Existence of maps on $mathbb{N} cup {0}$ satisfying $phi(ab)=phi(a)+phi(b)$












6












$begingroup$


How many maps $phi : mathbb{N} cup {0} to mathbb{N} cup {0} $ are there with the property that $phi(ab)=phi(a)+phi(b)$, for all $a,b in mathbb{N} cup {0} $?



My Attempt is
$$phi(0)+phi(m)=phi(0) implies phi(m)=0quad text{ for all } m in mathbb{N} cup {0}$$



Hence there is only one such map.



Is it correct?










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$endgroup$








  • 6




    $begingroup$
    Yes, it is correct.
    $endgroup$
    – SvanN
    Dec 21 '18 at 17:46






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Looks good to me
    $endgroup$
    – pwerth
    Dec 21 '18 at 17:46










  • $begingroup$
    I would also mention that conversely $phi(m) equiv 0$ is indeed a solution (what's written so far technically only proves there is at most one such map).
    $endgroup$
    – Daniel Schepler
    Dec 21 '18 at 18:19






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Possible duplicate of How many mappings $phi:Bbb{N}cup{0}toBbb{N}cup{0}$ exist such that $phi(ab)=phi(a)+phi(b)$?
    $endgroup$
    – Empty
    Dec 21 '18 at 18:27
















6












$begingroup$


How many maps $phi : mathbb{N} cup {0} to mathbb{N} cup {0} $ are there with the property that $phi(ab)=phi(a)+phi(b)$, for all $a,b in mathbb{N} cup {0} $?



My Attempt is
$$phi(0)+phi(m)=phi(0) implies phi(m)=0quad text{ for all } m in mathbb{N} cup {0}$$



Hence there is only one such map.



Is it correct?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 6




    $begingroup$
    Yes, it is correct.
    $endgroup$
    – SvanN
    Dec 21 '18 at 17:46






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Looks good to me
    $endgroup$
    – pwerth
    Dec 21 '18 at 17:46










  • $begingroup$
    I would also mention that conversely $phi(m) equiv 0$ is indeed a solution (what's written so far technically only proves there is at most one such map).
    $endgroup$
    – Daniel Schepler
    Dec 21 '18 at 18:19






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Possible duplicate of How many mappings $phi:Bbb{N}cup{0}toBbb{N}cup{0}$ exist such that $phi(ab)=phi(a)+phi(b)$?
    $endgroup$
    – Empty
    Dec 21 '18 at 18:27














6












6








6





$begingroup$


How many maps $phi : mathbb{N} cup {0} to mathbb{N} cup {0} $ are there with the property that $phi(ab)=phi(a)+phi(b)$, for all $a,b in mathbb{N} cup {0} $?



My Attempt is
$$phi(0)+phi(m)=phi(0) implies phi(m)=0quad text{ for all } m in mathbb{N} cup {0}$$



Hence there is only one such map.



Is it correct?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




How many maps $phi : mathbb{N} cup {0} to mathbb{N} cup {0} $ are there with the property that $phi(ab)=phi(a)+phi(b)$, for all $a,b in mathbb{N} cup {0} $?



My Attempt is
$$phi(0)+phi(m)=phi(0) implies phi(m)=0quad text{ for all } m in mathbb{N} cup {0}$$



Hence there is only one such map.



Is it correct?







algebra-precalculus






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 21 '18 at 17:45

























asked Dec 21 '18 at 17:41







user408906















  • 6




    $begingroup$
    Yes, it is correct.
    $endgroup$
    – SvanN
    Dec 21 '18 at 17:46






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Looks good to me
    $endgroup$
    – pwerth
    Dec 21 '18 at 17:46










  • $begingroup$
    I would also mention that conversely $phi(m) equiv 0$ is indeed a solution (what's written so far technically only proves there is at most one such map).
    $endgroup$
    – Daniel Schepler
    Dec 21 '18 at 18:19






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Possible duplicate of How many mappings $phi:Bbb{N}cup{0}toBbb{N}cup{0}$ exist such that $phi(ab)=phi(a)+phi(b)$?
    $endgroup$
    – Empty
    Dec 21 '18 at 18:27














  • 6




    $begingroup$
    Yes, it is correct.
    $endgroup$
    – SvanN
    Dec 21 '18 at 17:46






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Looks good to me
    $endgroup$
    – pwerth
    Dec 21 '18 at 17:46










  • $begingroup$
    I would also mention that conversely $phi(m) equiv 0$ is indeed a solution (what's written so far technically only proves there is at most one such map).
    $endgroup$
    – Daniel Schepler
    Dec 21 '18 at 18:19






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Possible duplicate of How many mappings $phi:Bbb{N}cup{0}toBbb{N}cup{0}$ exist such that $phi(ab)=phi(a)+phi(b)$?
    $endgroup$
    – Empty
    Dec 21 '18 at 18:27








6




6




$begingroup$
Yes, it is correct.
$endgroup$
– SvanN
Dec 21 '18 at 17:46




$begingroup$
Yes, it is correct.
$endgroup$
– SvanN
Dec 21 '18 at 17:46




1




1




$begingroup$
Looks good to me
$endgroup$
– pwerth
Dec 21 '18 at 17:46




$begingroup$
Looks good to me
$endgroup$
– pwerth
Dec 21 '18 at 17:46












$begingroup$
I would also mention that conversely $phi(m) equiv 0$ is indeed a solution (what's written so far technically only proves there is at most one such map).
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
Dec 21 '18 at 18:19




$begingroup$
I would also mention that conversely $phi(m) equiv 0$ is indeed a solution (what's written so far technically only proves there is at most one such map).
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
Dec 21 '18 at 18:19




2




2




$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of How many mappings $phi:Bbb{N}cup{0}toBbb{N}cup{0}$ exist such that $phi(ab)=phi(a)+phi(b)$?
$endgroup$
– Empty
Dec 21 '18 at 18:27




$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of How many mappings $phi:Bbb{N}cup{0}toBbb{N}cup{0}$ exist such that $phi(ab)=phi(a)+phi(b)$?
$endgroup$
– Empty
Dec 21 '18 at 18:27










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$begingroup$

You've got the correct conclusion, but it could use a tiny bit more justification. I'd express it as $$varphi(0)+varphi(m)=varphi(0m)=varphi(0),$$ just to make it perfectly clear.






share|cite|improve this answer









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    1 Answer
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    1 Answer
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    1












    $begingroup$

    You've got the correct conclusion, but it could use a tiny bit more justification. I'd express it as $$varphi(0)+varphi(m)=varphi(0m)=varphi(0),$$ just to make it perfectly clear.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      You've got the correct conclusion, but it could use a tiny bit more justification. I'd express it as $$varphi(0)+varphi(m)=varphi(0m)=varphi(0),$$ just to make it perfectly clear.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        You've got the correct conclusion, but it could use a tiny bit more justification. I'd express it as $$varphi(0)+varphi(m)=varphi(0m)=varphi(0),$$ just to make it perfectly clear.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        You've got the correct conclusion, but it could use a tiny bit more justification. I'd express it as $$varphi(0)+varphi(m)=varphi(0m)=varphi(0),$$ just to make it perfectly clear.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 21 '18 at 18:09









        Cameron BuieCameron Buie

        86.2k772161




        86.2k772161






























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