Reversal of an Autoregressive Cauchy Markov Chain












6














Let $mu_0 (dx)$ be the standard one-dimensional Cauchy distribution, i.e.



begin{align}
mu_0 (dx) = frac{1}{pi} frac{1}{1+x^2} dx.
end{align}



Suppose I fix $rho in [0, 1]$, and form a Markov chain ${X_n}_{n geqslant 0}$ as follows:




  1. At step $n$, I sample $Y_n sim mu_0$.

  2. I then set $X_{n+1} = rho X_n + (1 - rho) Y_n$


It is not so hard to show that this chain admits $mu_0$ as a stationary measure, as this essentially comes from the fact that Cauchy distribution is a stable distribution.



What I'm interested in is the reversal of this Markov chain. More precisely, if the chain I describe above uses the Markov kernel $q (x to dy)$, I want to understand the Markov kernel $r$ such that



begin{align}
mu_0 (dx) q (x to dy) = mu_0 (dy) r (y to dx).
end{align}



Fortunately, all of the quantities involved have densities with respect to Lebesgue measure, and as such, I can write down what $r (y to dx)$ is:



begin{align}
r (y to dx) = frac{1 + y^2}{pi} frac{1}{1 + x^2} frac{1-rho}{ (1 - rho)^2 + (y - rho x)^2}.
end{align}



My question is then: is there a simple, elegant way to draw exact samples from $r$?



I would highlight that this is not a purely algorithmic question; I'd really like to understand what this reversal kernel $r$ is doing. A nice byproduct of that would then be that I could simulate from it easily.



For completeness, some of the `purely algorithmic' solutions I had considered were the following.




  • I could try rejection sampling, and in principle this would work, but it wouldn't really give me insight into the nature of the Markov chain.

  • I could try something like the inverse CDF method, but it seems to me that the CDF of $r$ is not particularly nice to work with. As such, I'd have to use e.g. Newton iterations to use this method, and I'd prefer to not have to do this.










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    6














    Let $mu_0 (dx)$ be the standard one-dimensional Cauchy distribution, i.e.



    begin{align}
    mu_0 (dx) = frac{1}{pi} frac{1}{1+x^2} dx.
    end{align}



    Suppose I fix $rho in [0, 1]$, and form a Markov chain ${X_n}_{n geqslant 0}$ as follows:




    1. At step $n$, I sample $Y_n sim mu_0$.

    2. I then set $X_{n+1} = rho X_n + (1 - rho) Y_n$


    It is not so hard to show that this chain admits $mu_0$ as a stationary measure, as this essentially comes from the fact that Cauchy distribution is a stable distribution.



    What I'm interested in is the reversal of this Markov chain. More precisely, if the chain I describe above uses the Markov kernel $q (x to dy)$, I want to understand the Markov kernel $r$ such that



    begin{align}
    mu_0 (dx) q (x to dy) = mu_0 (dy) r (y to dx).
    end{align}



    Fortunately, all of the quantities involved have densities with respect to Lebesgue measure, and as such, I can write down what $r (y to dx)$ is:



    begin{align}
    r (y to dx) = frac{1 + y^2}{pi} frac{1}{1 + x^2} frac{1-rho}{ (1 - rho)^2 + (y - rho x)^2}.
    end{align}



    My question is then: is there a simple, elegant way to draw exact samples from $r$?



    I would highlight that this is not a purely algorithmic question; I'd really like to understand what this reversal kernel $r$ is doing. A nice byproduct of that would then be that I could simulate from it easily.



    For completeness, some of the `purely algorithmic' solutions I had considered were the following.




    • I could try rejection sampling, and in principle this would work, but it wouldn't really give me insight into the nature of the Markov chain.

    • I could try something like the inverse CDF method, but it seems to me that the CDF of $r$ is not particularly nice to work with. As such, I'd have to use e.g. Newton iterations to use this method, and I'd prefer to not have to do this.










    share|cite|improve this question



























      6












      6








      6


      1





      Let $mu_0 (dx)$ be the standard one-dimensional Cauchy distribution, i.e.



      begin{align}
      mu_0 (dx) = frac{1}{pi} frac{1}{1+x^2} dx.
      end{align}



      Suppose I fix $rho in [0, 1]$, and form a Markov chain ${X_n}_{n geqslant 0}$ as follows:




      1. At step $n$, I sample $Y_n sim mu_0$.

      2. I then set $X_{n+1} = rho X_n + (1 - rho) Y_n$


      It is not so hard to show that this chain admits $mu_0$ as a stationary measure, as this essentially comes from the fact that Cauchy distribution is a stable distribution.



      What I'm interested in is the reversal of this Markov chain. More precisely, if the chain I describe above uses the Markov kernel $q (x to dy)$, I want to understand the Markov kernel $r$ such that



      begin{align}
      mu_0 (dx) q (x to dy) = mu_0 (dy) r (y to dx).
      end{align}



      Fortunately, all of the quantities involved have densities with respect to Lebesgue measure, and as such, I can write down what $r (y to dx)$ is:



      begin{align}
      r (y to dx) = frac{1 + y^2}{pi} frac{1}{1 + x^2} frac{1-rho}{ (1 - rho)^2 + (y - rho x)^2}.
      end{align}



      My question is then: is there a simple, elegant way to draw exact samples from $r$?



      I would highlight that this is not a purely algorithmic question; I'd really like to understand what this reversal kernel $r$ is doing. A nice byproduct of that would then be that I could simulate from it easily.



      For completeness, some of the `purely algorithmic' solutions I had considered were the following.




      • I could try rejection sampling, and in principle this would work, but it wouldn't really give me insight into the nature of the Markov chain.

      • I could try something like the inverse CDF method, but it seems to me that the CDF of $r$ is not particularly nice to work with. As such, I'd have to use e.g. Newton iterations to use this method, and I'd prefer to not have to do this.










      share|cite|improve this question















      Let $mu_0 (dx)$ be the standard one-dimensional Cauchy distribution, i.e.



      begin{align}
      mu_0 (dx) = frac{1}{pi} frac{1}{1+x^2} dx.
      end{align}



      Suppose I fix $rho in [0, 1]$, and form a Markov chain ${X_n}_{n geqslant 0}$ as follows:




      1. At step $n$, I sample $Y_n sim mu_0$.

      2. I then set $X_{n+1} = rho X_n + (1 - rho) Y_n$


      It is not so hard to show that this chain admits $mu_0$ as a stationary measure, as this essentially comes from the fact that Cauchy distribution is a stable distribution.



      What I'm interested in is the reversal of this Markov chain. More precisely, if the chain I describe above uses the Markov kernel $q (x to dy)$, I want to understand the Markov kernel $r$ such that



      begin{align}
      mu_0 (dx) q (x to dy) = mu_0 (dy) r (y to dx).
      end{align}



      Fortunately, all of the quantities involved have densities with respect to Lebesgue measure, and as such, I can write down what $r (y to dx)$ is:



      begin{align}
      r (y to dx) = frac{1 + y^2}{pi} frac{1}{1 + x^2} frac{1-rho}{ (1 - rho)^2 + (y - rho x)^2}.
      end{align}



      My question is then: is there a simple, elegant way to draw exact samples from $r$?



      I would highlight that this is not a purely algorithmic question; I'd really like to understand what this reversal kernel $r$ is doing. A nice byproduct of that would then be that I could simulate from it easily.



      For completeness, some of the `purely algorithmic' solutions I had considered were the following.




      • I could try rejection sampling, and in principle this would work, but it wouldn't really give me insight into the nature of the Markov chain.

      • I could try something like the inverse CDF method, but it seems to me that the CDF of $r$ is not particularly nice to work with. As such, I'd have to use e.g. Newton iterations to use this method, and I'd prefer to not have to do this.







      probability markov-chains






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      edited Nov 26 at 13:55

























      asked Nov 26 at 13:49









      πr8

      9,8483924




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