“Seemed to had” is it correct?





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Here's a sentence I made up:



"He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him"



Is this sentence correct? I tried searching for similar sentences by putting quotation marks around 'seemed to had not', and out popped roughly 5-6 results, but that doesn't seem to be that many, especially because some of those could've been mistakes, and I couldn't find any questions like this.



Also, assuming it is correct, if I change the position of 'not', like so:



"He seemed to not had understood what I had said to him"



Would it still be grammatical?










share|improve this question





























    2















    Here's a sentence I made up:



    "He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him"



    Is this sentence correct? I tried searching for similar sentences by putting quotation marks around 'seemed to had not', and out popped roughly 5-6 results, but that doesn't seem to be that many, especially because some of those could've been mistakes, and I couldn't find any questions like this.



    Also, assuming it is correct, if I change the position of 'not', like so:



    "He seemed to not had understood what I had said to him"



    Would it still be grammatical?










    share|improve this question

























      2












      2








      2








      Here's a sentence I made up:



      "He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him"



      Is this sentence correct? I tried searching for similar sentences by putting quotation marks around 'seemed to had not', and out popped roughly 5-6 results, but that doesn't seem to be that many, especially because some of those could've been mistakes, and I couldn't find any questions like this.



      Also, assuming it is correct, if I change the position of 'not', like so:



      "He seemed to not had understood what I had said to him"



      Would it still be grammatical?










      share|improve this question














      Here's a sentence I made up:



      "He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him"



      Is this sentence correct? I tried searching for similar sentences by putting quotation marks around 'seemed to had not', and out popped roughly 5-6 results, but that doesn't seem to be that many, especially because some of those could've been mistakes, and I couldn't find any questions like this.



      Also, assuming it is correct, if I change the position of 'not', like so:



      "He seemed to not had understood what I had said to him"



      Would it still be grammatical?







      grammar grammaticality






      share|improve this question













      share|improve this question











      share|improve this question




      share|improve this question










      asked 3 hours ago









      FrostC0FrostC0

      359210




      359210






















          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          6














          No matter where you put the "not", a statement with "to had" isn't grammatical. The construction you are using is "seem" + to-infinitive. The infinitive for the verb have/had is "to have", not "to had."



          This is discussed in detail on the BBC "Learning English" website:




          seem / appear to + infinitive



          After seem and appear we often use a
          to + infinitive construction ( or a perfect infinitive construction
          for past events).

          ...




          So what you should say is either of:




          1. He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.


          2. He seemed to have not understood what I had said to him.


          3. He seemed to not have understood what I had said to him.



          The "not" could really go in any of those 3 places, but the first possibility sounds smoother and more idiomatic. The last sentence sounds the least natural to me, even slightly awkward.






          share|improve this answer


























          • The word order in sentences 2 and 3 has only become acceptable in the last 2 or 3 decades.

            – phoog
            3 hours ago













          • Thank you for the help!

            – FrostC0
            3 hours ago











          • @phoog: I don't think the sticklers ever objected to 2 particularly, though they certainly did to 3.

            – Colin Fine
            3 hours ago











          • @ColinFine in my experience it's not so much about sticklers as just the sentences that people would actually say or write.

            – phoog
            2 hours ago





















          1














          No,




          He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him.




          is not grammatical at all, and neither is your other construction.



          Here's what you should use:




          He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.







          share|improve this answer



















          • 1





            Could you explain why it's incorrect, if you don't mind of course.

            – FrostC0
            3 hours ago



















          1














          to has to be followed by a bare infinitive or perfect infinitive:



          He seems to understand. [bare, present]



          He seems to have understood. [perfect infinitive, past idea or tense]



          The perfect infinitive is have + the past participle.






          share|improve this answer
























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            3 Answers
            3






            active

            oldest

            votes








            3 Answers
            3






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            6














            No matter where you put the "not", a statement with "to had" isn't grammatical. The construction you are using is "seem" + to-infinitive. The infinitive for the verb have/had is "to have", not "to had."



            This is discussed in detail on the BBC "Learning English" website:




            seem / appear to + infinitive



            After seem and appear we often use a
            to + infinitive construction ( or a perfect infinitive construction
            for past events).

            ...




            So what you should say is either of:




            1. He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.


            2. He seemed to have not understood what I had said to him.


            3. He seemed to not have understood what I had said to him.



            The "not" could really go in any of those 3 places, but the first possibility sounds smoother and more idiomatic. The last sentence sounds the least natural to me, even slightly awkward.






            share|improve this answer


























            • The word order in sentences 2 and 3 has only become acceptable in the last 2 or 3 decades.

              – phoog
              3 hours ago













            • Thank you for the help!

              – FrostC0
              3 hours ago











            • @phoog: I don't think the sticklers ever objected to 2 particularly, though they certainly did to 3.

              – Colin Fine
              3 hours ago











            • @ColinFine in my experience it's not so much about sticklers as just the sentences that people would actually say or write.

              – phoog
              2 hours ago


















            6














            No matter where you put the "not", a statement with "to had" isn't grammatical. The construction you are using is "seem" + to-infinitive. The infinitive for the verb have/had is "to have", not "to had."



            This is discussed in detail on the BBC "Learning English" website:




            seem / appear to + infinitive



            After seem and appear we often use a
            to + infinitive construction ( or a perfect infinitive construction
            for past events).

            ...




            So what you should say is either of:




            1. He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.


            2. He seemed to have not understood what I had said to him.


            3. He seemed to not have understood what I had said to him.



            The "not" could really go in any of those 3 places, but the first possibility sounds smoother and more idiomatic. The last sentence sounds the least natural to me, even slightly awkward.






            share|improve this answer


























            • The word order in sentences 2 and 3 has only become acceptable in the last 2 or 3 decades.

              – phoog
              3 hours ago













            • Thank you for the help!

              – FrostC0
              3 hours ago











            • @phoog: I don't think the sticklers ever objected to 2 particularly, though they certainly did to 3.

              – Colin Fine
              3 hours ago











            • @ColinFine in my experience it's not so much about sticklers as just the sentences that people would actually say or write.

              – phoog
              2 hours ago
















            6












            6








            6







            No matter where you put the "not", a statement with "to had" isn't grammatical. The construction you are using is "seem" + to-infinitive. The infinitive for the verb have/had is "to have", not "to had."



            This is discussed in detail on the BBC "Learning English" website:




            seem / appear to + infinitive



            After seem and appear we often use a
            to + infinitive construction ( or a perfect infinitive construction
            for past events).

            ...




            So what you should say is either of:




            1. He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.


            2. He seemed to have not understood what I had said to him.


            3. He seemed to not have understood what I had said to him.



            The "not" could really go in any of those 3 places, but the first possibility sounds smoother and more idiomatic. The last sentence sounds the least natural to me, even slightly awkward.






            share|improve this answer















            No matter where you put the "not", a statement with "to had" isn't grammatical. The construction you are using is "seem" + to-infinitive. The infinitive for the verb have/had is "to have", not "to had."



            This is discussed in detail on the BBC "Learning English" website:




            seem / appear to + infinitive



            After seem and appear we often use a
            to + infinitive construction ( or a perfect infinitive construction
            for past events).

            ...




            So what you should say is either of:




            1. He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.


            2. He seemed to have not understood what I had said to him.


            3. He seemed to not have understood what I had said to him.



            The "not" could really go in any of those 3 places, but the first possibility sounds smoother and more idiomatic. The last sentence sounds the least natural to me, even slightly awkward.







            share|improve this answer














            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer








            edited 3 hours ago

























            answered 3 hours ago









            Lorel C.Lorel C.

            4,7421510




            4,7421510













            • The word order in sentences 2 and 3 has only become acceptable in the last 2 or 3 decades.

              – phoog
              3 hours ago













            • Thank you for the help!

              – FrostC0
              3 hours ago











            • @phoog: I don't think the sticklers ever objected to 2 particularly, though they certainly did to 3.

              – Colin Fine
              3 hours ago











            • @ColinFine in my experience it's not so much about sticklers as just the sentences that people would actually say or write.

              – phoog
              2 hours ago





















            • The word order in sentences 2 and 3 has only become acceptable in the last 2 or 3 decades.

              – phoog
              3 hours ago













            • Thank you for the help!

              – FrostC0
              3 hours ago











            • @phoog: I don't think the sticklers ever objected to 2 particularly, though they certainly did to 3.

              – Colin Fine
              3 hours ago











            • @ColinFine in my experience it's not so much about sticklers as just the sentences that people would actually say or write.

              – phoog
              2 hours ago



















            The word order in sentences 2 and 3 has only become acceptable in the last 2 or 3 decades.

            – phoog
            3 hours ago







            The word order in sentences 2 and 3 has only become acceptable in the last 2 or 3 decades.

            – phoog
            3 hours ago















            Thank you for the help!

            – FrostC0
            3 hours ago





            Thank you for the help!

            – FrostC0
            3 hours ago













            @phoog: I don't think the sticklers ever objected to 2 particularly, though they certainly did to 3.

            – Colin Fine
            3 hours ago





            @phoog: I don't think the sticklers ever objected to 2 particularly, though they certainly did to 3.

            – Colin Fine
            3 hours ago













            @ColinFine in my experience it's not so much about sticklers as just the sentences that people would actually say or write.

            – phoog
            2 hours ago







            @ColinFine in my experience it's not so much about sticklers as just the sentences that people would actually say or write.

            – phoog
            2 hours ago















            1














            No,




            He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him.




            is not grammatical at all, and neither is your other construction.



            Here's what you should use:




            He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.







            share|improve this answer



















            • 1





              Could you explain why it's incorrect, if you don't mind of course.

              – FrostC0
              3 hours ago
















            1














            No,




            He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him.




            is not grammatical at all, and neither is your other construction.



            Here's what you should use:




            He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.







            share|improve this answer



















            • 1





              Could you explain why it's incorrect, if you don't mind of course.

              – FrostC0
              3 hours ago














            1












            1








            1







            No,




            He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him.




            is not grammatical at all, and neither is your other construction.



            Here's what you should use:




            He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.







            share|improve this answer













            No,




            He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him.




            is not grammatical at all, and neither is your other construction.



            Here's what you should use:




            He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.








            share|improve this answer












            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer










            answered 3 hours ago









            RobustoRobusto

            12.5k23044




            12.5k23044








            • 1





              Could you explain why it's incorrect, if you don't mind of course.

              – FrostC0
              3 hours ago














            • 1





              Could you explain why it's incorrect, if you don't mind of course.

              – FrostC0
              3 hours ago








            1




            1





            Could you explain why it's incorrect, if you don't mind of course.

            – FrostC0
            3 hours ago





            Could you explain why it's incorrect, if you don't mind of course.

            – FrostC0
            3 hours ago











            1














            to has to be followed by a bare infinitive or perfect infinitive:



            He seems to understand. [bare, present]



            He seems to have understood. [perfect infinitive, past idea or tense]



            The perfect infinitive is have + the past participle.






            share|improve this answer




























              1














              to has to be followed by a bare infinitive or perfect infinitive:



              He seems to understand. [bare, present]



              He seems to have understood. [perfect infinitive, past idea or tense]



              The perfect infinitive is have + the past participle.






              share|improve this answer


























                1












                1








                1







                to has to be followed by a bare infinitive or perfect infinitive:



                He seems to understand. [bare, present]



                He seems to have understood. [perfect infinitive, past idea or tense]



                The perfect infinitive is have + the past participle.






                share|improve this answer













                to has to be followed by a bare infinitive or perfect infinitive:



                He seems to understand. [bare, present]



                He seems to have understood. [perfect infinitive, past idea or tense]



                The perfect infinitive is have + the past participle.







                share|improve this answer












                share|improve this answer



                share|improve this answer










                answered 3 hours ago









                LambieLambie

                17.6k1540




                17.6k1540






























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