Bounded sequence in $L^infty$ which converges in $L^1$












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I have sequence in $L^infty(mathbb{R}^n)cap L^1(mathbb{R}^n)$ such that

1. $(u_n)_n$ is bounded in $L^infty$ : there exists $a>0$ such that $|u_n|_{L^infty}leq a$.

2.$(u_n)_n$ converges (strongly) in $L^1$ : there exists $uin L^1(mathbb{R}^n)$ such that $|u_n-u|_{L^1}to0$.

Is it true that the limit $u$ actually belongs to $L^infty(mathbb{R}^n)$ and that $|u|_{L^infty}leq a$ ? I guess that a strating point could be to take a weak-* converging subsequence in $L^infty$ and then prove that this limit is $u$...










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    $begingroup$
    Just use that $L^1$-convergence implies convergence a.e. along a subsequence. This subsequence has $L^infty$-norm bounded by $a$ and you are done.
    $endgroup$
    – Severin Schraven
    Dec 30 '18 at 17:25






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Your approach is also valid. Since $L^1$ is seperable, Banach-Alaoglu implies that there is a weak-star convergent subsequence converging to $u$. Then $|u|_inftyle a$ follows.
    $endgroup$
    – Song
    Dec 30 '18 at 17:32










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you both !
    $endgroup$
    – user630504
    Dec 30 '18 at 17:48
















2












$begingroup$


I have sequence in $L^infty(mathbb{R}^n)cap L^1(mathbb{R}^n)$ such that

1. $(u_n)_n$ is bounded in $L^infty$ : there exists $a>0$ such that $|u_n|_{L^infty}leq a$.

2.$(u_n)_n$ converges (strongly) in $L^1$ : there exists $uin L^1(mathbb{R}^n)$ such that $|u_n-u|_{L^1}to0$.

Is it true that the limit $u$ actually belongs to $L^infty(mathbb{R}^n)$ and that $|u|_{L^infty}leq a$ ? I guess that a strating point could be to take a weak-* converging subsequence in $L^infty$ and then prove that this limit is $u$...










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Just use that $L^1$-convergence implies convergence a.e. along a subsequence. This subsequence has $L^infty$-norm bounded by $a$ and you are done.
    $endgroup$
    – Severin Schraven
    Dec 30 '18 at 17:25






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Your approach is also valid. Since $L^1$ is seperable, Banach-Alaoglu implies that there is a weak-star convergent subsequence converging to $u$. Then $|u|_inftyle a$ follows.
    $endgroup$
    – Song
    Dec 30 '18 at 17:32










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you both !
    $endgroup$
    – user630504
    Dec 30 '18 at 17:48














2












2








2


1



$begingroup$


I have sequence in $L^infty(mathbb{R}^n)cap L^1(mathbb{R}^n)$ such that

1. $(u_n)_n$ is bounded in $L^infty$ : there exists $a>0$ such that $|u_n|_{L^infty}leq a$.

2.$(u_n)_n$ converges (strongly) in $L^1$ : there exists $uin L^1(mathbb{R}^n)$ such that $|u_n-u|_{L^1}to0$.

Is it true that the limit $u$ actually belongs to $L^infty(mathbb{R}^n)$ and that $|u|_{L^infty}leq a$ ? I guess that a strating point could be to take a weak-* converging subsequence in $L^infty$ and then prove that this limit is $u$...










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I have sequence in $L^infty(mathbb{R}^n)cap L^1(mathbb{R}^n)$ such that

1. $(u_n)_n$ is bounded in $L^infty$ : there exists $a>0$ such that $|u_n|_{L^infty}leq a$.

2.$(u_n)_n$ converges (strongly) in $L^1$ : there exists $uin L^1(mathbb{R}^n)$ such that $|u_n-u|_{L^1}to0$.

Is it true that the limit $u$ actually belongs to $L^infty(mathbb{R}^n)$ and that $|u|_{L^infty}leq a$ ? I guess that a strating point could be to take a weak-* converging subsequence in $L^infty$ and then prove that this limit is $u$...







functional-analysis lp-spaces weak-convergence strong-convergence






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edited Dec 30 '18 at 16:56









Bernard

125k743119




125k743119










asked Dec 30 '18 at 16:40









user630504user630504

132




132








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Just use that $L^1$-convergence implies convergence a.e. along a subsequence. This subsequence has $L^infty$-norm bounded by $a$ and you are done.
    $endgroup$
    – Severin Schraven
    Dec 30 '18 at 17:25






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Your approach is also valid. Since $L^1$ is seperable, Banach-Alaoglu implies that there is a weak-star convergent subsequence converging to $u$. Then $|u|_inftyle a$ follows.
    $endgroup$
    – Song
    Dec 30 '18 at 17:32










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you both !
    $endgroup$
    – user630504
    Dec 30 '18 at 17:48














  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Just use that $L^1$-convergence implies convergence a.e. along a subsequence. This subsequence has $L^infty$-norm bounded by $a$ and you are done.
    $endgroup$
    – Severin Schraven
    Dec 30 '18 at 17:25






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Your approach is also valid. Since $L^1$ is seperable, Banach-Alaoglu implies that there is a weak-star convergent subsequence converging to $u$. Then $|u|_inftyle a$ follows.
    $endgroup$
    – Song
    Dec 30 '18 at 17:32










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you both !
    $endgroup$
    – user630504
    Dec 30 '18 at 17:48








3




3




$begingroup$
Just use that $L^1$-convergence implies convergence a.e. along a subsequence. This subsequence has $L^infty$-norm bounded by $a$ and you are done.
$endgroup$
– Severin Schraven
Dec 30 '18 at 17:25




$begingroup$
Just use that $L^1$-convergence implies convergence a.e. along a subsequence. This subsequence has $L^infty$-norm bounded by $a$ and you are done.
$endgroup$
– Severin Schraven
Dec 30 '18 at 17:25




2




2




$begingroup$
Your approach is also valid. Since $L^1$ is seperable, Banach-Alaoglu implies that there is a weak-star convergent subsequence converging to $u$. Then $|u|_inftyle a$ follows.
$endgroup$
– Song
Dec 30 '18 at 17:32




$begingroup$
Your approach is also valid. Since $L^1$ is seperable, Banach-Alaoglu implies that there is a weak-star convergent subsequence converging to $u$. Then $|u|_inftyle a$ follows.
$endgroup$
– Song
Dec 30 '18 at 17:32












$begingroup$
Thank you both !
$endgroup$
– user630504
Dec 30 '18 at 17:48




$begingroup$
Thank you both !
$endgroup$
– user630504
Dec 30 '18 at 17:48










2 Answers
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For a more direct proof, let $lambda$ denote the Lebesgue measure and $delta>0$. Using Chebychev's inequality we get $$lambdaleft(left{x: lvert u(x) rvert geq a+delta right}right) leq lambdaleft(left{x: lvert u(x) -u_{n}(x) rvert geq delta/2 right} right) + underbrace{lambda left(x: lvert u_{n}(x)rvert geq a + delta/2 right)}_{=0} leq\ frac{2}{delta} , lvertlvert u-u_{n}rvertrvert_{L^{1}}rightarrow 0$$
as $nrightarrow infty$.
Since $delta>0$ was arbitrary, we arrive at the conclusion that $u$ is essentially bounded in $mathbb{R}^{n}$ with norm less than $a$.






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    $begingroup$

    Since $u_nto u$ in $L^1,$ there is a subsequence $u_{n_k}$ that converges to $u$ a.e. We have each $|u_{n_k}|le a$ a.e., so $|u|le a$ a.e., giving the result.






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      2 Answers
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      2 Answers
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      active

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      1












      $begingroup$

      For a more direct proof, let $lambda$ denote the Lebesgue measure and $delta>0$. Using Chebychev's inequality we get $$lambdaleft(left{x: lvert u(x) rvert geq a+delta right}right) leq lambdaleft(left{x: lvert u(x) -u_{n}(x) rvert geq delta/2 right} right) + underbrace{lambda left(x: lvert u_{n}(x)rvert geq a + delta/2 right)}_{=0} leq\ frac{2}{delta} , lvertlvert u-u_{n}rvertrvert_{L^{1}}rightarrow 0$$
      as $nrightarrow infty$.
      Since $delta>0$ was arbitrary, we arrive at the conclusion that $u$ is essentially bounded in $mathbb{R}^{n}$ with norm less than $a$.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$


















        1












        $begingroup$

        For a more direct proof, let $lambda$ denote the Lebesgue measure and $delta>0$. Using Chebychev's inequality we get $$lambdaleft(left{x: lvert u(x) rvert geq a+delta right}right) leq lambdaleft(left{x: lvert u(x) -u_{n}(x) rvert geq delta/2 right} right) + underbrace{lambda left(x: lvert u_{n}(x)rvert geq a + delta/2 right)}_{=0} leq\ frac{2}{delta} , lvertlvert u-u_{n}rvertrvert_{L^{1}}rightarrow 0$$
        as $nrightarrow infty$.
        Since $delta>0$ was arbitrary, we arrive at the conclusion that $u$ is essentially bounded in $mathbb{R}^{n}$ with norm less than $a$.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$
















          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          For a more direct proof, let $lambda$ denote the Lebesgue measure and $delta>0$. Using Chebychev's inequality we get $$lambdaleft(left{x: lvert u(x) rvert geq a+delta right}right) leq lambdaleft(left{x: lvert u(x) -u_{n}(x) rvert geq delta/2 right} right) + underbrace{lambda left(x: lvert u_{n}(x)rvert geq a + delta/2 right)}_{=0} leq\ frac{2}{delta} , lvertlvert u-u_{n}rvertrvert_{L^{1}}rightarrow 0$$
          as $nrightarrow infty$.
          Since $delta>0$ was arbitrary, we arrive at the conclusion that $u$ is essentially bounded in $mathbb{R}^{n}$ with norm less than $a$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          For a more direct proof, let $lambda$ denote the Lebesgue measure and $delta>0$. Using Chebychev's inequality we get $$lambdaleft(left{x: lvert u(x) rvert geq a+delta right}right) leq lambdaleft(left{x: lvert u(x) -u_{n}(x) rvert geq delta/2 right} right) + underbrace{lambda left(x: lvert u_{n}(x)rvert geq a + delta/2 right)}_{=0} leq\ frac{2}{delta} , lvertlvert u-u_{n}rvertrvert_{L^{1}}rightarrow 0$$
          as $nrightarrow infty$.
          Since $delta>0$ was arbitrary, we arrive at the conclusion that $u$ is essentially bounded in $mathbb{R}^{n}$ with norm less than $a$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Dec 31 '18 at 14:04

























          answered Dec 30 '18 at 17:48









          TheOscillatorTheOscillator

          2,1891817




          2,1891817























              1












              $begingroup$

              Since $u_nto u$ in $L^1,$ there is a subsequence $u_{n_k}$ that converges to $u$ a.e. We have each $|u_{n_k}|le a$ a.e., so $|u|le a$ a.e., giving the result.






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              $endgroup$


















                1












                $begingroup$

                Since $u_nto u$ in $L^1,$ there is a subsequence $u_{n_k}$ that converges to $u$ a.e. We have each $|u_{n_k}|le a$ a.e., so $|u|le a$ a.e., giving the result.






                share|cite|improve this answer









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                  1












                  1








                  1





                  $begingroup$

                  Since $u_nto u$ in $L^1,$ there is a subsequence $u_{n_k}$ that converges to $u$ a.e. We have each $|u_{n_k}|le a$ a.e., so $|u|le a$ a.e., giving the result.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Since $u_nto u$ in $L^1,$ there is a subsequence $u_{n_k}$ that converges to $u$ a.e. We have each $|u_{n_k}|le a$ a.e., so $|u|le a$ a.e., giving the result.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Dec 30 '18 at 19:28









                  zhw.zhw.

                  75.4k43275




                  75.4k43275






























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