Prove that if $n^2$ is divided by 3, then also $n$ can also be divided by 3.












5












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$nin Bbb N$



Prove that if $n^2$ is divided by 3, then also n can also be divided by 3.




I started solving this by induction, but I'm not sure that I'm going in the right direction, any suggestions?










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  • $begingroup$
    This has got nothing to do with calculus or division algebras.
    $endgroup$
    – Ali Caglayan
    Oct 26 '14 at 18:52










  • $begingroup$
    If a prime $p$ divides a product $ab$, then either $p$ divides $a$ or $p$ divides $b$. You have that $p$ divides the product $n cdot n = n^2$. So, what can you say?
    $endgroup$
    – user71641
    Oct 26 '14 at 18:54












  • $begingroup$
    See also: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1009637/…
    $endgroup$
    – Martin Sleziak
    Feb 15 '15 at 16:29
















5












$begingroup$



$nin Bbb N$



Prove that if $n^2$ is divided by 3, then also n can also be divided by 3.




I started solving this by induction, but I'm not sure that I'm going in the right direction, any suggestions?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    This has got nothing to do with calculus or division algebras.
    $endgroup$
    – Ali Caglayan
    Oct 26 '14 at 18:52










  • $begingroup$
    If a prime $p$ divides a product $ab$, then either $p$ divides $a$ or $p$ divides $b$. You have that $p$ divides the product $n cdot n = n^2$. So, what can you say?
    $endgroup$
    – user71641
    Oct 26 '14 at 18:54












  • $begingroup$
    See also: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1009637/…
    $endgroup$
    – Martin Sleziak
    Feb 15 '15 at 16:29














5












5








5


1



$begingroup$



$nin Bbb N$



Prove that if $n^2$ is divided by 3, then also n can also be divided by 3.




I started solving this by induction, but I'm not sure that I'm going in the right direction, any suggestions?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





$nin Bbb N$



Prove that if $n^2$ is divided by 3, then also n can also be divided by 3.




I started solving this by induction, but I'm not sure that I'm going in the right direction, any suggestions?







algebra-precalculus elementary-number-theory induction divisibility






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edited Feb 15 '15 at 16:26









Martin Sleziak

44.7k10119272




44.7k10119272










asked Oct 26 '14 at 18:45









Firas Ali Abdel GhaniFiras Ali Abdel Ghani

9691817




9691817












  • $begingroup$
    This has got nothing to do with calculus or division algebras.
    $endgroup$
    – Ali Caglayan
    Oct 26 '14 at 18:52










  • $begingroup$
    If a prime $p$ divides a product $ab$, then either $p$ divides $a$ or $p$ divides $b$. You have that $p$ divides the product $n cdot n = n^2$. So, what can you say?
    $endgroup$
    – user71641
    Oct 26 '14 at 18:54












  • $begingroup$
    See also: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1009637/…
    $endgroup$
    – Martin Sleziak
    Feb 15 '15 at 16:29


















  • $begingroup$
    This has got nothing to do with calculus or division algebras.
    $endgroup$
    – Ali Caglayan
    Oct 26 '14 at 18:52










  • $begingroup$
    If a prime $p$ divides a product $ab$, then either $p$ divides $a$ or $p$ divides $b$. You have that $p$ divides the product $n cdot n = n^2$. So, what can you say?
    $endgroup$
    – user71641
    Oct 26 '14 at 18:54












  • $begingroup$
    See also: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1009637/…
    $endgroup$
    – Martin Sleziak
    Feb 15 '15 at 16:29
















$begingroup$
This has got nothing to do with calculus or division algebras.
$endgroup$
– Ali Caglayan
Oct 26 '14 at 18:52




$begingroup$
This has got nothing to do with calculus or division algebras.
$endgroup$
– Ali Caglayan
Oct 26 '14 at 18:52












$begingroup$
If a prime $p$ divides a product $ab$, then either $p$ divides $a$ or $p$ divides $b$. You have that $p$ divides the product $n cdot n = n^2$. So, what can you say?
$endgroup$
– user71641
Oct 26 '14 at 18:54






$begingroup$
If a prime $p$ divides a product $ab$, then either $p$ divides $a$ or $p$ divides $b$. You have that $p$ divides the product $n cdot n = n^2$. So, what can you say?
$endgroup$
– user71641
Oct 26 '14 at 18:54














$begingroup$
See also: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1009637/…
$endgroup$
– Martin Sleziak
Feb 15 '15 at 16:29




$begingroup$
See also: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1009637/…
$endgroup$
– Martin Sleziak
Feb 15 '15 at 16:29










9 Answers
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Think about the fundamental theorem of arithmetic.



Decomposing into a product of primes, suppose $n = p_1^{k_1}p_2^{k_2} cdot cdot cdot p_n^{k_n}$ where $k_i in mathbb{N}$. What happens to the prime decomposition when $n$ is squared? What if $p|n^2$ for some prime $p$?






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    4












    $begingroup$

    Hint: $p|ab implies p|a$ or $p|b$ if $p$ is a prime






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      This is not true. 4|10*2 but 4 does not divide 10 and 4 does not divide 2
      $endgroup$
      – 123
      Oct 26 '14 at 18:50






    • 4




      $begingroup$
      @mathtastic So what you're saying is... $4$ is prime.
      $endgroup$
      – Edward Jiang
      Oct 26 '14 at 18:51










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      sorry I didn't mention p should be a prime when I firstly posted the answer
      $endgroup$
      – Fan
      Oct 26 '14 at 18:52










    • $begingroup$
      Edward Jiang - No. 4 is obviously not prime. However, that condition was an edit added after I made my comment. The statement is now true. The original statement was: $p|ab$ implies $p|a$ or $p|b$
      $endgroup$
      – 123
      Oct 26 '14 at 18:53





















    2












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    if $nequiv 0,1,2 mod 3$ then $n^2equiv 0,1 mod 3$ therefore $n^2equiv 0mod 3$ then $n equiv 0 mod 3$






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      2












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      For every $ninmathbb Z$ you have three possible cases. Either $n=3k$ or $n=3k+1$ or $n=3k+2$ (for some $kinmathbb Z$).



      Let us consider each of these cases separately:




      • If $n=3k$, then $n^2=(3k)^2=3(3k^2)$, which means $3mid n^2$.

      • If $n=3k+1$, then $n^2=(3k+1)^2=9k^2+6k+1=3(3k^2+2k)+1$. This implies $3nmid n^2$.

      • If $n=3k+2$, then $n^2=(3k+2)^2=9k^2+12k+4=3(3k^2+4k+1)+1$. So we have again $3nmid n^2$.


      So we see that if $3nmid n$ (i.e., in the last two cases), then $3nmid n^2$. This is the same as saying that $3mid n^2$ implies $3mid n$.



      Notice that we have in fact proved also that if $3nmid n$, then the remainder of $n^2$ modulo $3$ is $1$.



      Once you learn a bit about congruences, you will be able to write down arguments like this in more elegant and more economical way.
      This is the way it was done in this answer.



      Maybe it is also worth to mention that instead of $n=3k+2$ we can use $n=3k-1$. This can sometimes simplify the calculations slightly. (In this case we get $n^2=(3k-1)^2=9k^2-6k+1=3(3k^2-2k)+1$.)






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      • $begingroup$
        Thank you. The only problem I now have is that it seems we can do the same with proving 4 | p^2 => 4 | p, because: If p = 4k then p^2 = (4k)^2 = 4(4k^2) => 4|p^2 If p = 4k + 1 then 4 does not divide p^2 If p = 4k + 2 then 4 does not divide p^2 So we see that if 4 does not divide p (i.e., in the last two cases), then 4 does not divide p^2. This is the same as saying that 4 does not divide p^2 implies 4 divides p. (But this is not true for p = 2).
        $endgroup$
        – John Snoe
        Apr 17 '16 at 11:08










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        If $n=4k+2$ then $n^2=(4k+2)^2=16k^2+16k+4=4(4k^2+4k+1)$ and $4mid n^2$. So the same argument does not work with $4$ instead of $3$.
        $endgroup$
        – Martin Sleziak
        Apr 17 '16 at 11:23










      • $begingroup$
        Got it. Thanks a ton!
        $endgroup$
        – John Snoe
        Apr 17 '16 at 12:02



















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      Proof by contrapositive:
      ("If $3 not mid n$, then $ 3 not mid n^2 $" is logically equivalent to "If $3mid n^2$, then $ 3mid n $")



      Since we have $3 not mid n$, then there are remainders $r=1,2$ So, we have that $n=3k_1+1$ or $n=3k_2+2$ for some $k_1,k_2 in mathbb{N}$.



      Then, if $n=3k_1+1$ we have that $n^2=9k_1^2+6k_1+1$. Note $n^2=3(3k_1^2+2k_1)+1$, where $3k_1^2+2k_1 in mathbb{N}$, since $mathbb{N}$ closed under multiplication and addition. So, since we have remainder $r=1$ we see that $3 notmid n^2$.



      Then, if $n=3k_2+2$ we have that $n^2=9k_2^2+12k_2+4$. Note $n^2=3(3k_2^2+4k_2+1)+1$, where $3k_2^2+4k_2+1in mathbb{N}$ since $mathbb{N}$ closed under multiplication and addition. So, since we have remainder $r=1$ we see that $3 notmid n^2$



      Thus, we have that $3 notmid n^2$, which shows the contrapositive to be true.



      Q.E.D.






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      • $begingroup$
        First line ("If $3mid n$, then $ 3mid n^2 $") is mixed up.
        $endgroup$
        – Deepak
        Dec 13 '18 at 2:24






      • 1




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        Thanks for that!
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        – Rudy Navarro
        Dec 13 '18 at 7:23



















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      $n$ is an integer, so by Euclid's algorithm, $n=3a+b$ where $a$ is an integer, and $b$ is either 0,1 or 2, then $n^2=9a^2+6ab+b^2$, and therefore $3|n^2Rightarrow 3|b^2$. And now we got Dr. Sonhard Graubner proof as $3|b^2Rightarrow b^2neq 1,4Rightarrow bneq 1,2 Rightarrow b=0Rightarrow n=3aRightarrow 3|n$






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        As fan wrote, if $p$ is prime and divides $ab$ then $p$ divides either $a$ or $b$ (or both). Here is a proof of that theorem.



        Since the only divisors of a prime number are $1$ and itself, either $GCD(p,a)=1$ or $GCD(p,a)=p$. (GCD means Greatest Common Divisor.) The second means that $p$ divides $a$ and we're done.



        If $GCD(p,a)=1$ then by Bezout's theorem we can find integers $x$ and $y$ such that
        $$px+ay=1$$
        Multiply this by $b$ and we get
        $$pbx+(ab)y=b$$



        $p$ obviously divides the first term and by hypothesis it divides the second, so $p$ must also divide the third term, $b$, and we are done again.






        share|cite|improve this answer









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          Everything comes from Bézout's lemma. Suppose that $3$ does not divide $n$, then $GCD(3, n) = 1$ and there are integers $a$ and $b$ such that $3a + nb = 1$. Now if you multiply both sides by n you get $3an + n^2b = n$. $3$ divides the left hand side, so it divides $n$ too, which gives the desired contradiction.






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            -2












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            nnn + 2*n = n*(nn+2) = n{(n*n -1) + 3} = n*3 + {n*(n-1)*(n+1)} ==> P + Q



            Here
            P = n*3 ==> divisible by 3
            Q = (n-1)n(n+1) ==> this is multiplication of three consecutive number and hence it is divisible by 3
            ==> P + Q is divisible by 3






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            • $begingroup$
              Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange. Please use MathJax to format your answer; just using the * symbol has another function than you intend.
              $endgroup$
              – Glorfindel
              May 19 '17 at 17:15










            • $begingroup$
              What does the divisibility of $n^3+2n$ by $3$ have to do with the question?
              $endgroup$
              – epimorphic
              May 19 '17 at 17:30










            • $begingroup$
              @epimorphic I think the intention is "$n^3 + 2n$ is always divisible by $3$; if $n^2$ is divisible by $3$, then so is $n^3$, and hence $2n = (n^3+2n) - n^3$. Since $3$ is a prime and doesn't divide $2$, it divides $n$". The argument would be more economic using $n^3-n$ and $n = n^3 - (n^3-n)$.
              $endgroup$
              – Daniel Fischer
              May 19 '17 at 18:18










            • $begingroup$
              @DanielFischer I see. Would be nice if that was carried out fully...
              $endgroup$
              – epimorphic
              May 19 '17 at 18:45











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            9 Answers
            9






            active

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            9 Answers
            9






            active

            oldest

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            active

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            active

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            1












            $begingroup$

            Think about the fundamental theorem of arithmetic.



            Decomposing into a product of primes, suppose $n = p_1^{k_1}p_2^{k_2} cdot cdot cdot p_n^{k_n}$ where $k_i in mathbb{N}$. What happens to the prime decomposition when $n$ is squared? What if $p|n^2$ for some prime $p$?






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              1












              $begingroup$

              Think about the fundamental theorem of arithmetic.



              Decomposing into a product of primes, suppose $n = p_1^{k_1}p_2^{k_2} cdot cdot cdot p_n^{k_n}$ where $k_i in mathbb{N}$. What happens to the prime decomposition when $n$ is squared? What if $p|n^2$ for some prime $p$?






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                Think about the fundamental theorem of arithmetic.



                Decomposing into a product of primes, suppose $n = p_1^{k_1}p_2^{k_2} cdot cdot cdot p_n^{k_n}$ where $k_i in mathbb{N}$. What happens to the prime decomposition when $n$ is squared? What if $p|n^2$ for some prime $p$?






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Think about the fundamental theorem of arithmetic.



                Decomposing into a product of primes, suppose $n = p_1^{k_1}p_2^{k_2} cdot cdot cdot p_n^{k_n}$ where $k_i in mathbb{N}$. What happens to the prime decomposition when $n$ is squared? What if $p|n^2$ for some prime $p$?







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Oct 26 '14 at 18:50









                Kaj HansenKaj Hansen

                27.4k43779




                27.4k43779























                    4












                    $begingroup$

                    Hint: $p|ab implies p|a$ or $p|b$ if $p$ is a prime






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$













                    • $begingroup$
                      This is not true. 4|10*2 but 4 does not divide 10 and 4 does not divide 2
                      $endgroup$
                      – 123
                      Oct 26 '14 at 18:50






                    • 4




                      $begingroup$
                      @mathtastic So what you're saying is... $4$ is prime.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Edward Jiang
                      Oct 26 '14 at 18:51










                    • $begingroup$
                      sorry I didn't mention p should be a prime when I firstly posted the answer
                      $endgroup$
                      – Fan
                      Oct 26 '14 at 18:52










                    • $begingroup$
                      Edward Jiang - No. 4 is obviously not prime. However, that condition was an edit added after I made my comment. The statement is now true. The original statement was: $p|ab$ implies $p|a$ or $p|b$
                      $endgroup$
                      – 123
                      Oct 26 '14 at 18:53


















                    4












                    $begingroup$

                    Hint: $p|ab implies p|a$ or $p|b$ if $p$ is a prime






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$













                    • $begingroup$
                      This is not true. 4|10*2 but 4 does not divide 10 and 4 does not divide 2
                      $endgroup$
                      – 123
                      Oct 26 '14 at 18:50






                    • 4




                      $begingroup$
                      @mathtastic So what you're saying is... $4$ is prime.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Edward Jiang
                      Oct 26 '14 at 18:51










                    • $begingroup$
                      sorry I didn't mention p should be a prime when I firstly posted the answer
                      $endgroup$
                      – Fan
                      Oct 26 '14 at 18:52










                    • $begingroup$
                      Edward Jiang - No. 4 is obviously not prime. However, that condition was an edit added after I made my comment. The statement is now true. The original statement was: $p|ab$ implies $p|a$ or $p|b$
                      $endgroup$
                      – 123
                      Oct 26 '14 at 18:53
















                    4












                    4








                    4





                    $begingroup$

                    Hint: $p|ab implies p|a$ or $p|b$ if $p$ is a prime






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    Hint: $p|ab implies p|a$ or $p|b$ if $p$ is a prime







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Oct 26 '14 at 18:49









                    FanFan

                    780313




                    780313












                    • $begingroup$
                      This is not true. 4|10*2 but 4 does not divide 10 and 4 does not divide 2
                      $endgroup$
                      – 123
                      Oct 26 '14 at 18:50






                    • 4




                      $begingroup$
                      @mathtastic So what you're saying is... $4$ is prime.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Edward Jiang
                      Oct 26 '14 at 18:51










                    • $begingroup$
                      sorry I didn't mention p should be a prime when I firstly posted the answer
                      $endgroup$
                      – Fan
                      Oct 26 '14 at 18:52










                    • $begingroup$
                      Edward Jiang - No. 4 is obviously not prime. However, that condition was an edit added after I made my comment. The statement is now true. The original statement was: $p|ab$ implies $p|a$ or $p|b$
                      $endgroup$
                      – 123
                      Oct 26 '14 at 18:53




















                    • $begingroup$
                      This is not true. 4|10*2 but 4 does not divide 10 and 4 does not divide 2
                      $endgroup$
                      – 123
                      Oct 26 '14 at 18:50






                    • 4




                      $begingroup$
                      @mathtastic So what you're saying is... $4$ is prime.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Edward Jiang
                      Oct 26 '14 at 18:51










                    • $begingroup$
                      sorry I didn't mention p should be a prime when I firstly posted the answer
                      $endgroup$
                      – Fan
                      Oct 26 '14 at 18:52










                    • $begingroup$
                      Edward Jiang - No. 4 is obviously not prime. However, that condition was an edit added after I made my comment. The statement is now true. The original statement was: $p|ab$ implies $p|a$ or $p|b$
                      $endgroup$
                      – 123
                      Oct 26 '14 at 18:53


















                    $begingroup$
                    This is not true. 4|10*2 but 4 does not divide 10 and 4 does not divide 2
                    $endgroup$
                    – 123
                    Oct 26 '14 at 18:50




                    $begingroup$
                    This is not true. 4|10*2 but 4 does not divide 10 and 4 does not divide 2
                    $endgroup$
                    – 123
                    Oct 26 '14 at 18:50




                    4




                    4




                    $begingroup$
                    @mathtastic So what you're saying is... $4$ is prime.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Edward Jiang
                    Oct 26 '14 at 18:51




                    $begingroup$
                    @mathtastic So what you're saying is... $4$ is prime.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Edward Jiang
                    Oct 26 '14 at 18:51












                    $begingroup$
                    sorry I didn't mention p should be a prime when I firstly posted the answer
                    $endgroup$
                    – Fan
                    Oct 26 '14 at 18:52




                    $begingroup$
                    sorry I didn't mention p should be a prime when I firstly posted the answer
                    $endgroup$
                    – Fan
                    Oct 26 '14 at 18:52












                    $begingroup$
                    Edward Jiang - No. 4 is obviously not prime. However, that condition was an edit added after I made my comment. The statement is now true. The original statement was: $p|ab$ implies $p|a$ or $p|b$
                    $endgroup$
                    – 123
                    Oct 26 '14 at 18:53






                    $begingroup$
                    Edward Jiang - No. 4 is obviously not prime. However, that condition was an edit added after I made my comment. The statement is now true. The original statement was: $p|ab$ implies $p|a$ or $p|b$
                    $endgroup$
                    – 123
                    Oct 26 '14 at 18:53













                    2












                    $begingroup$

                    if $nequiv 0,1,2 mod 3$ then $n^2equiv 0,1 mod 3$ therefore $n^2equiv 0mod 3$ then $n equiv 0 mod 3$






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$


















                      2












                      $begingroup$

                      if $nequiv 0,1,2 mod 3$ then $n^2equiv 0,1 mod 3$ therefore $n^2equiv 0mod 3$ then $n equiv 0 mod 3$






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$
















                        2












                        2








                        2





                        $begingroup$

                        if $nequiv 0,1,2 mod 3$ then $n^2equiv 0,1 mod 3$ therefore $n^2equiv 0mod 3$ then $n equiv 0 mod 3$






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$



                        if $nequiv 0,1,2 mod 3$ then $n^2equiv 0,1 mod 3$ therefore $n^2equiv 0mod 3$ then $n equiv 0 mod 3$







                        share|cite|improve this answer












                        share|cite|improve this answer



                        share|cite|improve this answer










                        answered Oct 26 '14 at 18:52









                        Dr. Sonnhard GraubnerDr. Sonnhard Graubner

                        76.4k42866




                        76.4k42866























                            2












                            $begingroup$

                            For every $ninmathbb Z$ you have three possible cases. Either $n=3k$ or $n=3k+1$ or $n=3k+2$ (for some $kinmathbb Z$).



                            Let us consider each of these cases separately:




                            • If $n=3k$, then $n^2=(3k)^2=3(3k^2)$, which means $3mid n^2$.

                            • If $n=3k+1$, then $n^2=(3k+1)^2=9k^2+6k+1=3(3k^2+2k)+1$. This implies $3nmid n^2$.

                            • If $n=3k+2$, then $n^2=(3k+2)^2=9k^2+12k+4=3(3k^2+4k+1)+1$. So we have again $3nmid n^2$.


                            So we see that if $3nmid n$ (i.e., in the last two cases), then $3nmid n^2$. This is the same as saying that $3mid n^2$ implies $3mid n$.



                            Notice that we have in fact proved also that if $3nmid n$, then the remainder of $n^2$ modulo $3$ is $1$.



                            Once you learn a bit about congruences, you will be able to write down arguments like this in more elegant and more economical way.
                            This is the way it was done in this answer.



                            Maybe it is also worth to mention that instead of $n=3k+2$ we can use $n=3k-1$. This can sometimes simplify the calculations slightly. (In this case we get $n^2=(3k-1)^2=9k^2-6k+1=3(3k^2-2k)+1$.)






                            share|cite|improve this answer











                            $endgroup$













                            • $begingroup$
                              Thank you. The only problem I now have is that it seems we can do the same with proving 4 | p^2 => 4 | p, because: If p = 4k then p^2 = (4k)^2 = 4(4k^2) => 4|p^2 If p = 4k + 1 then 4 does not divide p^2 If p = 4k + 2 then 4 does not divide p^2 So we see that if 4 does not divide p (i.e., in the last two cases), then 4 does not divide p^2. This is the same as saying that 4 does not divide p^2 implies 4 divides p. (But this is not true for p = 2).
                              $endgroup$
                              – John Snoe
                              Apr 17 '16 at 11:08










                            • $begingroup$
                              If $n=4k+2$ then $n^2=(4k+2)^2=16k^2+16k+4=4(4k^2+4k+1)$ and $4mid n^2$. So the same argument does not work with $4$ instead of $3$.
                              $endgroup$
                              – Martin Sleziak
                              Apr 17 '16 at 11:23










                            • $begingroup$
                              Got it. Thanks a ton!
                              $endgroup$
                              – John Snoe
                              Apr 17 '16 at 12:02
















                            2












                            $begingroup$

                            For every $ninmathbb Z$ you have three possible cases. Either $n=3k$ or $n=3k+1$ or $n=3k+2$ (for some $kinmathbb Z$).



                            Let us consider each of these cases separately:




                            • If $n=3k$, then $n^2=(3k)^2=3(3k^2)$, which means $3mid n^2$.

                            • If $n=3k+1$, then $n^2=(3k+1)^2=9k^2+6k+1=3(3k^2+2k)+1$. This implies $3nmid n^2$.

                            • If $n=3k+2$, then $n^2=(3k+2)^2=9k^2+12k+4=3(3k^2+4k+1)+1$. So we have again $3nmid n^2$.


                            So we see that if $3nmid n$ (i.e., in the last two cases), then $3nmid n^2$. This is the same as saying that $3mid n^2$ implies $3mid n$.



                            Notice that we have in fact proved also that if $3nmid n$, then the remainder of $n^2$ modulo $3$ is $1$.



                            Once you learn a bit about congruences, you will be able to write down arguments like this in more elegant and more economical way.
                            This is the way it was done in this answer.



                            Maybe it is also worth to mention that instead of $n=3k+2$ we can use $n=3k-1$. This can sometimes simplify the calculations slightly. (In this case we get $n^2=(3k-1)^2=9k^2-6k+1=3(3k^2-2k)+1$.)






                            share|cite|improve this answer











                            $endgroup$













                            • $begingroup$
                              Thank you. The only problem I now have is that it seems we can do the same with proving 4 | p^2 => 4 | p, because: If p = 4k then p^2 = (4k)^2 = 4(4k^2) => 4|p^2 If p = 4k + 1 then 4 does not divide p^2 If p = 4k + 2 then 4 does not divide p^2 So we see that if 4 does not divide p (i.e., in the last two cases), then 4 does not divide p^2. This is the same as saying that 4 does not divide p^2 implies 4 divides p. (But this is not true for p = 2).
                              $endgroup$
                              – John Snoe
                              Apr 17 '16 at 11:08










                            • $begingroup$
                              If $n=4k+2$ then $n^2=(4k+2)^2=16k^2+16k+4=4(4k^2+4k+1)$ and $4mid n^2$. So the same argument does not work with $4$ instead of $3$.
                              $endgroup$
                              – Martin Sleziak
                              Apr 17 '16 at 11:23










                            • $begingroup$
                              Got it. Thanks a ton!
                              $endgroup$
                              – John Snoe
                              Apr 17 '16 at 12:02














                            2












                            2








                            2





                            $begingroup$

                            For every $ninmathbb Z$ you have three possible cases. Either $n=3k$ or $n=3k+1$ or $n=3k+2$ (for some $kinmathbb Z$).



                            Let us consider each of these cases separately:




                            • If $n=3k$, then $n^2=(3k)^2=3(3k^2)$, which means $3mid n^2$.

                            • If $n=3k+1$, then $n^2=(3k+1)^2=9k^2+6k+1=3(3k^2+2k)+1$. This implies $3nmid n^2$.

                            • If $n=3k+2$, then $n^2=(3k+2)^2=9k^2+12k+4=3(3k^2+4k+1)+1$. So we have again $3nmid n^2$.


                            So we see that if $3nmid n$ (i.e., in the last two cases), then $3nmid n^2$. This is the same as saying that $3mid n^2$ implies $3mid n$.



                            Notice that we have in fact proved also that if $3nmid n$, then the remainder of $n^2$ modulo $3$ is $1$.



                            Once you learn a bit about congruences, you will be able to write down arguments like this in more elegant and more economical way.
                            This is the way it was done in this answer.



                            Maybe it is also worth to mention that instead of $n=3k+2$ we can use $n=3k-1$. This can sometimes simplify the calculations slightly. (In this case we get $n^2=(3k-1)^2=9k^2-6k+1=3(3k^2-2k)+1$.)






                            share|cite|improve this answer











                            $endgroup$



                            For every $ninmathbb Z$ you have three possible cases. Either $n=3k$ or $n=3k+1$ or $n=3k+2$ (for some $kinmathbb Z$).



                            Let us consider each of these cases separately:




                            • If $n=3k$, then $n^2=(3k)^2=3(3k^2)$, which means $3mid n^2$.

                            • If $n=3k+1$, then $n^2=(3k+1)^2=9k^2+6k+1=3(3k^2+2k)+1$. This implies $3nmid n^2$.

                            • If $n=3k+2$, then $n^2=(3k+2)^2=9k^2+12k+4=3(3k^2+4k+1)+1$. So we have again $3nmid n^2$.


                            So we see that if $3nmid n$ (i.e., in the last two cases), then $3nmid n^2$. This is the same as saying that $3mid n^2$ implies $3mid n$.



                            Notice that we have in fact proved also that if $3nmid n$, then the remainder of $n^2$ modulo $3$ is $1$.



                            Once you learn a bit about congruences, you will be able to write down arguments like this in more elegant and more economical way.
                            This is the way it was done in this answer.



                            Maybe it is also worth to mention that instead of $n=3k+2$ we can use $n=3k-1$. This can sometimes simplify the calculations slightly. (In this case we get $n^2=(3k-1)^2=9k^2-6k+1=3(3k^2-2k)+1$.)







                            share|cite|improve this answer














                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer








                            edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:20









                            Community

                            1




                            1










                            answered Apr 17 '16 at 10:27









                            Martin SleziakMartin Sleziak

                            44.7k10119272




                            44.7k10119272












                            • $begingroup$
                              Thank you. The only problem I now have is that it seems we can do the same with proving 4 | p^2 => 4 | p, because: If p = 4k then p^2 = (4k)^2 = 4(4k^2) => 4|p^2 If p = 4k + 1 then 4 does not divide p^2 If p = 4k + 2 then 4 does not divide p^2 So we see that if 4 does not divide p (i.e., in the last two cases), then 4 does not divide p^2. This is the same as saying that 4 does not divide p^2 implies 4 divides p. (But this is not true for p = 2).
                              $endgroup$
                              – John Snoe
                              Apr 17 '16 at 11:08










                            • $begingroup$
                              If $n=4k+2$ then $n^2=(4k+2)^2=16k^2+16k+4=4(4k^2+4k+1)$ and $4mid n^2$. So the same argument does not work with $4$ instead of $3$.
                              $endgroup$
                              – Martin Sleziak
                              Apr 17 '16 at 11:23










                            • $begingroup$
                              Got it. Thanks a ton!
                              $endgroup$
                              – John Snoe
                              Apr 17 '16 at 12:02


















                            • $begingroup$
                              Thank you. The only problem I now have is that it seems we can do the same with proving 4 | p^2 => 4 | p, because: If p = 4k then p^2 = (4k)^2 = 4(4k^2) => 4|p^2 If p = 4k + 1 then 4 does not divide p^2 If p = 4k + 2 then 4 does not divide p^2 So we see that if 4 does not divide p (i.e., in the last two cases), then 4 does not divide p^2. This is the same as saying that 4 does not divide p^2 implies 4 divides p. (But this is not true for p = 2).
                              $endgroup$
                              – John Snoe
                              Apr 17 '16 at 11:08










                            • $begingroup$
                              If $n=4k+2$ then $n^2=(4k+2)^2=16k^2+16k+4=4(4k^2+4k+1)$ and $4mid n^2$. So the same argument does not work with $4$ instead of $3$.
                              $endgroup$
                              – Martin Sleziak
                              Apr 17 '16 at 11:23










                            • $begingroup$
                              Got it. Thanks a ton!
                              $endgroup$
                              – John Snoe
                              Apr 17 '16 at 12:02
















                            $begingroup$
                            Thank you. The only problem I now have is that it seems we can do the same with proving 4 | p^2 => 4 | p, because: If p = 4k then p^2 = (4k)^2 = 4(4k^2) => 4|p^2 If p = 4k + 1 then 4 does not divide p^2 If p = 4k + 2 then 4 does not divide p^2 So we see that if 4 does not divide p (i.e., in the last two cases), then 4 does not divide p^2. This is the same as saying that 4 does not divide p^2 implies 4 divides p. (But this is not true for p = 2).
                            $endgroup$
                            – John Snoe
                            Apr 17 '16 at 11:08




                            $begingroup$
                            Thank you. The only problem I now have is that it seems we can do the same with proving 4 | p^2 => 4 | p, because: If p = 4k then p^2 = (4k)^2 = 4(4k^2) => 4|p^2 If p = 4k + 1 then 4 does not divide p^2 If p = 4k + 2 then 4 does not divide p^2 So we see that if 4 does not divide p (i.e., in the last two cases), then 4 does not divide p^2. This is the same as saying that 4 does not divide p^2 implies 4 divides p. (But this is not true for p = 2).
                            $endgroup$
                            – John Snoe
                            Apr 17 '16 at 11:08












                            $begingroup$
                            If $n=4k+2$ then $n^2=(4k+2)^2=16k^2+16k+4=4(4k^2+4k+1)$ and $4mid n^2$. So the same argument does not work with $4$ instead of $3$.
                            $endgroup$
                            – Martin Sleziak
                            Apr 17 '16 at 11:23




                            $begingroup$
                            If $n=4k+2$ then $n^2=(4k+2)^2=16k^2+16k+4=4(4k^2+4k+1)$ and $4mid n^2$. So the same argument does not work with $4$ instead of $3$.
                            $endgroup$
                            – Martin Sleziak
                            Apr 17 '16 at 11:23












                            $begingroup$
                            Got it. Thanks a ton!
                            $endgroup$
                            – John Snoe
                            Apr 17 '16 at 12:02




                            $begingroup$
                            Got it. Thanks a ton!
                            $endgroup$
                            – John Snoe
                            Apr 17 '16 at 12:02











                            1












                            $begingroup$

                            Proof by contrapositive:
                            ("If $3 not mid n$, then $ 3 not mid n^2 $" is logically equivalent to "If $3mid n^2$, then $ 3mid n $")



                            Since we have $3 not mid n$, then there are remainders $r=1,2$ So, we have that $n=3k_1+1$ or $n=3k_2+2$ for some $k_1,k_2 in mathbb{N}$.



                            Then, if $n=3k_1+1$ we have that $n^2=9k_1^2+6k_1+1$. Note $n^2=3(3k_1^2+2k_1)+1$, where $3k_1^2+2k_1 in mathbb{N}$, since $mathbb{N}$ closed under multiplication and addition. So, since we have remainder $r=1$ we see that $3 notmid n^2$.



                            Then, if $n=3k_2+2$ we have that $n^2=9k_2^2+12k_2+4$. Note $n^2=3(3k_2^2+4k_2+1)+1$, where $3k_2^2+4k_2+1in mathbb{N}$ since $mathbb{N}$ closed under multiplication and addition. So, since we have remainder $r=1$ we see that $3 notmid n^2$



                            Thus, we have that $3 notmid n^2$, which shows the contrapositive to be true.



                            Q.E.D.






                            share|cite|improve this answer











                            $endgroup$













                            • $begingroup$
                              First line ("If $3mid n$, then $ 3mid n^2 $") is mixed up.
                              $endgroup$
                              – Deepak
                              Dec 13 '18 at 2:24






                            • 1




                              $begingroup$
                              Thanks for that!
                              $endgroup$
                              – Rudy Navarro
                              Dec 13 '18 at 7:23
















                            1












                            $begingroup$

                            Proof by contrapositive:
                            ("If $3 not mid n$, then $ 3 not mid n^2 $" is logically equivalent to "If $3mid n^2$, then $ 3mid n $")



                            Since we have $3 not mid n$, then there are remainders $r=1,2$ So, we have that $n=3k_1+1$ or $n=3k_2+2$ for some $k_1,k_2 in mathbb{N}$.



                            Then, if $n=3k_1+1$ we have that $n^2=9k_1^2+6k_1+1$. Note $n^2=3(3k_1^2+2k_1)+1$, where $3k_1^2+2k_1 in mathbb{N}$, since $mathbb{N}$ closed under multiplication and addition. So, since we have remainder $r=1$ we see that $3 notmid n^2$.



                            Then, if $n=3k_2+2$ we have that $n^2=9k_2^2+12k_2+4$. Note $n^2=3(3k_2^2+4k_2+1)+1$, where $3k_2^2+4k_2+1in mathbb{N}$ since $mathbb{N}$ closed under multiplication and addition. So, since we have remainder $r=1$ we see that $3 notmid n^2$



                            Thus, we have that $3 notmid n^2$, which shows the contrapositive to be true.



                            Q.E.D.






                            share|cite|improve this answer











                            $endgroup$













                            • $begingroup$
                              First line ("If $3mid n$, then $ 3mid n^2 $") is mixed up.
                              $endgroup$
                              – Deepak
                              Dec 13 '18 at 2:24






                            • 1




                              $begingroup$
                              Thanks for that!
                              $endgroup$
                              – Rudy Navarro
                              Dec 13 '18 at 7:23














                            1












                            1








                            1





                            $begingroup$

                            Proof by contrapositive:
                            ("If $3 not mid n$, then $ 3 not mid n^2 $" is logically equivalent to "If $3mid n^2$, then $ 3mid n $")



                            Since we have $3 not mid n$, then there are remainders $r=1,2$ So, we have that $n=3k_1+1$ or $n=3k_2+2$ for some $k_1,k_2 in mathbb{N}$.



                            Then, if $n=3k_1+1$ we have that $n^2=9k_1^2+6k_1+1$. Note $n^2=3(3k_1^2+2k_1)+1$, where $3k_1^2+2k_1 in mathbb{N}$, since $mathbb{N}$ closed under multiplication and addition. So, since we have remainder $r=1$ we see that $3 notmid n^2$.



                            Then, if $n=3k_2+2$ we have that $n^2=9k_2^2+12k_2+4$. Note $n^2=3(3k_2^2+4k_2+1)+1$, where $3k_2^2+4k_2+1in mathbb{N}$ since $mathbb{N}$ closed under multiplication and addition. So, since we have remainder $r=1$ we see that $3 notmid n^2$



                            Thus, we have that $3 notmid n^2$, which shows the contrapositive to be true.



                            Q.E.D.






                            share|cite|improve this answer











                            $endgroup$



                            Proof by contrapositive:
                            ("If $3 not mid n$, then $ 3 not mid n^2 $" is logically equivalent to "If $3mid n^2$, then $ 3mid n $")



                            Since we have $3 not mid n$, then there are remainders $r=1,2$ So, we have that $n=3k_1+1$ or $n=3k_2+2$ for some $k_1,k_2 in mathbb{N}$.



                            Then, if $n=3k_1+1$ we have that $n^2=9k_1^2+6k_1+1$. Note $n^2=3(3k_1^2+2k_1)+1$, where $3k_1^2+2k_1 in mathbb{N}$, since $mathbb{N}$ closed under multiplication and addition. So, since we have remainder $r=1$ we see that $3 notmid n^2$.



                            Then, if $n=3k_2+2$ we have that $n^2=9k_2^2+12k_2+4$. Note $n^2=3(3k_2^2+4k_2+1)+1$, where $3k_2^2+4k_2+1in mathbb{N}$ since $mathbb{N}$ closed under multiplication and addition. So, since we have remainder $r=1$ we see that $3 notmid n^2$



                            Thus, we have that $3 notmid n^2$, which shows the contrapositive to be true.



                            Q.E.D.







                            share|cite|improve this answer














                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer








                            edited Dec 13 '18 at 7:24

























                            answered Dec 13 '18 at 0:58









                            Rudy NavarroRudy Navarro

                            212




                            212












                            • $begingroup$
                              First line ("If $3mid n$, then $ 3mid n^2 $") is mixed up.
                              $endgroup$
                              – Deepak
                              Dec 13 '18 at 2:24






                            • 1




                              $begingroup$
                              Thanks for that!
                              $endgroup$
                              – Rudy Navarro
                              Dec 13 '18 at 7:23


















                            • $begingroup$
                              First line ("If $3mid n$, then $ 3mid n^2 $") is mixed up.
                              $endgroup$
                              – Deepak
                              Dec 13 '18 at 2:24






                            • 1




                              $begingroup$
                              Thanks for that!
                              $endgroup$
                              – Rudy Navarro
                              Dec 13 '18 at 7:23
















                            $begingroup$
                            First line ("If $3mid n$, then $ 3mid n^2 $") is mixed up.
                            $endgroup$
                            – Deepak
                            Dec 13 '18 at 2:24




                            $begingroup$
                            First line ("If $3mid n$, then $ 3mid n^2 $") is mixed up.
                            $endgroup$
                            – Deepak
                            Dec 13 '18 at 2:24




                            1




                            1




                            $begingroup$
                            Thanks for that!
                            $endgroup$
                            – Rudy Navarro
                            Dec 13 '18 at 7:23




                            $begingroup$
                            Thanks for that!
                            $endgroup$
                            – Rudy Navarro
                            Dec 13 '18 at 7:23











                            0












                            $begingroup$

                            $n$ is an integer, so by Euclid's algorithm, $n=3a+b$ where $a$ is an integer, and $b$ is either 0,1 or 2, then $n^2=9a^2+6ab+b^2$, and therefore $3|n^2Rightarrow 3|b^2$. And now we got Dr. Sonhard Graubner proof as $3|b^2Rightarrow b^2neq 1,4Rightarrow bneq 1,2 Rightarrow b=0Rightarrow n=3aRightarrow 3|n$






                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            $endgroup$


















                              0












                              $begingroup$

                              $n$ is an integer, so by Euclid's algorithm, $n=3a+b$ where $a$ is an integer, and $b$ is either 0,1 or 2, then $n^2=9a^2+6ab+b^2$, and therefore $3|n^2Rightarrow 3|b^2$. And now we got Dr. Sonhard Graubner proof as $3|b^2Rightarrow b^2neq 1,4Rightarrow bneq 1,2 Rightarrow b=0Rightarrow n=3aRightarrow 3|n$






                              share|cite|improve this answer









                              $endgroup$
















                                0












                                0








                                0





                                $begingroup$

                                $n$ is an integer, so by Euclid's algorithm, $n=3a+b$ where $a$ is an integer, and $b$ is either 0,1 or 2, then $n^2=9a^2+6ab+b^2$, and therefore $3|n^2Rightarrow 3|b^2$. And now we got Dr. Sonhard Graubner proof as $3|b^2Rightarrow b^2neq 1,4Rightarrow bneq 1,2 Rightarrow b=0Rightarrow n=3aRightarrow 3|n$






                                share|cite|improve this answer









                                $endgroup$



                                $n$ is an integer, so by Euclid's algorithm, $n=3a+b$ where $a$ is an integer, and $b$ is either 0,1 or 2, then $n^2=9a^2+6ab+b^2$, and therefore $3|n^2Rightarrow 3|b^2$. And now we got Dr. Sonhard Graubner proof as $3|b^2Rightarrow b^2neq 1,4Rightarrow bneq 1,2 Rightarrow b=0Rightarrow n=3aRightarrow 3|n$







                                share|cite|improve this answer












                                share|cite|improve this answer



                                share|cite|improve this answer










                                answered Oct 26 '14 at 19:04









                                S.B.S.B.

                                1869




                                1869























                                    0












                                    $begingroup$

                                    As fan wrote, if $p$ is prime and divides $ab$ then $p$ divides either $a$ or $b$ (or both). Here is a proof of that theorem.



                                    Since the only divisors of a prime number are $1$ and itself, either $GCD(p,a)=1$ or $GCD(p,a)=p$. (GCD means Greatest Common Divisor.) The second means that $p$ divides $a$ and we're done.



                                    If $GCD(p,a)=1$ then by Bezout's theorem we can find integers $x$ and $y$ such that
                                    $$px+ay=1$$
                                    Multiply this by $b$ and we get
                                    $$pbx+(ab)y=b$$



                                    $p$ obviously divides the first term and by hypothesis it divides the second, so $p$ must also divide the third term, $b$, and we are done again.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                    $endgroup$


















                                      0












                                      $begingroup$

                                      As fan wrote, if $p$ is prime and divides $ab$ then $p$ divides either $a$ or $b$ (or both). Here is a proof of that theorem.



                                      Since the only divisors of a prime number are $1$ and itself, either $GCD(p,a)=1$ or $GCD(p,a)=p$. (GCD means Greatest Common Divisor.) The second means that $p$ divides $a$ and we're done.



                                      If $GCD(p,a)=1$ then by Bezout's theorem we can find integers $x$ and $y$ such that
                                      $$px+ay=1$$
                                      Multiply this by $b$ and we get
                                      $$pbx+(ab)y=b$$



                                      $p$ obviously divides the first term and by hypothesis it divides the second, so $p$ must also divide the third term, $b$, and we are done again.






                                      share|cite|improve this answer









                                      $endgroup$
















                                        0












                                        0








                                        0





                                        $begingroup$

                                        As fan wrote, if $p$ is prime and divides $ab$ then $p$ divides either $a$ or $b$ (or both). Here is a proof of that theorem.



                                        Since the only divisors of a prime number are $1$ and itself, either $GCD(p,a)=1$ or $GCD(p,a)=p$. (GCD means Greatest Common Divisor.) The second means that $p$ divides $a$ and we're done.



                                        If $GCD(p,a)=1$ then by Bezout's theorem we can find integers $x$ and $y$ such that
                                        $$px+ay=1$$
                                        Multiply this by $b$ and we get
                                        $$pbx+(ab)y=b$$



                                        $p$ obviously divides the first term and by hypothesis it divides the second, so $p$ must also divide the third term, $b$, and we are done again.






                                        share|cite|improve this answer









                                        $endgroup$



                                        As fan wrote, if $p$ is prime and divides $ab$ then $p$ divides either $a$ or $b$ (or both). Here is a proof of that theorem.



                                        Since the only divisors of a prime number are $1$ and itself, either $GCD(p,a)=1$ or $GCD(p,a)=p$. (GCD means Greatest Common Divisor.) The second means that $p$ divides $a$ and we're done.



                                        If $GCD(p,a)=1$ then by Bezout's theorem we can find integers $x$ and $y$ such that
                                        $$px+ay=1$$
                                        Multiply this by $b$ and we get
                                        $$pbx+(ab)y=b$$



                                        $p$ obviously divides the first term and by hypothesis it divides the second, so $p$ must also divide the third term, $b$, and we are done again.







                                        share|cite|improve this answer












                                        share|cite|improve this answer



                                        share|cite|improve this answer










                                        answered Oct 26 '14 at 19:24









                                        Rory DaultonRory Daulton

                                        29.5k63355




                                        29.5k63355























                                            0












                                            $begingroup$

                                            Everything comes from Bézout's lemma. Suppose that $3$ does not divide $n$, then $GCD(3, n) = 1$ and there are integers $a$ and $b$ such that $3a + nb = 1$. Now if you multiply both sides by n you get $3an + n^2b = n$. $3$ divides the left hand side, so it divides $n$ too, which gives the desired contradiction.






                                            share|cite|improve this answer









                                            $endgroup$


















                                              0












                                              $begingroup$

                                              Everything comes from Bézout's lemma. Suppose that $3$ does not divide $n$, then $GCD(3, n) = 1$ and there are integers $a$ and $b$ such that $3a + nb = 1$. Now if you multiply both sides by n you get $3an + n^2b = n$. $3$ divides the left hand side, so it divides $n$ too, which gives the desired contradiction.






                                              share|cite|improve this answer









                                              $endgroup$
















                                                0












                                                0








                                                0





                                                $begingroup$

                                                Everything comes from Bézout's lemma. Suppose that $3$ does not divide $n$, then $GCD(3, n) = 1$ and there are integers $a$ and $b$ such that $3a + nb = 1$. Now if you multiply both sides by n you get $3an + n^2b = n$. $3$ divides the left hand side, so it divides $n$ too, which gives the desired contradiction.






                                                share|cite|improve this answer









                                                $endgroup$



                                                Everything comes from Bézout's lemma. Suppose that $3$ does not divide $n$, then $GCD(3, n) = 1$ and there are integers $a$ and $b$ such that $3a + nb = 1$. Now if you multiply both sides by n you get $3an + n^2b = n$. $3$ divides the left hand side, so it divides $n$ too, which gives the desired contradiction.







                                                share|cite|improve this answer












                                                share|cite|improve this answer



                                                share|cite|improve this answer










                                                answered Oct 26 '14 at 19:29









                                                brickbrick

                                                1,297719




                                                1,297719























                                                    -2












                                                    $begingroup$

                                                    nnn + 2*n = n*(nn+2) = n{(n*n -1) + 3} = n*3 + {n*(n-1)*(n+1)} ==> P + Q



                                                    Here
                                                    P = n*3 ==> divisible by 3
                                                    Q = (n-1)n(n+1) ==> this is multiplication of three consecutive number and hence it is divisible by 3
                                                    ==> P + Q is divisible by 3






                                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                                    $endgroup$













                                                    • $begingroup$
                                                      Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange. Please use MathJax to format your answer; just using the * symbol has another function than you intend.
                                                      $endgroup$
                                                      – Glorfindel
                                                      May 19 '17 at 17:15










                                                    • $begingroup$
                                                      What does the divisibility of $n^3+2n$ by $3$ have to do with the question?
                                                      $endgroup$
                                                      – epimorphic
                                                      May 19 '17 at 17:30










                                                    • $begingroup$
                                                      @epimorphic I think the intention is "$n^3 + 2n$ is always divisible by $3$; if $n^2$ is divisible by $3$, then so is $n^3$, and hence $2n = (n^3+2n) - n^3$. Since $3$ is a prime and doesn't divide $2$, it divides $n$". The argument would be more economic using $n^3-n$ and $n = n^3 - (n^3-n)$.
                                                      $endgroup$
                                                      – Daniel Fischer
                                                      May 19 '17 at 18:18










                                                    • $begingroup$
                                                      @DanielFischer I see. Would be nice if that was carried out fully...
                                                      $endgroup$
                                                      – epimorphic
                                                      May 19 '17 at 18:45
















                                                    -2












                                                    $begingroup$

                                                    nnn + 2*n = n*(nn+2) = n{(n*n -1) + 3} = n*3 + {n*(n-1)*(n+1)} ==> P + Q



                                                    Here
                                                    P = n*3 ==> divisible by 3
                                                    Q = (n-1)n(n+1) ==> this is multiplication of three consecutive number and hence it is divisible by 3
                                                    ==> P + Q is divisible by 3






                                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                                    $endgroup$













                                                    • $begingroup$
                                                      Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange. Please use MathJax to format your answer; just using the * symbol has another function than you intend.
                                                      $endgroup$
                                                      – Glorfindel
                                                      May 19 '17 at 17:15










                                                    • $begingroup$
                                                      What does the divisibility of $n^3+2n$ by $3$ have to do with the question?
                                                      $endgroup$
                                                      – epimorphic
                                                      May 19 '17 at 17:30










                                                    • $begingroup$
                                                      @epimorphic I think the intention is "$n^3 + 2n$ is always divisible by $3$; if $n^2$ is divisible by $3$, then so is $n^3$, and hence $2n = (n^3+2n) - n^3$. Since $3$ is a prime and doesn't divide $2$, it divides $n$". The argument would be more economic using $n^3-n$ and $n = n^3 - (n^3-n)$.
                                                      $endgroup$
                                                      – Daniel Fischer
                                                      May 19 '17 at 18:18










                                                    • $begingroup$
                                                      @DanielFischer I see. Would be nice if that was carried out fully...
                                                      $endgroup$
                                                      – epimorphic
                                                      May 19 '17 at 18:45














                                                    -2












                                                    -2








                                                    -2





                                                    $begingroup$

                                                    nnn + 2*n = n*(nn+2) = n{(n*n -1) + 3} = n*3 + {n*(n-1)*(n+1)} ==> P + Q



                                                    Here
                                                    P = n*3 ==> divisible by 3
                                                    Q = (n-1)n(n+1) ==> this is multiplication of three consecutive number and hence it is divisible by 3
                                                    ==> P + Q is divisible by 3






                                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                                    $endgroup$



                                                    nnn + 2*n = n*(nn+2) = n{(n*n -1) + 3} = n*3 + {n*(n-1)*(n+1)} ==> P + Q



                                                    Here
                                                    P = n*3 ==> divisible by 3
                                                    Q = (n-1)n(n+1) ==> this is multiplication of three consecutive number and hence it is divisible by 3
                                                    ==> P + Q is divisible by 3







                                                    share|cite|improve this answer












                                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                                    share|cite|improve this answer










                                                    answered May 19 '17 at 16:47









                                                    Nikhil SilsarmaNikhil Silsarma

                                                    1




                                                    1












                                                    • $begingroup$
                                                      Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange. Please use MathJax to format your answer; just using the * symbol has another function than you intend.
                                                      $endgroup$
                                                      – Glorfindel
                                                      May 19 '17 at 17:15










                                                    • $begingroup$
                                                      What does the divisibility of $n^3+2n$ by $3$ have to do with the question?
                                                      $endgroup$
                                                      – epimorphic
                                                      May 19 '17 at 17:30










                                                    • $begingroup$
                                                      @epimorphic I think the intention is "$n^3 + 2n$ is always divisible by $3$; if $n^2$ is divisible by $3$, then so is $n^3$, and hence $2n = (n^3+2n) - n^3$. Since $3$ is a prime and doesn't divide $2$, it divides $n$". The argument would be more economic using $n^3-n$ and $n = n^3 - (n^3-n)$.
                                                      $endgroup$
                                                      – Daniel Fischer
                                                      May 19 '17 at 18:18










                                                    • $begingroup$
                                                      @DanielFischer I see. Would be nice if that was carried out fully...
                                                      $endgroup$
                                                      – epimorphic
                                                      May 19 '17 at 18:45


















                                                    • $begingroup$
                                                      Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange. Please use MathJax to format your answer; just using the * symbol has another function than you intend.
                                                      $endgroup$
                                                      – Glorfindel
                                                      May 19 '17 at 17:15










                                                    • $begingroup$
                                                      What does the divisibility of $n^3+2n$ by $3$ have to do with the question?
                                                      $endgroup$
                                                      – epimorphic
                                                      May 19 '17 at 17:30










                                                    • $begingroup$
                                                      @epimorphic I think the intention is "$n^3 + 2n$ is always divisible by $3$; if $n^2$ is divisible by $3$, then so is $n^3$, and hence $2n = (n^3+2n) - n^3$. Since $3$ is a prime and doesn't divide $2$, it divides $n$". The argument would be more economic using $n^3-n$ and $n = n^3 - (n^3-n)$.
                                                      $endgroup$
                                                      – Daniel Fischer
                                                      May 19 '17 at 18:18










                                                    • $begingroup$
                                                      @DanielFischer I see. Would be nice if that was carried out fully...
                                                      $endgroup$
                                                      – epimorphic
                                                      May 19 '17 at 18:45
















                                                    $begingroup$
                                                    Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange. Please use MathJax to format your answer; just using the * symbol has another function than you intend.
                                                    $endgroup$
                                                    – Glorfindel
                                                    May 19 '17 at 17:15




                                                    $begingroup$
                                                    Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange. Please use MathJax to format your answer; just using the * symbol has another function than you intend.
                                                    $endgroup$
                                                    – Glorfindel
                                                    May 19 '17 at 17:15












                                                    $begingroup$
                                                    What does the divisibility of $n^3+2n$ by $3$ have to do with the question?
                                                    $endgroup$
                                                    – epimorphic
                                                    May 19 '17 at 17:30




                                                    $begingroup$
                                                    What does the divisibility of $n^3+2n$ by $3$ have to do with the question?
                                                    $endgroup$
                                                    – epimorphic
                                                    May 19 '17 at 17:30












                                                    $begingroup$
                                                    @epimorphic I think the intention is "$n^3 + 2n$ is always divisible by $3$; if $n^2$ is divisible by $3$, then so is $n^3$, and hence $2n = (n^3+2n) - n^3$. Since $3$ is a prime and doesn't divide $2$, it divides $n$". The argument would be more economic using $n^3-n$ and $n = n^3 - (n^3-n)$.
                                                    $endgroup$
                                                    – Daniel Fischer
                                                    May 19 '17 at 18:18




                                                    $begingroup$
                                                    @epimorphic I think the intention is "$n^3 + 2n$ is always divisible by $3$; if $n^2$ is divisible by $3$, then so is $n^3$, and hence $2n = (n^3+2n) - n^3$. Since $3$ is a prime and doesn't divide $2$, it divides $n$". The argument would be more economic using $n^3-n$ and $n = n^3 - (n^3-n)$.
                                                    $endgroup$
                                                    – Daniel Fischer
                                                    May 19 '17 at 18:18












                                                    $begingroup$
                                                    @DanielFischer I see. Would be nice if that was carried out fully...
                                                    $endgroup$
                                                    – epimorphic
                                                    May 19 '17 at 18:45




                                                    $begingroup$
                                                    @DanielFischer I see. Would be nice if that was carried out fully...
                                                    $endgroup$
                                                    – epimorphic
                                                    May 19 '17 at 18:45


















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