How do I show this $xyleq frac{1}{p}x^p+frac{1}{q}y^q.$ without using concavity of log function?












3












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let reals $p, q >1$ and $x, y$ are positive real numbers with $1/p+1/q=1$ I want to show $xyleq frac{1}{p}x^p+frac{1}{q}y^q.$ without using concavity of $log$ as shown below



Proof with concavity of log function and exponential Growth



$lnleft(frac{1}{p}x^p+frac{1}{q}y^qright)geq frac{1}{p}lnleft(x^pright)+frac{1}{q}lnleft(y^qright)=lnleft(xyright).$



just to raise expon for both side we get the result .



then any other method ?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Check proof 2 here: proofwiki.org/wiki/Young%27s_Inequality_for_Products
    $endgroup$
    – John11
    Dec 26 '18 at 22:49










  • $begingroup$
    Just to continue John11's comments, like this one
    $endgroup$
    – rtybase
    Dec 26 '18 at 23:56










  • $begingroup$
    Can you go between $(1-t)x+ty$ and $x/p+y/q$? It's pretty trivial, but usually needs to be pointed out in some minor capacity to be thought of.
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Wolfe
    Dec 27 '18 at 0:42
















3












$begingroup$


let reals $p, q >1$ and $x, y$ are positive real numbers with $1/p+1/q=1$ I want to show $xyleq frac{1}{p}x^p+frac{1}{q}y^q.$ without using concavity of $log$ as shown below



Proof with concavity of log function and exponential Growth



$lnleft(frac{1}{p}x^p+frac{1}{q}y^qright)geq frac{1}{p}lnleft(x^pright)+frac{1}{q}lnleft(y^qright)=lnleft(xyright).$



just to raise expon for both side we get the result .



then any other method ?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Check proof 2 here: proofwiki.org/wiki/Young%27s_Inequality_for_Products
    $endgroup$
    – John11
    Dec 26 '18 at 22:49










  • $begingroup$
    Just to continue John11's comments, like this one
    $endgroup$
    – rtybase
    Dec 26 '18 at 23:56










  • $begingroup$
    Can you go between $(1-t)x+ty$ and $x/p+y/q$? It's pretty trivial, but usually needs to be pointed out in some minor capacity to be thought of.
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Wolfe
    Dec 27 '18 at 0:42














3












3








3


2



$begingroup$


let reals $p, q >1$ and $x, y$ are positive real numbers with $1/p+1/q=1$ I want to show $xyleq frac{1}{p}x^p+frac{1}{q}y^q.$ without using concavity of $log$ as shown below



Proof with concavity of log function and exponential Growth



$lnleft(frac{1}{p}x^p+frac{1}{q}y^qright)geq frac{1}{p}lnleft(x^pright)+frac{1}{q}lnleft(y^qright)=lnleft(xyright).$



just to raise expon for both side we get the result .



then any other method ?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




let reals $p, q >1$ and $x, y$ are positive real numbers with $1/p+1/q=1$ I want to show $xyleq frac{1}{p}x^p+frac{1}{q}y^q.$ without using concavity of $log$ as shown below



Proof with concavity of log function and exponential Growth



$lnleft(frac{1}{p}x^p+frac{1}{q}y^qright)geq frac{1}{p}lnleft(x^pright)+frac{1}{q}lnleft(y^qright)=lnleft(xyright).$



just to raise expon for both side we get the result .



then any other method ?







inequality convex-analysis holder-inequality






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share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Dec 26 '18 at 22:42









zeraoulia rafikzeraoulia rafik

2,39711134




2,39711134








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Check proof 2 here: proofwiki.org/wiki/Young%27s_Inequality_for_Products
    $endgroup$
    – John11
    Dec 26 '18 at 22:49










  • $begingroup$
    Just to continue John11's comments, like this one
    $endgroup$
    – rtybase
    Dec 26 '18 at 23:56










  • $begingroup$
    Can you go between $(1-t)x+ty$ and $x/p+y/q$? It's pretty trivial, but usually needs to be pointed out in some minor capacity to be thought of.
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Wolfe
    Dec 27 '18 at 0:42














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Check proof 2 here: proofwiki.org/wiki/Young%27s_Inequality_for_Products
    $endgroup$
    – John11
    Dec 26 '18 at 22:49










  • $begingroup$
    Just to continue John11's comments, like this one
    $endgroup$
    – rtybase
    Dec 26 '18 at 23:56










  • $begingroup$
    Can you go between $(1-t)x+ty$ and $x/p+y/q$? It's pretty trivial, but usually needs to be pointed out in some minor capacity to be thought of.
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Wolfe
    Dec 27 '18 at 0:42








1




1




$begingroup$
Check proof 2 here: proofwiki.org/wiki/Young%27s_Inequality_for_Products
$endgroup$
– John11
Dec 26 '18 at 22:49




$begingroup$
Check proof 2 here: proofwiki.org/wiki/Young%27s_Inequality_for_Products
$endgroup$
– John11
Dec 26 '18 at 22:49












$begingroup$
Just to continue John11's comments, like this one
$endgroup$
– rtybase
Dec 26 '18 at 23:56




$begingroup$
Just to continue John11's comments, like this one
$endgroup$
– rtybase
Dec 26 '18 at 23:56












$begingroup$
Can you go between $(1-t)x+ty$ and $x/p+y/q$? It's pretty trivial, but usually needs to be pointed out in some minor capacity to be thought of.
$endgroup$
– Robert Wolfe
Dec 27 '18 at 0:42




$begingroup$
Can you go between $(1-t)x+ty$ and $x/p+y/q$? It's pretty trivial, but usually needs to be pointed out in some minor capacity to be thought of.
$endgroup$
– Robert Wolfe
Dec 27 '18 at 0:42










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

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1












$begingroup$

Method 1:



For non-negative $u,v$ let $f(u)=u^{p-1}$ and $g(v)=v^{q-1}.$ Since $(p-1)(q-1)=1,$ the graphs of $(u,f(u))$ and of $(g(v),v)$ are the same graph, which I will call $G.$



Now $x^p/p=int_0^xf(u)du$ is the area of the figure bounded by $G$ and ${x}times [0,f(x)]$ and the $u$-axis in the $(u,v)$-plane. And $y^q/q=int_0^yg(y)dy$ is the area of the figure bounded by $G$ and $[0, g(y)]times {y}$ and the $v$-axis.



If $x^p=y^q,$ the union of these two figures is the rectangle $R(x,y)$ with corners $(0,0),(0,y),(x,y),(x,0),$ which has area $xy,$ so $x^p/p+y^q/q=int_0^xf(u)du+int_0^yg(v)dv=xy.$



If $x>y^{q/p}$ then the union of these two figures is $R(x,y)$ plus a region bounded by $G$, the $u$-axis, and the segments ${y^{q/p}}times [0,y]$ and ${x}times [0,f(x)],$ so $x^p/p+y^q/q=xy+int_{y^{q/p}}^x f(u)du>xy$.



Similarly if $x<y^{p/q}$ then $y>x^{q/p}$ and $x^p/p+y^q/q=xy+int_{x^{q/p}}^y g(v)dv>xy.$



This is easy to see on a diagram.



Generally, if $f:[0,infty)to [0,infty)$ is continuous and strictly monotonic, and $f(0)=0,$ then $xyleq int_0^xf(u)du+int_0^yf^{-1}(v)dv.$



Method 2:



For non-negative $x,y$ let $H(x,y)=x^p/p+y^q/q-xy.$ Then $frac {partial H(x,y)}{partial x}=frac1px^{p-1}-y,$ which is negative if $0leq x^{p-1}<y$ and positive if $x^{p-1}>y.$ So for a fixed $y,$ the function $H(x,y)$ has its minimum when $x^{p-1}=y.$ And we have $H(x, x^{p-1})=0.$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    3












    $begingroup$

    This proof is from Steele's Cauchy-Schwarz Master Class. The weighted AM-GM inequality gives us
    begin{align*}
    u^alpha v^beta le frac{alpha}{alpha + beta}u^{alpha + beta} + frac{beta}{alpha + beta}v^{alpha + beta}
    end{align*}

    for $u, v ge 0$ and $alpha, beta > 0$. Substituting $x = u^alpha$, $y= v^beta$, $p = (alpha+beta)/alpha$, and $q = (alpha + beta)/beta$ gives us the desired inequality.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$





















      1












      $begingroup$

      Another cool proof is using Legendre's transform, with $L(x) = frac{1}{p}|x|^p$ is convex, then
      $$ L^*(y) = sup_{xin mathbb{R}} Big(xcdot y - L(y)Big) = frac{1}{q}|y|^q.$$
      Therefore
      $$ L(x)+L^*(y) = frac{1}{p}|x|^p + frac{1}{q}|y|^q geq xcdot{y}.$$



      More on this, see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Legendre_transformation. It is also called "Fenchel's inequality".






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$





















        0












        $begingroup$

        Hint



        Let $$f(t)=frac{t^p}{p}+frac{1}{q}-t text{ on } [0,infty)$$
        Now show that $t=1$ is a critical point and $f$ is an increasing function for $t geq 1$. This will imply
        $$f(t) geq f(1)=0.$$
        Consequently,
        $$frac{t^p}{p}+frac{1}{q} geq t$$
        Now let $t=xy^{frac{1}{p-1}}$.






        share|cite|improve this answer











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          4 Answers
          4






          active

          oldest

          votes








          4 Answers
          4






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          1












          $begingroup$

          Method 1:



          For non-negative $u,v$ let $f(u)=u^{p-1}$ and $g(v)=v^{q-1}.$ Since $(p-1)(q-1)=1,$ the graphs of $(u,f(u))$ and of $(g(v),v)$ are the same graph, which I will call $G.$



          Now $x^p/p=int_0^xf(u)du$ is the area of the figure bounded by $G$ and ${x}times [0,f(x)]$ and the $u$-axis in the $(u,v)$-plane. And $y^q/q=int_0^yg(y)dy$ is the area of the figure bounded by $G$ and $[0, g(y)]times {y}$ and the $v$-axis.



          If $x^p=y^q,$ the union of these two figures is the rectangle $R(x,y)$ with corners $(0,0),(0,y),(x,y),(x,0),$ which has area $xy,$ so $x^p/p+y^q/q=int_0^xf(u)du+int_0^yg(v)dv=xy.$



          If $x>y^{q/p}$ then the union of these two figures is $R(x,y)$ plus a region bounded by $G$, the $u$-axis, and the segments ${y^{q/p}}times [0,y]$ and ${x}times [0,f(x)],$ so $x^p/p+y^q/q=xy+int_{y^{q/p}}^x f(u)du>xy$.



          Similarly if $x<y^{p/q}$ then $y>x^{q/p}$ and $x^p/p+y^q/q=xy+int_{x^{q/p}}^y g(v)dv>xy.$



          This is easy to see on a diagram.



          Generally, if $f:[0,infty)to [0,infty)$ is continuous and strictly monotonic, and $f(0)=0,$ then $xyleq int_0^xf(u)du+int_0^yf^{-1}(v)dv.$



          Method 2:



          For non-negative $x,y$ let $H(x,y)=x^p/p+y^q/q-xy.$ Then $frac {partial H(x,y)}{partial x}=frac1px^{p-1}-y,$ which is negative if $0leq x^{p-1}<y$ and positive if $x^{p-1}>y.$ So for a fixed $y,$ the function $H(x,y)$ has its minimum when $x^{p-1}=y.$ And we have $H(x, x^{p-1})=0.$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$


















            1












            $begingroup$

            Method 1:



            For non-negative $u,v$ let $f(u)=u^{p-1}$ and $g(v)=v^{q-1}.$ Since $(p-1)(q-1)=1,$ the graphs of $(u,f(u))$ and of $(g(v),v)$ are the same graph, which I will call $G.$



            Now $x^p/p=int_0^xf(u)du$ is the area of the figure bounded by $G$ and ${x}times [0,f(x)]$ and the $u$-axis in the $(u,v)$-plane. And $y^q/q=int_0^yg(y)dy$ is the area of the figure bounded by $G$ and $[0, g(y)]times {y}$ and the $v$-axis.



            If $x^p=y^q,$ the union of these two figures is the rectangle $R(x,y)$ with corners $(0,0),(0,y),(x,y),(x,0),$ which has area $xy,$ so $x^p/p+y^q/q=int_0^xf(u)du+int_0^yg(v)dv=xy.$



            If $x>y^{q/p}$ then the union of these two figures is $R(x,y)$ plus a region bounded by $G$, the $u$-axis, and the segments ${y^{q/p}}times [0,y]$ and ${x}times [0,f(x)],$ so $x^p/p+y^q/q=xy+int_{y^{q/p}}^x f(u)du>xy$.



            Similarly if $x<y^{p/q}$ then $y>x^{q/p}$ and $x^p/p+y^q/q=xy+int_{x^{q/p}}^y g(v)dv>xy.$



            This is easy to see on a diagram.



            Generally, if $f:[0,infty)to [0,infty)$ is continuous and strictly monotonic, and $f(0)=0,$ then $xyleq int_0^xf(u)du+int_0^yf^{-1}(v)dv.$



            Method 2:



            For non-negative $x,y$ let $H(x,y)=x^p/p+y^q/q-xy.$ Then $frac {partial H(x,y)}{partial x}=frac1px^{p-1}-y,$ which is negative if $0leq x^{p-1}<y$ and positive if $x^{p-1}>y.$ So for a fixed $y,$ the function $H(x,y)$ has its minimum when $x^{p-1}=y.$ And we have $H(x, x^{p-1})=0.$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$
















              1












              1








              1





              $begingroup$

              Method 1:



              For non-negative $u,v$ let $f(u)=u^{p-1}$ and $g(v)=v^{q-1}.$ Since $(p-1)(q-1)=1,$ the graphs of $(u,f(u))$ and of $(g(v),v)$ are the same graph, which I will call $G.$



              Now $x^p/p=int_0^xf(u)du$ is the area of the figure bounded by $G$ and ${x}times [0,f(x)]$ and the $u$-axis in the $(u,v)$-plane. And $y^q/q=int_0^yg(y)dy$ is the area of the figure bounded by $G$ and $[0, g(y)]times {y}$ and the $v$-axis.



              If $x^p=y^q,$ the union of these two figures is the rectangle $R(x,y)$ with corners $(0,0),(0,y),(x,y),(x,0),$ which has area $xy,$ so $x^p/p+y^q/q=int_0^xf(u)du+int_0^yg(v)dv=xy.$



              If $x>y^{q/p}$ then the union of these two figures is $R(x,y)$ plus a region bounded by $G$, the $u$-axis, and the segments ${y^{q/p}}times [0,y]$ and ${x}times [0,f(x)],$ so $x^p/p+y^q/q=xy+int_{y^{q/p}}^x f(u)du>xy$.



              Similarly if $x<y^{p/q}$ then $y>x^{q/p}$ and $x^p/p+y^q/q=xy+int_{x^{q/p}}^y g(v)dv>xy.$



              This is easy to see on a diagram.



              Generally, if $f:[0,infty)to [0,infty)$ is continuous and strictly monotonic, and $f(0)=0,$ then $xyleq int_0^xf(u)du+int_0^yf^{-1}(v)dv.$



              Method 2:



              For non-negative $x,y$ let $H(x,y)=x^p/p+y^q/q-xy.$ Then $frac {partial H(x,y)}{partial x}=frac1px^{p-1}-y,$ which is negative if $0leq x^{p-1}<y$ and positive if $x^{p-1}>y.$ So for a fixed $y,$ the function $H(x,y)$ has its minimum when $x^{p-1}=y.$ And we have $H(x, x^{p-1})=0.$






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$



              Method 1:



              For non-negative $u,v$ let $f(u)=u^{p-1}$ and $g(v)=v^{q-1}.$ Since $(p-1)(q-1)=1,$ the graphs of $(u,f(u))$ and of $(g(v),v)$ are the same graph, which I will call $G.$



              Now $x^p/p=int_0^xf(u)du$ is the area of the figure bounded by $G$ and ${x}times [0,f(x)]$ and the $u$-axis in the $(u,v)$-plane. And $y^q/q=int_0^yg(y)dy$ is the area of the figure bounded by $G$ and $[0, g(y)]times {y}$ and the $v$-axis.



              If $x^p=y^q,$ the union of these two figures is the rectangle $R(x,y)$ with corners $(0,0),(0,y),(x,y),(x,0),$ which has area $xy,$ so $x^p/p+y^q/q=int_0^xf(u)du+int_0^yg(v)dv=xy.$



              If $x>y^{q/p}$ then the union of these two figures is $R(x,y)$ plus a region bounded by $G$, the $u$-axis, and the segments ${y^{q/p}}times [0,y]$ and ${x}times [0,f(x)],$ so $x^p/p+y^q/q=xy+int_{y^{q/p}}^x f(u)du>xy$.



              Similarly if $x<y^{p/q}$ then $y>x^{q/p}$ and $x^p/p+y^q/q=xy+int_{x^{q/p}}^y g(v)dv>xy.$



              This is easy to see on a diagram.



              Generally, if $f:[0,infty)to [0,infty)$ is continuous and strictly monotonic, and $f(0)=0,$ then $xyleq int_0^xf(u)du+int_0^yf^{-1}(v)dv.$



              Method 2:



              For non-negative $x,y$ let $H(x,y)=x^p/p+y^q/q-xy.$ Then $frac {partial H(x,y)}{partial x}=frac1px^{p-1}-y,$ which is negative if $0leq x^{p-1}<y$ and positive if $x^{p-1}>y.$ So for a fixed $y,$ the function $H(x,y)$ has its minimum when $x^{p-1}=y.$ And we have $H(x, x^{p-1})=0.$







              share|cite|improve this answer














              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer








              edited Dec 27 '18 at 10:25









              zeraoulia rafik

              2,39711134




              2,39711134










              answered Dec 27 '18 at 9:51









              DanielWainfleetDanielWainfleet

              35.8k31648




              35.8k31648























                  3












                  $begingroup$

                  This proof is from Steele's Cauchy-Schwarz Master Class. The weighted AM-GM inequality gives us
                  begin{align*}
                  u^alpha v^beta le frac{alpha}{alpha + beta}u^{alpha + beta} + frac{beta}{alpha + beta}v^{alpha + beta}
                  end{align*}

                  for $u, v ge 0$ and $alpha, beta > 0$. Substituting $x = u^alpha$, $y= v^beta$, $p = (alpha+beta)/alpha$, and $q = (alpha + beta)/beta$ gives us the desired inequality.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$


















                    3












                    $begingroup$

                    This proof is from Steele's Cauchy-Schwarz Master Class. The weighted AM-GM inequality gives us
                    begin{align*}
                    u^alpha v^beta le frac{alpha}{alpha + beta}u^{alpha + beta} + frac{beta}{alpha + beta}v^{alpha + beta}
                    end{align*}

                    for $u, v ge 0$ and $alpha, beta > 0$. Substituting $x = u^alpha$, $y= v^beta$, $p = (alpha+beta)/alpha$, and $q = (alpha + beta)/beta$ gives us the desired inequality.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$
















                      3












                      3








                      3





                      $begingroup$

                      This proof is from Steele's Cauchy-Schwarz Master Class. The weighted AM-GM inequality gives us
                      begin{align*}
                      u^alpha v^beta le frac{alpha}{alpha + beta}u^{alpha + beta} + frac{beta}{alpha + beta}v^{alpha + beta}
                      end{align*}

                      for $u, v ge 0$ and $alpha, beta > 0$. Substituting $x = u^alpha$, $y= v^beta$, $p = (alpha+beta)/alpha$, and $q = (alpha + beta)/beta$ gives us the desired inequality.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$



                      This proof is from Steele's Cauchy-Schwarz Master Class. The weighted AM-GM inequality gives us
                      begin{align*}
                      u^alpha v^beta le frac{alpha}{alpha + beta}u^{alpha + beta} + frac{beta}{alpha + beta}v^{alpha + beta}
                      end{align*}

                      for $u, v ge 0$ and $alpha, beta > 0$. Substituting $x = u^alpha$, $y= v^beta$, $p = (alpha+beta)/alpha$, and $q = (alpha + beta)/beta$ gives us the desired inequality.







                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      answered Dec 26 '18 at 22:47









                      Tom ChenTom Chen

                      2,068715




                      2,068715























                          1












                          $begingroup$

                          Another cool proof is using Legendre's transform, with $L(x) = frac{1}{p}|x|^p$ is convex, then
                          $$ L^*(y) = sup_{xin mathbb{R}} Big(xcdot y - L(y)Big) = frac{1}{q}|y|^q.$$
                          Therefore
                          $$ L(x)+L^*(y) = frac{1}{p}|x|^p + frac{1}{q}|y|^q geq xcdot{y}.$$



                          More on this, see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Legendre_transformation. It is also called "Fenchel's inequality".






                          share|cite|improve this answer











                          $endgroup$


















                            1












                            $begingroup$

                            Another cool proof is using Legendre's transform, with $L(x) = frac{1}{p}|x|^p$ is convex, then
                            $$ L^*(y) = sup_{xin mathbb{R}} Big(xcdot y - L(y)Big) = frac{1}{q}|y|^q.$$
                            Therefore
                            $$ L(x)+L^*(y) = frac{1}{p}|x|^p + frac{1}{q}|y|^q geq xcdot{y}.$$



                            More on this, see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Legendre_transformation. It is also called "Fenchel's inequality".






                            share|cite|improve this answer











                            $endgroup$
















                              1












                              1








                              1





                              $begingroup$

                              Another cool proof is using Legendre's transform, with $L(x) = frac{1}{p}|x|^p$ is convex, then
                              $$ L^*(y) = sup_{xin mathbb{R}} Big(xcdot y - L(y)Big) = frac{1}{q}|y|^q.$$
                              Therefore
                              $$ L(x)+L^*(y) = frac{1}{p}|x|^p + frac{1}{q}|y|^q geq xcdot{y}.$$



                              More on this, see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Legendre_transformation. It is also called "Fenchel's inequality".






                              share|cite|improve this answer











                              $endgroup$



                              Another cool proof is using Legendre's transform, with $L(x) = frac{1}{p}|x|^p$ is convex, then
                              $$ L^*(y) = sup_{xin mathbb{R}} Big(xcdot y - L(y)Big) = frac{1}{q}|y|^q.$$
                              Therefore
                              $$ L(x)+L^*(y) = frac{1}{p}|x|^p + frac{1}{q}|y|^q geq xcdot{y}.$$



                              More on this, see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Legendre_transformation. It is also called "Fenchel's inequality".







                              share|cite|improve this answer














                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer








                              edited Dec 27 '18 at 7:37

























                              answered Dec 27 '18 at 7:31









                              SeanSean

                              532513




                              532513























                                  0












                                  $begingroup$

                                  Hint



                                  Let $$f(t)=frac{t^p}{p}+frac{1}{q}-t text{ on } [0,infty)$$
                                  Now show that $t=1$ is a critical point and $f$ is an increasing function for $t geq 1$. This will imply
                                  $$f(t) geq f(1)=0.$$
                                  Consequently,
                                  $$frac{t^p}{p}+frac{1}{q} geq t$$
                                  Now let $t=xy^{frac{1}{p-1}}$.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer











                                  $endgroup$


















                                    0












                                    $begingroup$

                                    Hint



                                    Let $$f(t)=frac{t^p}{p}+frac{1}{q}-t text{ on } [0,infty)$$
                                    Now show that $t=1$ is a critical point and $f$ is an increasing function for $t geq 1$. This will imply
                                    $$f(t) geq f(1)=0.$$
                                    Consequently,
                                    $$frac{t^p}{p}+frac{1}{q} geq t$$
                                    Now let $t=xy^{frac{1}{p-1}}$.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer











                                    $endgroup$
















                                      0












                                      0








                                      0





                                      $begingroup$

                                      Hint



                                      Let $$f(t)=frac{t^p}{p}+frac{1}{q}-t text{ on } [0,infty)$$
                                      Now show that $t=1$ is a critical point and $f$ is an increasing function for $t geq 1$. This will imply
                                      $$f(t) geq f(1)=0.$$
                                      Consequently,
                                      $$frac{t^p}{p}+frac{1}{q} geq t$$
                                      Now let $t=xy^{frac{1}{p-1}}$.






                                      share|cite|improve this answer











                                      $endgroup$



                                      Hint



                                      Let $$f(t)=frac{t^p}{p}+frac{1}{q}-t text{ on } [0,infty)$$
                                      Now show that $t=1$ is a critical point and $f$ is an increasing function for $t geq 1$. This will imply
                                      $$f(t) geq f(1)=0.$$
                                      Consequently,
                                      $$frac{t^p}{p}+frac{1}{q} geq t$$
                                      Now let $t=xy^{frac{1}{p-1}}$.







                                      share|cite|improve this answer














                                      share|cite|improve this answer



                                      share|cite|improve this answer








                                      edited Dec 27 '18 at 20:45

























                                      answered Dec 26 '18 at 22:46









                                      Anurag AAnurag A

                                      26.4k12351




                                      26.4k12351






























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