Find the value of $3tan^{-1}frac{1}{2}+2tan^{-1}frac{1}{5}+sin^{-1}frac{142}{65sqrt{5}}$












0












$begingroup$



Find the value of $3tan^{-1}left(dfrac{1}{2}right)+2tan^{-1}left(dfrac{1}{5}right)+sin^{-1}left(dfrac{142}{65sqrt{5}}right)$




My reference gives the solution $0$ to this problem.



My Attempt



$$
|x_1|=frac{1}{2}leqfrac{1}{sqrt{3}}implies
3tan^{-1}frac{1}{2}=tan^{-1}frac{frac{3}{2}-frac{1}{8}}{1-frac{3}{4}}=tan^{-1}frac{11}{2}\
|x_2|=frac{1}{5}<1implies2tan^{-1}dfrac{1}{5}=tan^{-1}frac{frac{2}{5}}{1-frac{1}{25}}=tan^{-1}frac{10}{24}=tan^{-1}frac{5}{12}\
XY=frac{11}{2}frac{5}{12}=frac{55}{24}>1quad&quad X,Y>0\
3tan^{-1}dfrac{1}{2}+2tan^{-1}dfrac{1}{5}=tan^{-1}frac{11}{2}+tan^{-1}frac{5}{12}=pi+tan^{-1}frac{frac{11}{2}+frac{5}{12}}{1-frac{11}{2}frac{5}{12}}\
=pi-tan^{-1}frac{142}{31}
$$

So I seem to get $pi$ as the answer, what is going wrong here ?










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  • 2




    $begingroup$
    That definitely looks positive to me!
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 11 '18 at 19:03










  • $begingroup$
    Your reference is wrong.You should compute the value numerically. This cannot prove your answer is right but it can show your reference is wrong.
    $endgroup$
    – achille hui
    Dec 11 '18 at 19:10
















0












$begingroup$



Find the value of $3tan^{-1}left(dfrac{1}{2}right)+2tan^{-1}left(dfrac{1}{5}right)+sin^{-1}left(dfrac{142}{65sqrt{5}}right)$




My reference gives the solution $0$ to this problem.



My Attempt



$$
|x_1|=frac{1}{2}leqfrac{1}{sqrt{3}}implies
3tan^{-1}frac{1}{2}=tan^{-1}frac{frac{3}{2}-frac{1}{8}}{1-frac{3}{4}}=tan^{-1}frac{11}{2}\
|x_2|=frac{1}{5}<1implies2tan^{-1}dfrac{1}{5}=tan^{-1}frac{frac{2}{5}}{1-frac{1}{25}}=tan^{-1}frac{10}{24}=tan^{-1}frac{5}{12}\
XY=frac{11}{2}frac{5}{12}=frac{55}{24}>1quad&quad X,Y>0\
3tan^{-1}dfrac{1}{2}+2tan^{-1}dfrac{1}{5}=tan^{-1}frac{11}{2}+tan^{-1}frac{5}{12}=pi+tan^{-1}frac{frac{11}{2}+frac{5}{12}}{1-frac{11}{2}frac{5}{12}}\
=pi-tan^{-1}frac{142}{31}
$$

So I seem to get $pi$ as the answer, what is going wrong here ?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    That definitely looks positive to me!
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 11 '18 at 19:03










  • $begingroup$
    Your reference is wrong.You should compute the value numerically. This cannot prove your answer is right but it can show your reference is wrong.
    $endgroup$
    – achille hui
    Dec 11 '18 at 19:10














0












0








0





$begingroup$



Find the value of $3tan^{-1}left(dfrac{1}{2}right)+2tan^{-1}left(dfrac{1}{5}right)+sin^{-1}left(dfrac{142}{65sqrt{5}}right)$




My reference gives the solution $0$ to this problem.



My Attempt



$$
|x_1|=frac{1}{2}leqfrac{1}{sqrt{3}}implies
3tan^{-1}frac{1}{2}=tan^{-1}frac{frac{3}{2}-frac{1}{8}}{1-frac{3}{4}}=tan^{-1}frac{11}{2}\
|x_2|=frac{1}{5}<1implies2tan^{-1}dfrac{1}{5}=tan^{-1}frac{frac{2}{5}}{1-frac{1}{25}}=tan^{-1}frac{10}{24}=tan^{-1}frac{5}{12}\
XY=frac{11}{2}frac{5}{12}=frac{55}{24}>1quad&quad X,Y>0\
3tan^{-1}dfrac{1}{2}+2tan^{-1}dfrac{1}{5}=tan^{-1}frac{11}{2}+tan^{-1}frac{5}{12}=pi+tan^{-1}frac{frac{11}{2}+frac{5}{12}}{1-frac{11}{2}frac{5}{12}}\
=pi-tan^{-1}frac{142}{31}
$$

So I seem to get $pi$ as the answer, what is going wrong here ?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





Find the value of $3tan^{-1}left(dfrac{1}{2}right)+2tan^{-1}left(dfrac{1}{5}right)+sin^{-1}left(dfrac{142}{65sqrt{5}}right)$




My reference gives the solution $0$ to this problem.



My Attempt



$$
|x_1|=frac{1}{2}leqfrac{1}{sqrt{3}}implies
3tan^{-1}frac{1}{2}=tan^{-1}frac{frac{3}{2}-frac{1}{8}}{1-frac{3}{4}}=tan^{-1}frac{11}{2}\
|x_2|=frac{1}{5}<1implies2tan^{-1}dfrac{1}{5}=tan^{-1}frac{frac{2}{5}}{1-frac{1}{25}}=tan^{-1}frac{10}{24}=tan^{-1}frac{5}{12}\
XY=frac{11}{2}frac{5}{12}=frac{55}{24}>1quad&quad X,Y>0\
3tan^{-1}dfrac{1}{2}+2tan^{-1}dfrac{1}{5}=tan^{-1}frac{11}{2}+tan^{-1}frac{5}{12}=pi+tan^{-1}frac{frac{11}{2}+frac{5}{12}}{1-frac{11}{2}frac{5}{12}}\
=pi-tan^{-1}frac{142}{31}
$$

So I seem to get $pi$ as the answer, what is going wrong here ?







trigonometry inverse-function






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edited Dec 11 '18 at 19:36









Lorenzo B.

1,8602520




1,8602520










asked Dec 11 '18 at 18:53









ss1729ss1729

1,9721923




1,9721923








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    That definitely looks positive to me!
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 11 '18 at 19:03










  • $begingroup$
    Your reference is wrong.You should compute the value numerically. This cannot prove your answer is right but it can show your reference is wrong.
    $endgroup$
    – achille hui
    Dec 11 '18 at 19:10














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    That definitely looks positive to me!
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 11 '18 at 19:03










  • $begingroup$
    Your reference is wrong.You should compute the value numerically. This cannot prove your answer is right but it can show your reference is wrong.
    $endgroup$
    – achille hui
    Dec 11 '18 at 19:10








2




2




$begingroup$
That definitely looks positive to me!
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Dec 11 '18 at 19:03




$begingroup$
That definitely looks positive to me!
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Dec 11 '18 at 19:03












$begingroup$
Your reference is wrong.You should compute the value numerically. This cannot prove your answer is right but it can show your reference is wrong.
$endgroup$
– achille hui
Dec 11 '18 at 19:10




$begingroup$
Your reference is wrong.You should compute the value numerically. This cannot prove your answer is right but it can show your reference is wrong.
$endgroup$
– achille hui
Dec 11 '18 at 19:10










1 Answer
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$begingroup$

Your reference is clearly wrong without calculating anything. Functions like $tan^{-1}$ and $sin^{-1}$ generate positive values for positive arguments, by convention. All your arguments are positive so the result must be positive too. Numeric check proves that your result is correct.






share|cite|improve this answer









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    0












    $begingroup$

    Your reference is clearly wrong without calculating anything. Functions like $tan^{-1}$ and $sin^{-1}$ generate positive values for positive arguments, by convention. All your arguments are positive so the result must be positive too. Numeric check proves that your result is correct.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      Your reference is clearly wrong without calculating anything. Functions like $tan^{-1}$ and $sin^{-1}$ generate positive values for positive arguments, by convention. All your arguments are positive so the result must be positive too. Numeric check proves that your result is correct.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        Your reference is clearly wrong without calculating anything. Functions like $tan^{-1}$ and $sin^{-1}$ generate positive values for positive arguments, by convention. All your arguments are positive so the result must be positive too. Numeric check proves that your result is correct.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Your reference is clearly wrong without calculating anything. Functions like $tan^{-1}$ and $sin^{-1}$ generate positive values for positive arguments, by convention. All your arguments are positive so the result must be positive too. Numeric check proves that your result is correct.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 11 '18 at 19:17









        OldboyOldboy

        8,4521936




        8,4521936






























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