Imaginary part of integral of $exp(kx - x^2/2 + 2pi i x)$ vanishes over the real axis.












1














I want to show that



$$
int_0^infty x^k frac{1}{xsqrt{2pi}} e^{-log(x)^2 / 2} sin(2pi log(x)) = 0
$$

for $k in mathbb{N}$.



I thought, that it would be benificial to lift this integral into the complex plane and showed that the upper is equal to
$$
text{Im}left[ int_mathbb{R} exp(ky-y^2/2 + i2pi y)dyright] = 0.
$$



However, I don't know how to proceed from there.










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    1














    I want to show that



    $$
    int_0^infty x^k frac{1}{xsqrt{2pi}} e^{-log(x)^2 / 2} sin(2pi log(x)) = 0
    $$

    for $k in mathbb{N}$.



    I thought, that it would be benificial to lift this integral into the complex plane and showed that the upper is equal to
    $$
    text{Im}left[ int_mathbb{R} exp(ky-y^2/2 + i2pi y)dyright] = 0.
    $$



    However, I don't know how to proceed from there.










    share|cite|improve this question



























      1












      1








      1


      0





      I want to show that



      $$
      int_0^infty x^k frac{1}{xsqrt{2pi}} e^{-log(x)^2 / 2} sin(2pi log(x)) = 0
      $$

      for $k in mathbb{N}$.



      I thought, that it would be benificial to lift this integral into the complex plane and showed that the upper is equal to
      $$
      text{Im}left[ int_mathbb{R} exp(ky-y^2/2 + i2pi y)dyright] = 0.
      $$



      However, I don't know how to proceed from there.










      share|cite|improve this question















      I want to show that



      $$
      int_0^infty x^k frac{1}{xsqrt{2pi}} e^{-log(x)^2 / 2} sin(2pi log(x)) = 0
      $$

      for $k in mathbb{N}$.



      I thought, that it would be benificial to lift this integral into the complex plane and showed that the upper is equal to
      $$
      text{Im}left[ int_mathbb{R} exp(ky-y^2/2 + i2pi y)dyright] = 0.
      $$



      However, I don't know how to proceed from there.







      complex-analysis analysis






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      edited Nov 29 '18 at 20:27









      Bernard

      118k639112




      118k639112










      asked Nov 29 '18 at 20:27









      fpmoofpmoo

      368113




      368113






















          1 Answer
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          Introduce a new variable $x = y - k$:



          begin{align*}int_mathbb{R} exp(ky-y^2/2 + i2pi y),dy &= int_mathbb{R} exp left( -frac{1}{2} (y-k)^2 + frac{k^2}{2} + i 2pi yright),dy \
          &= int_mathbb{R} exp left( -frac{x^2}{2} + frac{k^2}{2} + i 2pi x + i 2pi kright),dx\
          &= int_mathbb{R} exp left( -frac{x^2}{2} + frac{k^2}{2} + i 2pi x right),dx
          end{align*}

          We can drop the $i2pi k$ term because $k in mathbb{Z}$ and $exp(z) = exp(z+2pi i)$. Switching $x$ with $-x$ replaces the argument of $exp$ with its complex conjugate, and $e^overline{z} = overline{e^z}$, so the imaginary part of the integral over $(-infty, 0]$ cancels the imaginary part of the integral over $[0, infty)$, and we are done.






          share|cite|improve this answer























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            1 Answer
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            1 Answer
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            active

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            active

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            1














            Introduce a new variable $x = y - k$:



            begin{align*}int_mathbb{R} exp(ky-y^2/2 + i2pi y),dy &= int_mathbb{R} exp left( -frac{1}{2} (y-k)^2 + frac{k^2}{2} + i 2pi yright),dy \
            &= int_mathbb{R} exp left( -frac{x^2}{2} + frac{k^2}{2} + i 2pi x + i 2pi kright),dx\
            &= int_mathbb{R} exp left( -frac{x^2}{2} + frac{k^2}{2} + i 2pi x right),dx
            end{align*}

            We can drop the $i2pi k$ term because $k in mathbb{Z}$ and $exp(z) = exp(z+2pi i)$. Switching $x$ with $-x$ replaces the argument of $exp$ with its complex conjugate, and $e^overline{z} = overline{e^z}$, so the imaginary part of the integral over $(-infty, 0]$ cancels the imaginary part of the integral over $[0, infty)$, and we are done.






            share|cite|improve this answer




























              1














              Introduce a new variable $x = y - k$:



              begin{align*}int_mathbb{R} exp(ky-y^2/2 + i2pi y),dy &= int_mathbb{R} exp left( -frac{1}{2} (y-k)^2 + frac{k^2}{2} + i 2pi yright),dy \
              &= int_mathbb{R} exp left( -frac{x^2}{2} + frac{k^2}{2} + i 2pi x + i 2pi kright),dx\
              &= int_mathbb{R} exp left( -frac{x^2}{2} + frac{k^2}{2} + i 2pi x right),dx
              end{align*}

              We can drop the $i2pi k$ term because $k in mathbb{Z}$ and $exp(z) = exp(z+2pi i)$. Switching $x$ with $-x$ replaces the argument of $exp$ with its complex conjugate, and $e^overline{z} = overline{e^z}$, so the imaginary part of the integral over $(-infty, 0]$ cancels the imaginary part of the integral over $[0, infty)$, and we are done.






              share|cite|improve this answer


























                1












                1








                1






                Introduce a new variable $x = y - k$:



                begin{align*}int_mathbb{R} exp(ky-y^2/2 + i2pi y),dy &= int_mathbb{R} exp left( -frac{1}{2} (y-k)^2 + frac{k^2}{2} + i 2pi yright),dy \
                &= int_mathbb{R} exp left( -frac{x^2}{2} + frac{k^2}{2} + i 2pi x + i 2pi kright),dx\
                &= int_mathbb{R} exp left( -frac{x^2}{2} + frac{k^2}{2} + i 2pi x right),dx
                end{align*}

                We can drop the $i2pi k$ term because $k in mathbb{Z}$ and $exp(z) = exp(z+2pi i)$. Switching $x$ with $-x$ replaces the argument of $exp$ with its complex conjugate, and $e^overline{z} = overline{e^z}$, so the imaginary part of the integral over $(-infty, 0]$ cancels the imaginary part of the integral over $[0, infty)$, and we are done.






                share|cite|improve this answer














                Introduce a new variable $x = y - k$:



                begin{align*}int_mathbb{R} exp(ky-y^2/2 + i2pi y),dy &= int_mathbb{R} exp left( -frac{1}{2} (y-k)^2 + frac{k^2}{2} + i 2pi yright),dy \
                &= int_mathbb{R} exp left( -frac{x^2}{2} + frac{k^2}{2} + i 2pi x + i 2pi kright),dx\
                &= int_mathbb{R} exp left( -frac{x^2}{2} + frac{k^2}{2} + i 2pi x right),dx
                end{align*}

                We can drop the $i2pi k$ term because $k in mathbb{Z}$ and $exp(z) = exp(z+2pi i)$. Switching $x$ with $-x$ replaces the argument of $exp$ with its complex conjugate, and $e^overline{z} = overline{e^z}$, so the imaginary part of the integral over $(-infty, 0]$ cancels the imaginary part of the integral over $[0, infty)$, and we are done.







                share|cite|improve this answer














                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited Nov 29 '18 at 21:26









                fpmoo

                368113




                368113










                answered Nov 29 '18 at 21:02









                Connor HarrisConnor Harris

                4,350723




                4,350723






























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