Prove $(a_n,b_n >0) land sum a_n $ converges $ land sum b_n $ diverges$implies liminflimits_{nrightarrow...












0














$(a_n)_{n in mathbb{N}},(b_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$ are positive, real sequences!



Since $sum a_n$ converges, we know $limlimits_{nrightarrow infty}a_n =0$.



If $limlimits_{nrightarrow infty}b_n ne 0$ then $ liminflimits_{nrightarrow infty} frac{a_n}{b_n}=0$ is rather easy to show.



So let's assume $b_n$ converges to $0$. Since $sum a_n$ converges but $sum b_n$ does not, $a_n$ must somehow "converge faster" to $0$ than $b_n$ does, thus causing $ liminflimits_{nrightarrow infty} frac{a_n}{b_n}=0$, but I have a hard time to express that formally.



I'd be very grateful for a push in the right direction.



thanks for helping :)










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    0














    $(a_n)_{n in mathbb{N}},(b_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$ are positive, real sequences!



    Since $sum a_n$ converges, we know $limlimits_{nrightarrow infty}a_n =0$.



    If $limlimits_{nrightarrow infty}b_n ne 0$ then $ liminflimits_{nrightarrow infty} frac{a_n}{b_n}=0$ is rather easy to show.



    So let's assume $b_n$ converges to $0$. Since $sum a_n$ converges but $sum b_n$ does not, $a_n$ must somehow "converge faster" to $0$ than $b_n$ does, thus causing $ liminflimits_{nrightarrow infty} frac{a_n}{b_n}=0$, but I have a hard time to express that formally.



    I'd be very grateful for a push in the right direction.



    thanks for helping :)










    share|cite|improve this question

























      0












      0








      0







      $(a_n)_{n in mathbb{N}},(b_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$ are positive, real sequences!



      Since $sum a_n$ converges, we know $limlimits_{nrightarrow infty}a_n =0$.



      If $limlimits_{nrightarrow infty}b_n ne 0$ then $ liminflimits_{nrightarrow infty} frac{a_n}{b_n}=0$ is rather easy to show.



      So let's assume $b_n$ converges to $0$. Since $sum a_n$ converges but $sum b_n$ does not, $a_n$ must somehow "converge faster" to $0$ than $b_n$ does, thus causing $ liminflimits_{nrightarrow infty} frac{a_n}{b_n}=0$, but I have a hard time to express that formally.



      I'd be very grateful for a push in the right direction.



      thanks for helping :)










      share|cite|improve this question













      $(a_n)_{n in mathbb{N}},(b_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$ are positive, real sequences!



      Since $sum a_n$ converges, we know $limlimits_{nrightarrow infty}a_n =0$.



      If $limlimits_{nrightarrow infty}b_n ne 0$ then $ liminflimits_{nrightarrow infty} frac{a_n}{b_n}=0$ is rather easy to show.



      So let's assume $b_n$ converges to $0$. Since $sum a_n$ converges but $sum b_n$ does not, $a_n$ must somehow "converge faster" to $0$ than $b_n$ does, thus causing $ liminflimits_{nrightarrow infty} frac{a_n}{b_n}=0$, but I have a hard time to express that formally.



      I'd be very grateful for a push in the right direction.



      thanks for helping :)







      real-analysis sequences-and-series convergence






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      asked Nov 29 '18 at 20:13









      DDevelopsDDevelops

      533




      533






















          1 Answer
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          Hint: If $ c = liminf_{nto infty} frac{a_n}{b_n} > 0$ then
          $$
          a_n ge frac c2 b_n ge 0
          $$

          for all sufficiently large $n$. What does that tell about the convergence
          of the series $sum a_n$ and $sum b_n$?






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • thanks, your approach led me to a solution :)
            – DDevelops
            Nov 30 '18 at 14:43











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          1 Answer
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          oldest

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          active

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          3














          Hint: If $ c = liminf_{nto infty} frac{a_n}{b_n} > 0$ then
          $$
          a_n ge frac c2 b_n ge 0
          $$

          for all sufficiently large $n$. What does that tell about the convergence
          of the series $sum a_n$ and $sum b_n$?






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • thanks, your approach led me to a solution :)
            – DDevelops
            Nov 30 '18 at 14:43
















          3














          Hint: If $ c = liminf_{nto infty} frac{a_n}{b_n} > 0$ then
          $$
          a_n ge frac c2 b_n ge 0
          $$

          for all sufficiently large $n$. What does that tell about the convergence
          of the series $sum a_n$ and $sum b_n$?






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • thanks, your approach led me to a solution :)
            – DDevelops
            Nov 30 '18 at 14:43














          3












          3








          3






          Hint: If $ c = liminf_{nto infty} frac{a_n}{b_n} > 0$ then
          $$
          a_n ge frac c2 b_n ge 0
          $$

          for all sufficiently large $n$. What does that tell about the convergence
          of the series $sum a_n$ and $sum b_n$?






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Hint: If $ c = liminf_{nto infty} frac{a_n}{b_n} > 0$ then
          $$
          a_n ge frac c2 b_n ge 0
          $$

          for all sufficiently large $n$. What does that tell about the convergence
          of the series $sum a_n$ and $sum b_n$?







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 29 '18 at 20:20









          Martin RMartin R

          27.3k33254




          27.3k33254












          • thanks, your approach led me to a solution :)
            – DDevelops
            Nov 30 '18 at 14:43


















          • thanks, your approach led me to a solution :)
            – DDevelops
            Nov 30 '18 at 14:43
















          thanks, your approach led me to a solution :)
          – DDevelops
          Nov 30 '18 at 14:43




          thanks, your approach led me to a solution :)
          – DDevelops
          Nov 30 '18 at 14:43


















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