Convergence with respect to $d_1(x,y)=sum^infty_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i-y_i|}{1+|x_i-y_i|}$ is equivalent...
$begingroup$
This was part of an exercise given to the students in my class last week which I wasn't sure how to do. The question starts by studying the metric $d_1$ defined on $mathbb{R}^infty={x=(x_i)mid iinmathbb{N}}$ given by
$$d_1(x,y)=sum^infty_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i-y_i|}{1+|x_i-y_i|},qquad x,yinmathbb{R}^infty.$$
The students are asked to show that this is indeed a metric and compare it with another metric defined on the same space, none of which is difficult. Finally the question asks to show that if $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{N}}subseteqmathbb{R}^infty$ is a sequence, then its convergence to a point $xinmathbb{R}^infty$ with respect to $d_1$ is equivalent to its pointwise convergence to the same point.
As I understand it, pointwise convergence should mean that for each $iinmathbb{N}$, and each real $epsilon>0$ there exists $N=N(epsilon,i)inmathbb{N}$ such that $|x^{(n)}_i-x_i|<epsilon$ whenever $n>N$.
Now one direction is clear to me, but proving that pointwise convergence implies $d_1$-convergence is not. Can anyone help me out with this direction?
What I need to show is that given any real $delta>0$ there exists $M=M(delta)inmathbb{N}$ such that
$$d_1(x^{(n)},x)=sum^infty_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x^{(n)}_i-x_i|}{1+|x^{(n)}_i-x_i|}<delta$$
whenever $n>M$, using the assumption of pointwise convergence which I believe to have interpreted correctly just above. The problem seems to be that whilst a suitable $M=M(epsilon,i)$ exists for each $i$, it is by no means clear to me that this collection of $M$s is bounded above.
Any help would be greatly appreciated.
sequences-and-series metric-spaces
$endgroup$
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
This was part of an exercise given to the students in my class last week which I wasn't sure how to do. The question starts by studying the metric $d_1$ defined on $mathbb{R}^infty={x=(x_i)mid iinmathbb{N}}$ given by
$$d_1(x,y)=sum^infty_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i-y_i|}{1+|x_i-y_i|},qquad x,yinmathbb{R}^infty.$$
The students are asked to show that this is indeed a metric and compare it with another metric defined on the same space, none of which is difficult. Finally the question asks to show that if $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{N}}subseteqmathbb{R}^infty$ is a sequence, then its convergence to a point $xinmathbb{R}^infty$ with respect to $d_1$ is equivalent to its pointwise convergence to the same point.
As I understand it, pointwise convergence should mean that for each $iinmathbb{N}$, and each real $epsilon>0$ there exists $N=N(epsilon,i)inmathbb{N}$ such that $|x^{(n)}_i-x_i|<epsilon$ whenever $n>N$.
Now one direction is clear to me, but proving that pointwise convergence implies $d_1$-convergence is not. Can anyone help me out with this direction?
What I need to show is that given any real $delta>0$ there exists $M=M(delta)inmathbb{N}$ such that
$$d_1(x^{(n)},x)=sum^infty_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x^{(n)}_i-x_i|}{1+|x^{(n)}_i-x_i|}<delta$$
whenever $n>M$, using the assumption of pointwise convergence which I believe to have interpreted correctly just above. The problem seems to be that whilst a suitable $M=M(epsilon,i)$ exists for each $i$, it is by no means clear to me that this collection of $M$s is bounded above.
Any help would be greatly appreciated.
sequences-and-series metric-spaces
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Is it okay that $d_1$ can be infinite? For example, define $x^{(n)}$ to be a sequence starting with $n$ zeros and then all ones. Its point-wise limit is a sequence consisting only of zeros. But the $d_1$-distance from any $x^{(n)}$ to the limit is infinite
$endgroup$
– Sasha Kozachinskiy
Dec 18 '18 at 17:25
$begingroup$
Usually the "mimic metric" for pointwise convergence is taken to be $$d(x,y)=sum_{n=1}^{infty}2^{-n}frac{|x_n-y_n|}{1+|x_n-y_n|}.$$
$endgroup$
– metamorphy
Dec 18 '18 at 17:31
$begingroup$
@SashaKozachinskiy, sorry about that, and thank you for pointing out the error. I have fixed the correct definition of the metric. Sorry for the confusion. metamorphy, I have corrected the mistake. Than you for pointing it out.
$endgroup$
– Tyrone
Dec 18 '18 at 17:31
1
$begingroup$
The crucial point to observe is that the $n$-th term in the series is always bounded above by $2^{-n}$, so you can make the tail of this series as small as you want, say smaller than $epsilon/2$...
$endgroup$
– Lukas Geyer
Dec 18 '18 at 17:33
$begingroup$
(Now you don't need the "boundedness" of $M$'s...)
$endgroup$
– metamorphy
Dec 18 '18 at 17:36
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
This was part of an exercise given to the students in my class last week which I wasn't sure how to do. The question starts by studying the metric $d_1$ defined on $mathbb{R}^infty={x=(x_i)mid iinmathbb{N}}$ given by
$$d_1(x,y)=sum^infty_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i-y_i|}{1+|x_i-y_i|},qquad x,yinmathbb{R}^infty.$$
The students are asked to show that this is indeed a metric and compare it with another metric defined on the same space, none of which is difficult. Finally the question asks to show that if $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{N}}subseteqmathbb{R}^infty$ is a sequence, then its convergence to a point $xinmathbb{R}^infty$ with respect to $d_1$ is equivalent to its pointwise convergence to the same point.
As I understand it, pointwise convergence should mean that for each $iinmathbb{N}$, and each real $epsilon>0$ there exists $N=N(epsilon,i)inmathbb{N}$ such that $|x^{(n)}_i-x_i|<epsilon$ whenever $n>N$.
Now one direction is clear to me, but proving that pointwise convergence implies $d_1$-convergence is not. Can anyone help me out with this direction?
What I need to show is that given any real $delta>0$ there exists $M=M(delta)inmathbb{N}$ such that
$$d_1(x^{(n)},x)=sum^infty_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x^{(n)}_i-x_i|}{1+|x^{(n)}_i-x_i|}<delta$$
whenever $n>M$, using the assumption of pointwise convergence which I believe to have interpreted correctly just above. The problem seems to be that whilst a suitable $M=M(epsilon,i)$ exists for each $i$, it is by no means clear to me that this collection of $M$s is bounded above.
Any help would be greatly appreciated.
sequences-and-series metric-spaces
$endgroup$
This was part of an exercise given to the students in my class last week which I wasn't sure how to do. The question starts by studying the metric $d_1$ defined on $mathbb{R}^infty={x=(x_i)mid iinmathbb{N}}$ given by
$$d_1(x,y)=sum^infty_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i-y_i|}{1+|x_i-y_i|},qquad x,yinmathbb{R}^infty.$$
The students are asked to show that this is indeed a metric and compare it with another metric defined on the same space, none of which is difficult. Finally the question asks to show that if $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{N}}subseteqmathbb{R}^infty$ is a sequence, then its convergence to a point $xinmathbb{R}^infty$ with respect to $d_1$ is equivalent to its pointwise convergence to the same point.
As I understand it, pointwise convergence should mean that for each $iinmathbb{N}$, and each real $epsilon>0$ there exists $N=N(epsilon,i)inmathbb{N}$ such that $|x^{(n)}_i-x_i|<epsilon$ whenever $n>N$.
Now one direction is clear to me, but proving that pointwise convergence implies $d_1$-convergence is not. Can anyone help me out with this direction?
What I need to show is that given any real $delta>0$ there exists $M=M(delta)inmathbb{N}$ such that
$$d_1(x^{(n)},x)=sum^infty_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x^{(n)}_i-x_i|}{1+|x^{(n)}_i-x_i|}<delta$$
whenever $n>M$, using the assumption of pointwise convergence which I believe to have interpreted correctly just above. The problem seems to be that whilst a suitable $M=M(epsilon,i)$ exists for each $i$, it is by no means clear to me that this collection of $M$s is bounded above.
Any help would be greatly appreciated.
sequences-and-series metric-spaces
sequences-and-series metric-spaces
edited Dec 18 '18 at 17:30
Tyrone
asked Dec 18 '18 at 17:11
TyroneTyrone
4,92511225
4,92511225
1
$begingroup$
Is it okay that $d_1$ can be infinite? For example, define $x^{(n)}$ to be a sequence starting with $n$ zeros and then all ones. Its point-wise limit is a sequence consisting only of zeros. But the $d_1$-distance from any $x^{(n)}$ to the limit is infinite
$endgroup$
– Sasha Kozachinskiy
Dec 18 '18 at 17:25
$begingroup$
Usually the "mimic metric" for pointwise convergence is taken to be $$d(x,y)=sum_{n=1}^{infty}2^{-n}frac{|x_n-y_n|}{1+|x_n-y_n|}.$$
$endgroup$
– metamorphy
Dec 18 '18 at 17:31
$begingroup$
@SashaKozachinskiy, sorry about that, and thank you for pointing out the error. I have fixed the correct definition of the metric. Sorry for the confusion. metamorphy, I have corrected the mistake. Than you for pointing it out.
$endgroup$
– Tyrone
Dec 18 '18 at 17:31
1
$begingroup$
The crucial point to observe is that the $n$-th term in the series is always bounded above by $2^{-n}$, so you can make the tail of this series as small as you want, say smaller than $epsilon/2$...
$endgroup$
– Lukas Geyer
Dec 18 '18 at 17:33
$begingroup$
(Now you don't need the "boundedness" of $M$'s...)
$endgroup$
– metamorphy
Dec 18 '18 at 17:36
|
show 1 more comment
1
$begingroup$
Is it okay that $d_1$ can be infinite? For example, define $x^{(n)}$ to be a sequence starting with $n$ zeros and then all ones. Its point-wise limit is a sequence consisting only of zeros. But the $d_1$-distance from any $x^{(n)}$ to the limit is infinite
$endgroup$
– Sasha Kozachinskiy
Dec 18 '18 at 17:25
$begingroup$
Usually the "mimic metric" for pointwise convergence is taken to be $$d(x,y)=sum_{n=1}^{infty}2^{-n}frac{|x_n-y_n|}{1+|x_n-y_n|}.$$
$endgroup$
– metamorphy
Dec 18 '18 at 17:31
$begingroup$
@SashaKozachinskiy, sorry about that, and thank you for pointing out the error. I have fixed the correct definition of the metric. Sorry for the confusion. metamorphy, I have corrected the mistake. Than you for pointing it out.
$endgroup$
– Tyrone
Dec 18 '18 at 17:31
1
$begingroup$
The crucial point to observe is that the $n$-th term in the series is always bounded above by $2^{-n}$, so you can make the tail of this series as small as you want, say smaller than $epsilon/2$...
$endgroup$
– Lukas Geyer
Dec 18 '18 at 17:33
$begingroup$
(Now you don't need the "boundedness" of $M$'s...)
$endgroup$
– metamorphy
Dec 18 '18 at 17:36
1
1
$begingroup$
Is it okay that $d_1$ can be infinite? For example, define $x^{(n)}$ to be a sequence starting with $n$ zeros and then all ones. Its point-wise limit is a sequence consisting only of zeros. But the $d_1$-distance from any $x^{(n)}$ to the limit is infinite
$endgroup$
– Sasha Kozachinskiy
Dec 18 '18 at 17:25
$begingroup$
Is it okay that $d_1$ can be infinite? For example, define $x^{(n)}$ to be a sequence starting with $n$ zeros and then all ones. Its point-wise limit is a sequence consisting only of zeros. But the $d_1$-distance from any $x^{(n)}$ to the limit is infinite
$endgroup$
– Sasha Kozachinskiy
Dec 18 '18 at 17:25
$begingroup$
Usually the "mimic metric" for pointwise convergence is taken to be $$d(x,y)=sum_{n=1}^{infty}2^{-n}frac{|x_n-y_n|}{1+|x_n-y_n|}.$$
$endgroup$
– metamorphy
Dec 18 '18 at 17:31
$begingroup$
Usually the "mimic metric" for pointwise convergence is taken to be $$d(x,y)=sum_{n=1}^{infty}2^{-n}frac{|x_n-y_n|}{1+|x_n-y_n|}.$$
$endgroup$
– metamorphy
Dec 18 '18 at 17:31
$begingroup$
@SashaKozachinskiy, sorry about that, and thank you for pointing out the error. I have fixed the correct definition of the metric. Sorry for the confusion. metamorphy, I have corrected the mistake. Than you for pointing it out.
$endgroup$
– Tyrone
Dec 18 '18 at 17:31
$begingroup$
@SashaKozachinskiy, sorry about that, and thank you for pointing out the error. I have fixed the correct definition of the metric. Sorry for the confusion. metamorphy, I have corrected the mistake. Than you for pointing it out.
$endgroup$
– Tyrone
Dec 18 '18 at 17:31
1
1
$begingroup$
The crucial point to observe is that the $n$-th term in the series is always bounded above by $2^{-n}$, so you can make the tail of this series as small as you want, say smaller than $epsilon/2$...
$endgroup$
– Lukas Geyer
Dec 18 '18 at 17:33
$begingroup$
The crucial point to observe is that the $n$-th term in the series is always bounded above by $2^{-n}$, so you can make the tail of this series as small as you want, say smaller than $epsilon/2$...
$endgroup$
– Lukas Geyer
Dec 18 '18 at 17:33
$begingroup$
(Now you don't need the "boundedness" of $M$'s...)
$endgroup$
– metamorphy
Dec 18 '18 at 17:36
$begingroup$
(Now you don't need the "boundedness" of $M$'s...)
$endgroup$
– metamorphy
Dec 18 '18 at 17:36
|
show 1 more comment
1 Answer
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$begingroup$
So this is the answer I ended up giving my students. I'll use the notation introduced in the question itself.
We assume that $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{n}}$ is a sequence converging pointwise to a point $xinmathbb{R}^infty$. We also assume given a real $delta>0$. Now, since for any $n$, the value $d_1(x^{(n)},x)$ is bounded above by the absolutely convergent series $sum^infty_{n=1}frac{1}{2^n}=1$ we can find for the given sequence $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{n}}$ an integer $K$ such that the inequality
$$sup_{ninmathbb{N}}left{sum^infty_{i=K+1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}right}<frac{delta}{2}$$
is satisfied. Notably $K$ is independent of $n$.
Now for each $i=1,dots,K$ we use the assumption of pointwise convergence to get integers $N_i$, $i=1,dots,K$, such that
$$|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|<frac{delta}{frac{2K}{2^i}-delta}.$$
Note that if necessary we are free to replace $K$ be any larger (but finite) integer so as to guarantee that $frac{2K}{2^i}-deltaneq 0$ for each $i$.
After a little rearranging we get from this that
$$sum^K_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}<sum^K_{i=1}frac{delta}{2K}=Kcdot frac{delta}{2K}=frac{delta}{2}$$
whenever $n>N:=max_{i}n_i$, and we use this to get
$$d_1(x^{(n)},x)=sum^infty_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}=sum^K_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}+sum^infty_{i=K+1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}<frac{delta}{2}+frac{delta}{2}=delta$$
which is enough to conclude that the sequence $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{N}}$ converges to $x$ with respect to the metric $d_1$. This is exactly what we needed to show, so we are done.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
So this is the answer I ended up giving my students. I'll use the notation introduced in the question itself.
We assume that $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{n}}$ is a sequence converging pointwise to a point $xinmathbb{R}^infty$. We also assume given a real $delta>0$. Now, since for any $n$, the value $d_1(x^{(n)},x)$ is bounded above by the absolutely convergent series $sum^infty_{n=1}frac{1}{2^n}=1$ we can find for the given sequence $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{n}}$ an integer $K$ such that the inequality
$$sup_{ninmathbb{N}}left{sum^infty_{i=K+1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}right}<frac{delta}{2}$$
is satisfied. Notably $K$ is independent of $n$.
Now for each $i=1,dots,K$ we use the assumption of pointwise convergence to get integers $N_i$, $i=1,dots,K$, such that
$$|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|<frac{delta}{frac{2K}{2^i}-delta}.$$
Note that if necessary we are free to replace $K$ be any larger (but finite) integer so as to guarantee that $frac{2K}{2^i}-deltaneq 0$ for each $i$.
After a little rearranging we get from this that
$$sum^K_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}<sum^K_{i=1}frac{delta}{2K}=Kcdot frac{delta}{2K}=frac{delta}{2}$$
whenever $n>N:=max_{i}n_i$, and we use this to get
$$d_1(x^{(n)},x)=sum^infty_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}=sum^K_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}+sum^infty_{i=K+1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}<frac{delta}{2}+frac{delta}{2}=delta$$
which is enough to conclude that the sequence $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{N}}$ converges to $x$ with respect to the metric $d_1$. This is exactly what we needed to show, so we are done.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
So this is the answer I ended up giving my students. I'll use the notation introduced in the question itself.
We assume that $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{n}}$ is a sequence converging pointwise to a point $xinmathbb{R}^infty$. We also assume given a real $delta>0$. Now, since for any $n$, the value $d_1(x^{(n)},x)$ is bounded above by the absolutely convergent series $sum^infty_{n=1}frac{1}{2^n}=1$ we can find for the given sequence $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{n}}$ an integer $K$ such that the inequality
$$sup_{ninmathbb{N}}left{sum^infty_{i=K+1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}right}<frac{delta}{2}$$
is satisfied. Notably $K$ is independent of $n$.
Now for each $i=1,dots,K$ we use the assumption of pointwise convergence to get integers $N_i$, $i=1,dots,K$, such that
$$|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|<frac{delta}{frac{2K}{2^i}-delta}.$$
Note that if necessary we are free to replace $K$ be any larger (but finite) integer so as to guarantee that $frac{2K}{2^i}-deltaneq 0$ for each $i$.
After a little rearranging we get from this that
$$sum^K_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}<sum^K_{i=1}frac{delta}{2K}=Kcdot frac{delta}{2K}=frac{delta}{2}$$
whenever $n>N:=max_{i}n_i$, and we use this to get
$$d_1(x^{(n)},x)=sum^infty_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}=sum^K_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}+sum^infty_{i=K+1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}<frac{delta}{2}+frac{delta}{2}=delta$$
which is enough to conclude that the sequence $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{N}}$ converges to $x$ with respect to the metric $d_1$. This is exactly what we needed to show, so we are done.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
So this is the answer I ended up giving my students. I'll use the notation introduced in the question itself.
We assume that $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{n}}$ is a sequence converging pointwise to a point $xinmathbb{R}^infty$. We also assume given a real $delta>0$. Now, since for any $n$, the value $d_1(x^{(n)},x)$ is bounded above by the absolutely convergent series $sum^infty_{n=1}frac{1}{2^n}=1$ we can find for the given sequence $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{n}}$ an integer $K$ such that the inequality
$$sup_{ninmathbb{N}}left{sum^infty_{i=K+1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}right}<frac{delta}{2}$$
is satisfied. Notably $K$ is independent of $n$.
Now for each $i=1,dots,K$ we use the assumption of pointwise convergence to get integers $N_i$, $i=1,dots,K$, such that
$$|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|<frac{delta}{frac{2K}{2^i}-delta}.$$
Note that if necessary we are free to replace $K$ be any larger (but finite) integer so as to guarantee that $frac{2K}{2^i}-deltaneq 0$ for each $i$.
After a little rearranging we get from this that
$$sum^K_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}<sum^K_{i=1}frac{delta}{2K}=Kcdot frac{delta}{2K}=frac{delta}{2}$$
whenever $n>N:=max_{i}n_i$, and we use this to get
$$d_1(x^{(n)},x)=sum^infty_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}=sum^K_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}+sum^infty_{i=K+1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}<frac{delta}{2}+frac{delta}{2}=delta$$
which is enough to conclude that the sequence $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{N}}$ converges to $x$ with respect to the metric $d_1$. This is exactly what we needed to show, so we are done.
$endgroup$
So this is the answer I ended up giving my students. I'll use the notation introduced in the question itself.
We assume that $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{n}}$ is a sequence converging pointwise to a point $xinmathbb{R}^infty$. We also assume given a real $delta>0$. Now, since for any $n$, the value $d_1(x^{(n)},x)$ is bounded above by the absolutely convergent series $sum^infty_{n=1}frac{1}{2^n}=1$ we can find for the given sequence $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{n}}$ an integer $K$ such that the inequality
$$sup_{ninmathbb{N}}left{sum^infty_{i=K+1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}right}<frac{delta}{2}$$
is satisfied. Notably $K$ is independent of $n$.
Now for each $i=1,dots,K$ we use the assumption of pointwise convergence to get integers $N_i$, $i=1,dots,K$, such that
$$|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|<frac{delta}{frac{2K}{2^i}-delta}.$$
Note that if necessary we are free to replace $K$ be any larger (but finite) integer so as to guarantee that $frac{2K}{2^i}-deltaneq 0$ for each $i$.
After a little rearranging we get from this that
$$sum^K_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}<sum^K_{i=1}frac{delta}{2K}=Kcdot frac{delta}{2K}=frac{delta}{2}$$
whenever $n>N:=max_{i}n_i$, and we use this to get
$$d_1(x^{(n)},x)=sum^infty_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}=sum^K_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}+sum^infty_{i=K+1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}<frac{delta}{2}+frac{delta}{2}=delta$$
which is enough to conclude that the sequence $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{N}}$ converges to $x$ with respect to the metric $d_1$. This is exactly what we needed to show, so we are done.
answered Jan 6 at 16:10
TyroneTyrone
4,92511225
4,92511225
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1
$begingroup$
Is it okay that $d_1$ can be infinite? For example, define $x^{(n)}$ to be a sequence starting with $n$ zeros and then all ones. Its point-wise limit is a sequence consisting only of zeros. But the $d_1$-distance from any $x^{(n)}$ to the limit is infinite
$endgroup$
– Sasha Kozachinskiy
Dec 18 '18 at 17:25
$begingroup$
Usually the "mimic metric" for pointwise convergence is taken to be $$d(x,y)=sum_{n=1}^{infty}2^{-n}frac{|x_n-y_n|}{1+|x_n-y_n|}.$$
$endgroup$
– metamorphy
Dec 18 '18 at 17:31
$begingroup$
@SashaKozachinskiy, sorry about that, and thank you for pointing out the error. I have fixed the correct definition of the metric. Sorry for the confusion. metamorphy, I have corrected the mistake. Than you for pointing it out.
$endgroup$
– Tyrone
Dec 18 '18 at 17:31
1
$begingroup$
The crucial point to observe is that the $n$-th term in the series is always bounded above by $2^{-n}$, so you can make the tail of this series as small as you want, say smaller than $epsilon/2$...
$endgroup$
– Lukas Geyer
Dec 18 '18 at 17:33
$begingroup$
(Now you don't need the "boundedness" of $M$'s...)
$endgroup$
– metamorphy
Dec 18 '18 at 17:36