysis functional-analysis normed-spaces
add a comment |
Having X , a normed vector space and X* = B(X,R) its dual space ( R is the real numbers).
Show that for all f contained in X*, we have that Ker f included in X is a closed subspace.
Knowing that X* is a Banach space, since R is a complete space, does that make X a Banach space too ?
Needing a little help with this one.
real-analysis functional-analysis normed-spaces
It is not necessary for $X$ to be a Banach space. Indeed, however, $X^*$ will be a Banach space whether or not $X$ is complete (see this post for instance)
– Omnomnomnom
Nov 25 at 19:51
This answer really comes down to applying the definitions. In particular: what does $ker f$ mean, and what does it mean for a subspace to be closed?
– Omnomnomnom
Nov 25 at 19:52
add a comment |
Having X , a normed vector space and X* = B(X,R) its dual space ( R is the real numbers).
Show that for all f contained in X*, we have that Ker f included in X is a closed subspace.
Knowing that X* is a Banach space, since R is a complete space, does that make X a Banach space too ?
Needing a little help with this one.
real-analysis functional-analysis normed-spaces
Having X , a normed vector space and X* = B(X,R) its dual space ( R is the real numbers).
Show that for all f contained in X*, we have that Ker f included in X is a closed subspace.
Knowing that X* is a Banach space, since R is a complete space, does that make X a Banach space too ?
Needing a little help with this one.
real-analysis functional-analysis normed-spaces
real-analysis functional-analysis normed-spaces
edited Nov 25 at 19:53
Omnomnomnom
126k788176
126k788176
asked Nov 25 at 19:45
mimi
175
175
It is not necessary for $X$ to be a Banach space. Indeed, however, $X^*$ will be a Banach space whether or not $X$ is complete (see this post for instance)
– Omnomnomnom
Nov 25 at 19:51
This answer really comes down to applying the definitions. In particular: what does $ker f$ mean, and what does it mean for a subspace to be closed?
– Omnomnomnom
Nov 25 at 19:52
add a comment |
It is not necessary for $X$ to be a Banach space. Indeed, however, $X^*$ will be a Banach space whether or not $X$ is complete (see this post for instance)
– Omnomnomnom
Nov 25 at 19:51
This answer really comes down to applying the definitions. In particular: what does $ker f$ mean, and what does it mean for a subspace to be closed?
– Omnomnomnom
Nov 25 at 19:52
It is not necessary for $X$ to be a Banach space. Indeed, however, $X^*$ will be a Banach space whether or not $X$ is complete (see this post for instance)
– Omnomnomnom
Nov 25 at 19:51
It is not necessary for $X$ to be a Banach space. Indeed, however, $X^*$ will be a Banach space whether or not $X$ is complete (see this post for instance)
– Omnomnomnom
Nov 25 at 19:51
This answer really comes down to applying the definitions. In particular: what does $ker f$ mean, and what does it mean for a subspace to be closed?
– Omnomnomnom
Nov 25 at 19:52
This answer really comes down to applying the definitions. In particular: what does $ker f$ mean, and what does it mean for a subspace to be closed?
– Omnomnomnom
Nov 25 at 19:52
add a comment |
1 Answer
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That $ker f$ is a linear subspace is evident. To prove that it is closed, notice that $ker f = f^{-1}({0})$, which is the preimage of the closed set ${0}$ under the continuous map $f$.
This has nothing to do with $X$ being or not being a Banach space.
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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active
oldest
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That $ker f$ is a linear subspace is evident. To prove that it is closed, notice that $ker f = f^{-1}({0})$, which is the preimage of the closed set ${0}$ under the continuous map $f$.
This has nothing to do with $X$ being or not being a Banach space.
add a comment |
That $ker f$ is a linear subspace is evident. To prove that it is closed, notice that $ker f = f^{-1}({0})$, which is the preimage of the closed set ${0}$ under the continuous map $f$.
This has nothing to do with $X$ being or not being a Banach space.
add a comment |
That $ker f$ is a linear subspace is evident. To prove that it is closed, notice that $ker f = f^{-1}({0})$, which is the preimage of the closed set ${0}$ under the continuous map $f$.
This has nothing to do with $X$ being or not being a Banach space.
That $ker f$ is a linear subspace is evident. To prove that it is closed, notice that $ker f = f^{-1}({0})$, which is the preimage of the closed set ${0}$ under the continuous map $f$.
This has nothing to do with $X$ being or not being a Banach space.
answered Nov 25 at 19:48
MisterRiemann
5,7291624
5,7291624
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It is not necessary for $X$ to be a Banach space. Indeed, however, $X^*$ will be a Banach space whether or not $X$ is complete (see this post for instance)
– Omnomnomnom
Nov 25 at 19:51
This answer really comes down to applying the definitions. In particular: what does $ker f$ mean, and what does it mean for a subspace to be closed?
– Omnomnomnom
Nov 25 at 19:52