Imaginary part of integral of $exp(kx - x^2/2 + 2pi i x)$ vanishes over the real axis.
I want to show that
$$
int_0^infty x^k frac{1}{xsqrt{2pi}} e^{-log(x)^2 / 2} sin(2pi log(x)) = 0
$$
for $k in mathbb{N}$.
I thought, that it would be benificial to lift this integral into the complex plane and showed that the upper is equal to
$$
text{Im}left[ int_mathbb{R} exp(ky-y^2/2 + i2pi y)dyright] = 0.
$$
However, I don't know how to proceed from there.
complex-analysis analysis
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I want to show that
$$
int_0^infty x^k frac{1}{xsqrt{2pi}} e^{-log(x)^2 / 2} sin(2pi log(x)) = 0
$$
for $k in mathbb{N}$.
I thought, that it would be benificial to lift this integral into the complex plane and showed that the upper is equal to
$$
text{Im}left[ int_mathbb{R} exp(ky-y^2/2 + i2pi y)dyright] = 0.
$$
However, I don't know how to proceed from there.
complex-analysis analysis
add a comment |
I want to show that
$$
int_0^infty x^k frac{1}{xsqrt{2pi}} e^{-log(x)^2 / 2} sin(2pi log(x)) = 0
$$
for $k in mathbb{N}$.
I thought, that it would be benificial to lift this integral into the complex plane and showed that the upper is equal to
$$
text{Im}left[ int_mathbb{R} exp(ky-y^2/2 + i2pi y)dyright] = 0.
$$
However, I don't know how to proceed from there.
complex-analysis analysis
I want to show that
$$
int_0^infty x^k frac{1}{xsqrt{2pi}} e^{-log(x)^2 / 2} sin(2pi log(x)) = 0
$$
for $k in mathbb{N}$.
I thought, that it would be benificial to lift this integral into the complex plane and showed that the upper is equal to
$$
text{Im}left[ int_mathbb{R} exp(ky-y^2/2 + i2pi y)dyright] = 0.
$$
However, I don't know how to proceed from there.
complex-analysis analysis
complex-analysis analysis
edited Nov 29 '18 at 20:27
Bernard
118k639112
118k639112
asked Nov 29 '18 at 20:27
fpmoofpmoo
368113
368113
add a comment |
add a comment |
1 Answer
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Introduce a new variable $x = y - k$:
begin{align*}int_mathbb{R} exp(ky-y^2/2 + i2pi y),dy &= int_mathbb{R} exp left( -frac{1}{2} (y-k)^2 + frac{k^2}{2} + i 2pi yright),dy \
&= int_mathbb{R} exp left( -frac{x^2}{2} + frac{k^2}{2} + i 2pi x + i 2pi kright),dx\
&= int_mathbb{R} exp left( -frac{x^2}{2} + frac{k^2}{2} + i 2pi x right),dx
end{align*}
We can drop the $i2pi k$ term because $k in mathbb{Z}$ and $exp(z) = exp(z+2pi i)$. Switching $x$ with $-x$ replaces the argument of $exp$ with its complex conjugate, and $e^overline{z} = overline{e^z}$, so the imaginary part of the integral over $(-infty, 0]$ cancels the imaginary part of the integral over $[0, infty)$, and we are done.
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
Introduce a new variable $x = y - k$:
begin{align*}int_mathbb{R} exp(ky-y^2/2 + i2pi y),dy &= int_mathbb{R} exp left( -frac{1}{2} (y-k)^2 + frac{k^2}{2} + i 2pi yright),dy \
&= int_mathbb{R} exp left( -frac{x^2}{2} + frac{k^2}{2} + i 2pi x + i 2pi kright),dx\
&= int_mathbb{R} exp left( -frac{x^2}{2} + frac{k^2}{2} + i 2pi x right),dx
end{align*}
We can drop the $i2pi k$ term because $k in mathbb{Z}$ and $exp(z) = exp(z+2pi i)$. Switching $x$ with $-x$ replaces the argument of $exp$ with its complex conjugate, and $e^overline{z} = overline{e^z}$, so the imaginary part of the integral over $(-infty, 0]$ cancels the imaginary part of the integral over $[0, infty)$, and we are done.
add a comment |
Introduce a new variable $x = y - k$:
begin{align*}int_mathbb{R} exp(ky-y^2/2 + i2pi y),dy &= int_mathbb{R} exp left( -frac{1}{2} (y-k)^2 + frac{k^2}{2} + i 2pi yright),dy \
&= int_mathbb{R} exp left( -frac{x^2}{2} + frac{k^2}{2} + i 2pi x + i 2pi kright),dx\
&= int_mathbb{R} exp left( -frac{x^2}{2} + frac{k^2}{2} + i 2pi x right),dx
end{align*}
We can drop the $i2pi k$ term because $k in mathbb{Z}$ and $exp(z) = exp(z+2pi i)$. Switching $x$ with $-x$ replaces the argument of $exp$ with its complex conjugate, and $e^overline{z} = overline{e^z}$, so the imaginary part of the integral over $(-infty, 0]$ cancels the imaginary part of the integral over $[0, infty)$, and we are done.
add a comment |
Introduce a new variable $x = y - k$:
begin{align*}int_mathbb{R} exp(ky-y^2/2 + i2pi y),dy &= int_mathbb{R} exp left( -frac{1}{2} (y-k)^2 + frac{k^2}{2} + i 2pi yright),dy \
&= int_mathbb{R} exp left( -frac{x^2}{2} + frac{k^2}{2} + i 2pi x + i 2pi kright),dx\
&= int_mathbb{R} exp left( -frac{x^2}{2} + frac{k^2}{2} + i 2pi x right),dx
end{align*}
We can drop the $i2pi k$ term because $k in mathbb{Z}$ and $exp(z) = exp(z+2pi i)$. Switching $x$ with $-x$ replaces the argument of $exp$ with its complex conjugate, and $e^overline{z} = overline{e^z}$, so the imaginary part of the integral over $(-infty, 0]$ cancels the imaginary part of the integral over $[0, infty)$, and we are done.
Introduce a new variable $x = y - k$:
begin{align*}int_mathbb{R} exp(ky-y^2/2 + i2pi y),dy &= int_mathbb{R} exp left( -frac{1}{2} (y-k)^2 + frac{k^2}{2} + i 2pi yright),dy \
&= int_mathbb{R} exp left( -frac{x^2}{2} + frac{k^2}{2} + i 2pi x + i 2pi kright),dx\
&= int_mathbb{R} exp left( -frac{x^2}{2} + frac{k^2}{2} + i 2pi x right),dx
end{align*}
We can drop the $i2pi k$ term because $k in mathbb{Z}$ and $exp(z) = exp(z+2pi i)$. Switching $x$ with $-x$ replaces the argument of $exp$ with its complex conjugate, and $e^overline{z} = overline{e^z}$, so the imaginary part of the integral over $(-infty, 0]$ cancels the imaginary part of the integral over $[0, infty)$, and we are done.
edited Nov 29 '18 at 21:26
fpmoo
368113
368113
answered Nov 29 '18 at 21:02
Connor HarrisConnor Harris
4,350723
4,350723
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