Mathematical Transformation in a paper












2












$begingroup$


I am currently reading this paper: https://ieeexplore.ieee.org/abstract/document/1707778
but I don't understand how they made the following mathematical transformation.



They have the following function:



begin{equation*} w^{IV}(x)-N(w)w^{prime prime}(x)=F_{e}(w(x)) tag{7} end{equation*}
whith
begin{equation*} N(w)=N_{1} int_{0}^{1}(w^{prime})^{2}dx+N_{0} end{equation*}



Then they define:begin{equation*} w(x)=zetabar{w}(x). tag{15} end{equation*}



And derive:



begin{equation*} (k_{0}+k_{1})zeta+k_{2}zeta^{3}=mu f_{e}(zeta) tag{16} end{equation*}



Don't bother about the right side of the equation, I am only interested to know how they derive the left side.



In the paper, they write:




The governing equation for ζ is derived by multiplying both sides of
(7) by w¯, integrating over the beam span, and substituting into the
resulting equation the approximate solution begin{equation*} w(x)=zetabar{w}(x). tag{15} end{equation*} After integrating by
parts, the governing equation for ζ becomes











share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    2












    $begingroup$


    I am currently reading this paper: https://ieeexplore.ieee.org/abstract/document/1707778
    but I don't understand how they made the following mathematical transformation.



    They have the following function:



    begin{equation*} w^{IV}(x)-N(w)w^{prime prime}(x)=F_{e}(w(x)) tag{7} end{equation*}
    whith
    begin{equation*} N(w)=N_{1} int_{0}^{1}(w^{prime})^{2}dx+N_{0} end{equation*}



    Then they define:begin{equation*} w(x)=zetabar{w}(x). tag{15} end{equation*}



    And derive:



    begin{equation*} (k_{0}+k_{1})zeta+k_{2}zeta^{3}=mu f_{e}(zeta) tag{16} end{equation*}



    Don't bother about the right side of the equation, I am only interested to know how they derive the left side.



    In the paper, they write:




    The governing equation for ζ is derived by multiplying both sides of
    (7) by w¯, integrating over the beam span, and substituting into the
    resulting equation the approximate solution begin{equation*} w(x)=zetabar{w}(x). tag{15} end{equation*} After integrating by
    parts, the governing equation for ζ becomes











    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      I am currently reading this paper: https://ieeexplore.ieee.org/abstract/document/1707778
      but I don't understand how they made the following mathematical transformation.



      They have the following function:



      begin{equation*} w^{IV}(x)-N(w)w^{prime prime}(x)=F_{e}(w(x)) tag{7} end{equation*}
      whith
      begin{equation*} N(w)=N_{1} int_{0}^{1}(w^{prime})^{2}dx+N_{0} end{equation*}



      Then they define:begin{equation*} w(x)=zetabar{w}(x). tag{15} end{equation*}



      And derive:



      begin{equation*} (k_{0}+k_{1})zeta+k_{2}zeta^{3}=mu f_{e}(zeta) tag{16} end{equation*}



      Don't bother about the right side of the equation, I am only interested to know how they derive the left side.



      In the paper, they write:




      The governing equation for ζ is derived by multiplying both sides of
      (7) by w¯, integrating over the beam span, and substituting into the
      resulting equation the approximate solution begin{equation*} w(x)=zetabar{w}(x). tag{15} end{equation*} After integrating by
      parts, the governing equation for ζ becomes











      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I am currently reading this paper: https://ieeexplore.ieee.org/abstract/document/1707778
      but I don't understand how they made the following mathematical transformation.



      They have the following function:



      begin{equation*} w^{IV}(x)-N(w)w^{prime prime}(x)=F_{e}(w(x)) tag{7} end{equation*}
      whith
      begin{equation*} N(w)=N_{1} int_{0}^{1}(w^{prime})^{2}dx+N_{0} end{equation*}



      Then they define:begin{equation*} w(x)=zetabar{w}(x). tag{15} end{equation*}



      And derive:



      begin{equation*} (k_{0}+k_{1})zeta+k_{2}zeta^{3}=mu f_{e}(zeta) tag{16} end{equation*}



      Don't bother about the right side of the equation, I am only interested to know how they derive the left side.



      In the paper, they write:




      The governing equation for ζ is derived by multiplying both sides of
      (7) by w¯, integrating over the beam span, and substituting into the
      resulting equation the approximate solution begin{equation*} w(x)=zetabar{w}(x). tag{15} end{equation*} After integrating by
      parts, the governing equation for ζ becomes








      ordinary-differential-equations






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Dec 1 '18 at 15:44









      jamesjames

      1519




      1519






















          1 Answer
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          active

          oldest

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          1












          $begingroup$

          The equation is
          $$
          w^{IV}-N w''=F_e(w).
          $$

          Multiplying both sides by $bar{w}$
          $$
          bar{w} w^{IV}-N bar{w} w''=F_e(w) bar{w},
          $$

          and integrating in $0leq x leq 1$,
          $$
          int_0^1 bar{w} w^{IV} dx - N int_0^1 bar{w} w'' dx= int_0^1 F_e(w) bar{w} dx.
          $$

          Now we substitute
          $$
          w=zeta bar{w},
          $$

          leading to
          $$
          zeta int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}^{IV} dx - N zeta int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}'' dx= int_0^1 F_e(zetabar{w}) bar{w} dx,
          $$

          with $N$ now given by
          $$
          N = N_1 zeta^2 int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2 dx + N_0.
          $$



          See that
          $$int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}'' dx$$
          can be integrated by parts using $u=bar{w}$ and $dv=bar{w}'' dx$, leading to
          $$
          int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}'' dx = left.bar{w} bar{w}'right|_0^1 - int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2 dx.
          $$

          If the boundary conditions $(2)$ or $(3)$ holds, the first term in the RHS is $0$, then
          $$
          int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}'' dx = - int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2 dx.
          $$

          The integral
          $$int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}^{IV} dx $$
          can be evaluated in the same way as
          $$
          int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}^{IV} dx = left. bar{w} bar{w}^{III} right|_0^1 - int_0^1 bar{w}' bar{w}^{III} dx.
          $$

          Assuming, for the sake of simplicity, that boundary conditions $(3)$ holds, the first term in RHS vanishes and the integral in RHS can be evaluated again with integration by parts, leading to
          $$
          int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}^{IV} dx = -left.bar{w}'bar{w}'' right|_0^1 + int_0^1 (bar{w}'')^2 dx.
          $$

          The first term in RHS vanishes with any of the boundary conditions, leading finally to
          $$
          int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}^{IV} dx = int_0^1 (bar{w}'')^2 dx.
          $$



          The equation is now
          $$
          zeta int_0^1 (bar{w}'')^2 dx + N_1 zeta^3 left(int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2 dx right)^2 + N_0 zeta int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2 dx= int_0^1 F_e bar{w} dx.
          $$



          Then, defining
          $$
          k_0 = int_0^1 (bar{w}'')^2 dx,
          $$

          $$
          k_1 = N_0 int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2dx,
          $$

          $$
          k_2 = N_1 left(int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2 dxright)^2,
          $$

          and
          $$
          f_e(zeta) = frac{1}{mu} int_0^1 F_e (zeta bar{w}) bar{w} dx,
          $$

          the equation can be written as
          $$
          (k_0+k_1) zeta + k_2 zeta^3 = mu f_e(zeta),
          $$

          which is equation $(16)$ in the paper.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Wow ! Thank you so much for your derivation! It is definitely not a straight-forward one, so I wonder why they just chose to summarize it quickly in one sentence, when the rest of the paper is quite detailed...
            $endgroup$
            – james
            Dec 1 '18 at 16:45












          • $begingroup$
            @james You are welcome! Maybe the authors thought that showing only the expressions for $k_1$ etc. would be sufficient to "see" the integration by parts between the lines. Furthermore, sometimes such derivations take precious space from the manuscript...
            $endgroup$
            – rafa11111
            Dec 1 '18 at 16:50











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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

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          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

          votes









          1












          $begingroup$

          The equation is
          $$
          w^{IV}-N w''=F_e(w).
          $$

          Multiplying both sides by $bar{w}$
          $$
          bar{w} w^{IV}-N bar{w} w''=F_e(w) bar{w},
          $$

          and integrating in $0leq x leq 1$,
          $$
          int_0^1 bar{w} w^{IV} dx - N int_0^1 bar{w} w'' dx= int_0^1 F_e(w) bar{w} dx.
          $$

          Now we substitute
          $$
          w=zeta bar{w},
          $$

          leading to
          $$
          zeta int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}^{IV} dx - N zeta int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}'' dx= int_0^1 F_e(zetabar{w}) bar{w} dx,
          $$

          with $N$ now given by
          $$
          N = N_1 zeta^2 int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2 dx + N_0.
          $$



          See that
          $$int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}'' dx$$
          can be integrated by parts using $u=bar{w}$ and $dv=bar{w}'' dx$, leading to
          $$
          int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}'' dx = left.bar{w} bar{w}'right|_0^1 - int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2 dx.
          $$

          If the boundary conditions $(2)$ or $(3)$ holds, the first term in the RHS is $0$, then
          $$
          int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}'' dx = - int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2 dx.
          $$

          The integral
          $$int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}^{IV} dx $$
          can be evaluated in the same way as
          $$
          int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}^{IV} dx = left. bar{w} bar{w}^{III} right|_0^1 - int_0^1 bar{w}' bar{w}^{III} dx.
          $$

          Assuming, for the sake of simplicity, that boundary conditions $(3)$ holds, the first term in RHS vanishes and the integral in RHS can be evaluated again with integration by parts, leading to
          $$
          int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}^{IV} dx = -left.bar{w}'bar{w}'' right|_0^1 + int_0^1 (bar{w}'')^2 dx.
          $$

          The first term in RHS vanishes with any of the boundary conditions, leading finally to
          $$
          int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}^{IV} dx = int_0^1 (bar{w}'')^2 dx.
          $$



          The equation is now
          $$
          zeta int_0^1 (bar{w}'')^2 dx + N_1 zeta^3 left(int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2 dx right)^2 + N_0 zeta int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2 dx= int_0^1 F_e bar{w} dx.
          $$



          Then, defining
          $$
          k_0 = int_0^1 (bar{w}'')^2 dx,
          $$

          $$
          k_1 = N_0 int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2dx,
          $$

          $$
          k_2 = N_1 left(int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2 dxright)^2,
          $$

          and
          $$
          f_e(zeta) = frac{1}{mu} int_0^1 F_e (zeta bar{w}) bar{w} dx,
          $$

          the equation can be written as
          $$
          (k_0+k_1) zeta + k_2 zeta^3 = mu f_e(zeta),
          $$

          which is equation $(16)$ in the paper.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Wow ! Thank you so much for your derivation! It is definitely not a straight-forward one, so I wonder why they just chose to summarize it quickly in one sentence, when the rest of the paper is quite detailed...
            $endgroup$
            – james
            Dec 1 '18 at 16:45












          • $begingroup$
            @james You are welcome! Maybe the authors thought that showing only the expressions for $k_1$ etc. would be sufficient to "see" the integration by parts between the lines. Furthermore, sometimes such derivations take precious space from the manuscript...
            $endgroup$
            – rafa11111
            Dec 1 '18 at 16:50
















          1












          $begingroup$

          The equation is
          $$
          w^{IV}-N w''=F_e(w).
          $$

          Multiplying both sides by $bar{w}$
          $$
          bar{w} w^{IV}-N bar{w} w''=F_e(w) bar{w},
          $$

          and integrating in $0leq x leq 1$,
          $$
          int_0^1 bar{w} w^{IV} dx - N int_0^1 bar{w} w'' dx= int_0^1 F_e(w) bar{w} dx.
          $$

          Now we substitute
          $$
          w=zeta bar{w},
          $$

          leading to
          $$
          zeta int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}^{IV} dx - N zeta int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}'' dx= int_0^1 F_e(zetabar{w}) bar{w} dx,
          $$

          with $N$ now given by
          $$
          N = N_1 zeta^2 int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2 dx + N_0.
          $$



          See that
          $$int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}'' dx$$
          can be integrated by parts using $u=bar{w}$ and $dv=bar{w}'' dx$, leading to
          $$
          int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}'' dx = left.bar{w} bar{w}'right|_0^1 - int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2 dx.
          $$

          If the boundary conditions $(2)$ or $(3)$ holds, the first term in the RHS is $0$, then
          $$
          int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}'' dx = - int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2 dx.
          $$

          The integral
          $$int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}^{IV} dx $$
          can be evaluated in the same way as
          $$
          int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}^{IV} dx = left. bar{w} bar{w}^{III} right|_0^1 - int_0^1 bar{w}' bar{w}^{III} dx.
          $$

          Assuming, for the sake of simplicity, that boundary conditions $(3)$ holds, the first term in RHS vanishes and the integral in RHS can be evaluated again with integration by parts, leading to
          $$
          int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}^{IV} dx = -left.bar{w}'bar{w}'' right|_0^1 + int_0^1 (bar{w}'')^2 dx.
          $$

          The first term in RHS vanishes with any of the boundary conditions, leading finally to
          $$
          int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}^{IV} dx = int_0^1 (bar{w}'')^2 dx.
          $$



          The equation is now
          $$
          zeta int_0^1 (bar{w}'')^2 dx + N_1 zeta^3 left(int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2 dx right)^2 + N_0 zeta int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2 dx= int_0^1 F_e bar{w} dx.
          $$



          Then, defining
          $$
          k_0 = int_0^1 (bar{w}'')^2 dx,
          $$

          $$
          k_1 = N_0 int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2dx,
          $$

          $$
          k_2 = N_1 left(int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2 dxright)^2,
          $$

          and
          $$
          f_e(zeta) = frac{1}{mu} int_0^1 F_e (zeta bar{w}) bar{w} dx,
          $$

          the equation can be written as
          $$
          (k_0+k_1) zeta + k_2 zeta^3 = mu f_e(zeta),
          $$

          which is equation $(16)$ in the paper.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Wow ! Thank you so much for your derivation! It is definitely not a straight-forward one, so I wonder why they just chose to summarize it quickly in one sentence, when the rest of the paper is quite detailed...
            $endgroup$
            – james
            Dec 1 '18 at 16:45












          • $begingroup$
            @james You are welcome! Maybe the authors thought that showing only the expressions for $k_1$ etc. would be sufficient to "see" the integration by parts between the lines. Furthermore, sometimes such derivations take precious space from the manuscript...
            $endgroup$
            – rafa11111
            Dec 1 '18 at 16:50














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          The equation is
          $$
          w^{IV}-N w''=F_e(w).
          $$

          Multiplying both sides by $bar{w}$
          $$
          bar{w} w^{IV}-N bar{w} w''=F_e(w) bar{w},
          $$

          and integrating in $0leq x leq 1$,
          $$
          int_0^1 bar{w} w^{IV} dx - N int_0^1 bar{w} w'' dx= int_0^1 F_e(w) bar{w} dx.
          $$

          Now we substitute
          $$
          w=zeta bar{w},
          $$

          leading to
          $$
          zeta int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}^{IV} dx - N zeta int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}'' dx= int_0^1 F_e(zetabar{w}) bar{w} dx,
          $$

          with $N$ now given by
          $$
          N = N_1 zeta^2 int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2 dx + N_0.
          $$



          See that
          $$int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}'' dx$$
          can be integrated by parts using $u=bar{w}$ and $dv=bar{w}'' dx$, leading to
          $$
          int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}'' dx = left.bar{w} bar{w}'right|_0^1 - int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2 dx.
          $$

          If the boundary conditions $(2)$ or $(3)$ holds, the first term in the RHS is $0$, then
          $$
          int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}'' dx = - int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2 dx.
          $$

          The integral
          $$int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}^{IV} dx $$
          can be evaluated in the same way as
          $$
          int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}^{IV} dx = left. bar{w} bar{w}^{III} right|_0^1 - int_0^1 bar{w}' bar{w}^{III} dx.
          $$

          Assuming, for the sake of simplicity, that boundary conditions $(3)$ holds, the first term in RHS vanishes and the integral in RHS can be evaluated again with integration by parts, leading to
          $$
          int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}^{IV} dx = -left.bar{w}'bar{w}'' right|_0^1 + int_0^1 (bar{w}'')^2 dx.
          $$

          The first term in RHS vanishes with any of the boundary conditions, leading finally to
          $$
          int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}^{IV} dx = int_0^1 (bar{w}'')^2 dx.
          $$



          The equation is now
          $$
          zeta int_0^1 (bar{w}'')^2 dx + N_1 zeta^3 left(int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2 dx right)^2 + N_0 zeta int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2 dx= int_0^1 F_e bar{w} dx.
          $$



          Then, defining
          $$
          k_0 = int_0^1 (bar{w}'')^2 dx,
          $$

          $$
          k_1 = N_0 int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2dx,
          $$

          $$
          k_2 = N_1 left(int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2 dxright)^2,
          $$

          and
          $$
          f_e(zeta) = frac{1}{mu} int_0^1 F_e (zeta bar{w}) bar{w} dx,
          $$

          the equation can be written as
          $$
          (k_0+k_1) zeta + k_2 zeta^3 = mu f_e(zeta),
          $$

          which is equation $(16)$ in the paper.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          The equation is
          $$
          w^{IV}-N w''=F_e(w).
          $$

          Multiplying both sides by $bar{w}$
          $$
          bar{w} w^{IV}-N bar{w} w''=F_e(w) bar{w},
          $$

          and integrating in $0leq x leq 1$,
          $$
          int_0^1 bar{w} w^{IV} dx - N int_0^1 bar{w} w'' dx= int_0^1 F_e(w) bar{w} dx.
          $$

          Now we substitute
          $$
          w=zeta bar{w},
          $$

          leading to
          $$
          zeta int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}^{IV} dx - N zeta int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}'' dx= int_0^1 F_e(zetabar{w}) bar{w} dx,
          $$

          with $N$ now given by
          $$
          N = N_1 zeta^2 int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2 dx + N_0.
          $$



          See that
          $$int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}'' dx$$
          can be integrated by parts using $u=bar{w}$ and $dv=bar{w}'' dx$, leading to
          $$
          int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}'' dx = left.bar{w} bar{w}'right|_0^1 - int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2 dx.
          $$

          If the boundary conditions $(2)$ or $(3)$ holds, the first term in the RHS is $0$, then
          $$
          int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}'' dx = - int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2 dx.
          $$

          The integral
          $$int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}^{IV} dx $$
          can be evaluated in the same way as
          $$
          int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}^{IV} dx = left. bar{w} bar{w}^{III} right|_0^1 - int_0^1 bar{w}' bar{w}^{III} dx.
          $$

          Assuming, for the sake of simplicity, that boundary conditions $(3)$ holds, the first term in RHS vanishes and the integral in RHS can be evaluated again with integration by parts, leading to
          $$
          int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}^{IV} dx = -left.bar{w}'bar{w}'' right|_0^1 + int_0^1 (bar{w}'')^2 dx.
          $$

          The first term in RHS vanishes with any of the boundary conditions, leading finally to
          $$
          int_0^1 bar{w} bar{w}^{IV} dx = int_0^1 (bar{w}'')^2 dx.
          $$



          The equation is now
          $$
          zeta int_0^1 (bar{w}'')^2 dx + N_1 zeta^3 left(int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2 dx right)^2 + N_0 zeta int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2 dx= int_0^1 F_e bar{w} dx.
          $$



          Then, defining
          $$
          k_0 = int_0^1 (bar{w}'')^2 dx,
          $$

          $$
          k_1 = N_0 int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2dx,
          $$

          $$
          k_2 = N_1 left(int_0^1 (bar{w}')^2 dxright)^2,
          $$

          and
          $$
          f_e(zeta) = frac{1}{mu} int_0^1 F_e (zeta bar{w}) bar{w} dx,
          $$

          the equation can be written as
          $$
          (k_0+k_1) zeta + k_2 zeta^3 = mu f_e(zeta),
          $$

          which is equation $(16)$ in the paper.







          share|cite|improve this answer












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          answered Dec 1 '18 at 16:23









          rafa11111rafa11111

          1,119417




          1,119417








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Wow ! Thank you so much for your derivation! It is definitely not a straight-forward one, so I wonder why they just chose to summarize it quickly in one sentence, when the rest of the paper is quite detailed...
            $endgroup$
            – james
            Dec 1 '18 at 16:45












          • $begingroup$
            @james You are welcome! Maybe the authors thought that showing only the expressions for $k_1$ etc. would be sufficient to "see" the integration by parts between the lines. Furthermore, sometimes such derivations take precious space from the manuscript...
            $endgroup$
            – rafa11111
            Dec 1 '18 at 16:50














          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Wow ! Thank you so much for your derivation! It is definitely not a straight-forward one, so I wonder why they just chose to summarize it quickly in one sentence, when the rest of the paper is quite detailed...
            $endgroup$
            – james
            Dec 1 '18 at 16:45












          • $begingroup$
            @james You are welcome! Maybe the authors thought that showing only the expressions for $k_1$ etc. would be sufficient to "see" the integration by parts between the lines. Furthermore, sometimes such derivations take precious space from the manuscript...
            $endgroup$
            – rafa11111
            Dec 1 '18 at 16:50








          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          Wow ! Thank you so much for your derivation! It is definitely not a straight-forward one, so I wonder why they just chose to summarize it quickly in one sentence, when the rest of the paper is quite detailed...
          $endgroup$
          – james
          Dec 1 '18 at 16:45






          $begingroup$
          Wow ! Thank you so much for your derivation! It is definitely not a straight-forward one, so I wonder why they just chose to summarize it quickly in one sentence, when the rest of the paper is quite detailed...
          $endgroup$
          – james
          Dec 1 '18 at 16:45














          $begingroup$
          @james You are welcome! Maybe the authors thought that showing only the expressions for $k_1$ etc. would be sufficient to "see" the integration by parts between the lines. Furthermore, sometimes such derivations take precious space from the manuscript...
          $endgroup$
          – rafa11111
          Dec 1 '18 at 16:50




          $begingroup$
          @james You are welcome! Maybe the authors thought that showing only the expressions for $k_1$ etc. would be sufficient to "see" the integration by parts between the lines. Furthermore, sometimes such derivations take precious space from the manuscript...
          $endgroup$
          – rafa11111
          Dec 1 '18 at 16:50


















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