Fourier transform and lebesgue integral











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Let $f:mathbb{R}^d rightarrow mathbb{R}^d$ be the function with $f(x) = exp(-frac{1}{2}mid x mid^2)$. Show that the fourier transform of $f$ is given by $hat f = (sqrt{2 pi})^d f$.



The fourier transform is given by $hat f (xi ) := displaystyleint_{mathbb{R}^d} f(x) exp(-ixi cdot x) mu(dx)$.



I would like to start with looking at the case $d = 1$ but I dont know how to proceed.










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    Let $f:mathbb{R}^d rightarrow mathbb{R}^d$ be the function with $f(x) = exp(-frac{1}{2}mid x mid^2)$. Show that the fourier transform of $f$ is given by $hat f = (sqrt{2 pi})^d f$.



    The fourier transform is given by $hat f (xi ) := displaystyleint_{mathbb{R}^d} f(x) exp(-ixi cdot x) mu(dx)$.



    I would like to start with looking at the case $d = 1$ but I dont know how to proceed.










    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      Let $f:mathbb{R}^d rightarrow mathbb{R}^d$ be the function with $f(x) = exp(-frac{1}{2}mid x mid^2)$. Show that the fourier transform of $f$ is given by $hat f = (sqrt{2 pi})^d f$.



      The fourier transform is given by $hat f (xi ) := displaystyleint_{mathbb{R}^d} f(x) exp(-ixi cdot x) mu(dx)$.



      I would like to start with looking at the case $d = 1$ but I dont know how to proceed.










      share|cite|improve this question













      Let $f:mathbb{R}^d rightarrow mathbb{R}^d$ be the function with $f(x) = exp(-frac{1}{2}mid x mid^2)$. Show that the fourier transform of $f$ is given by $hat f = (sqrt{2 pi})^d f$.



      The fourier transform is given by $hat f (xi ) := displaystyleint_{mathbb{R}^d} f(x) exp(-ixi cdot x) mu(dx)$.



      I would like to start with looking at the case $d = 1$ but I dont know how to proceed.







      calculus lebesgue-integral fourier-transform






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      asked Nov 19 at 15:20









      Arjihad

      374111




      374111






















          2 Answers
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          0
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          It's a Gaussian integral---complete the square up in the exponential to get $(2pi)^{d/2} e^{-|xi|^2/2}$. Standard result on multivariate Gaussians (and no need to worry about Lebesgue).






          share|cite|improve this answer

















          • 1




            How do you know that $int_{-infty}^infty e^{- (x-i xi)^2/2}dx =int_{-infty}^infty e^{- x^2/2}dx$
            – reuns
            Nov 19 at 17:39


















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          For $d=1$, we have $f(x)=e^{-x^2/2}$ and therefore (remember that $(ixi+x)^2=-xi^2+2ixi x+x^2$)
          begin{equation*}
          begin{split}
          hat{f}(xi) & = int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-1/2(2ixi x + x^2)} {rm d}mu(x) \
          & = int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-1/2((ixi+x)^2+xi^2)} {rm d}mu(x) \
          & = f(xi) int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-(ixi+x)^2/2} {rm d}mu(x) \
          & =f(xi) int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-y^2/2} {rm d}mu(y) \
          & = sqrt{2pi} f(xi).
          end{split}
          end{equation*}



          It's pretty similar for $d>1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • How do you know that $int_{-infty}^infty e^{- (x-i xi)^2/2}dx =int_{-infty}^infty e^{- x^2/2}dx$
            – reuns
            Nov 19 at 17:39










          • Change variable and the contribution from the ends of the contour (which gets shifted up or down) is negligible.
            – Richard Martin
            Nov 19 at 17:49










          • How do I continue for $d=2$ and so on?
            – Arjihad
            Nov 20 at 15:40










          • For any $dgeq 1$ you will get $$hat{f}(xi)=f(xi)int_{mathbb{R}^d} e^{-|y|^2/2} {rm d}mu(y)$$ which is just $hat{f}(xi)=(2pi)^{d/2} f(xi)$.
            – rldias
            Nov 20 at 23:50










          • Actually the fourth equality requires complex analysis which is not allowed in this task.
            – Arjihad
            Nov 21 at 15:53











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          2 Answers
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          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

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          active

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          active

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          up vote
          0
          down vote













          It's a Gaussian integral---complete the square up in the exponential to get $(2pi)^{d/2} e^{-|xi|^2/2}$. Standard result on multivariate Gaussians (and no need to worry about Lebesgue).






          share|cite|improve this answer

















          • 1




            How do you know that $int_{-infty}^infty e^{- (x-i xi)^2/2}dx =int_{-infty}^infty e^{- x^2/2}dx$
            – reuns
            Nov 19 at 17:39















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          It's a Gaussian integral---complete the square up in the exponential to get $(2pi)^{d/2} e^{-|xi|^2/2}$. Standard result on multivariate Gaussians (and no need to worry about Lebesgue).






          share|cite|improve this answer

















          • 1




            How do you know that $int_{-infty}^infty e^{- (x-i xi)^2/2}dx =int_{-infty}^infty e^{- x^2/2}dx$
            – reuns
            Nov 19 at 17:39













          up vote
          0
          down vote










          up vote
          0
          down vote









          It's a Gaussian integral---complete the square up in the exponential to get $(2pi)^{d/2} e^{-|xi|^2/2}$. Standard result on multivariate Gaussians (and no need to worry about Lebesgue).






          share|cite|improve this answer












          It's a Gaussian integral---complete the square up in the exponential to get $(2pi)^{d/2} e^{-|xi|^2/2}$. Standard result on multivariate Gaussians (and no need to worry about Lebesgue).







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 19 at 15:43









          Richard Martin

          1,6148




          1,6148








          • 1




            How do you know that $int_{-infty}^infty e^{- (x-i xi)^2/2}dx =int_{-infty}^infty e^{- x^2/2}dx$
            – reuns
            Nov 19 at 17:39














          • 1




            How do you know that $int_{-infty}^infty e^{- (x-i xi)^2/2}dx =int_{-infty}^infty e^{- x^2/2}dx$
            – reuns
            Nov 19 at 17:39








          1




          1




          How do you know that $int_{-infty}^infty e^{- (x-i xi)^2/2}dx =int_{-infty}^infty e^{- x^2/2}dx$
          – reuns
          Nov 19 at 17:39




          How do you know that $int_{-infty}^infty e^{- (x-i xi)^2/2}dx =int_{-infty}^infty e^{- x^2/2}dx$
          – reuns
          Nov 19 at 17:39










          up vote
          0
          down vote













          For $d=1$, we have $f(x)=e^{-x^2/2}$ and therefore (remember that $(ixi+x)^2=-xi^2+2ixi x+x^2$)
          begin{equation*}
          begin{split}
          hat{f}(xi) & = int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-1/2(2ixi x + x^2)} {rm d}mu(x) \
          & = int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-1/2((ixi+x)^2+xi^2)} {rm d}mu(x) \
          & = f(xi) int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-(ixi+x)^2/2} {rm d}mu(x) \
          & =f(xi) int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-y^2/2} {rm d}mu(y) \
          & = sqrt{2pi} f(xi).
          end{split}
          end{equation*}



          It's pretty similar for $d>1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • How do you know that $int_{-infty}^infty e^{- (x-i xi)^2/2}dx =int_{-infty}^infty e^{- x^2/2}dx$
            – reuns
            Nov 19 at 17:39










          • Change variable and the contribution from the ends of the contour (which gets shifted up or down) is negligible.
            – Richard Martin
            Nov 19 at 17:49










          • How do I continue for $d=2$ and so on?
            – Arjihad
            Nov 20 at 15:40










          • For any $dgeq 1$ you will get $$hat{f}(xi)=f(xi)int_{mathbb{R}^d} e^{-|y|^2/2} {rm d}mu(y)$$ which is just $hat{f}(xi)=(2pi)^{d/2} f(xi)$.
            – rldias
            Nov 20 at 23:50










          • Actually the fourth equality requires complex analysis which is not allowed in this task.
            – Arjihad
            Nov 21 at 15:53















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          For $d=1$, we have $f(x)=e^{-x^2/2}$ and therefore (remember that $(ixi+x)^2=-xi^2+2ixi x+x^2$)
          begin{equation*}
          begin{split}
          hat{f}(xi) & = int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-1/2(2ixi x + x^2)} {rm d}mu(x) \
          & = int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-1/2((ixi+x)^2+xi^2)} {rm d}mu(x) \
          & = f(xi) int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-(ixi+x)^2/2} {rm d}mu(x) \
          & =f(xi) int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-y^2/2} {rm d}mu(y) \
          & = sqrt{2pi} f(xi).
          end{split}
          end{equation*}



          It's pretty similar for $d>1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • How do you know that $int_{-infty}^infty e^{- (x-i xi)^2/2}dx =int_{-infty}^infty e^{- x^2/2}dx$
            – reuns
            Nov 19 at 17:39










          • Change variable and the contribution from the ends of the contour (which gets shifted up or down) is negligible.
            – Richard Martin
            Nov 19 at 17:49










          • How do I continue for $d=2$ and so on?
            – Arjihad
            Nov 20 at 15:40










          • For any $dgeq 1$ you will get $$hat{f}(xi)=f(xi)int_{mathbb{R}^d} e^{-|y|^2/2} {rm d}mu(y)$$ which is just $hat{f}(xi)=(2pi)^{d/2} f(xi)$.
            – rldias
            Nov 20 at 23:50










          • Actually the fourth equality requires complex analysis which is not allowed in this task.
            – Arjihad
            Nov 21 at 15:53













          up vote
          0
          down vote










          up vote
          0
          down vote









          For $d=1$, we have $f(x)=e^{-x^2/2}$ and therefore (remember that $(ixi+x)^2=-xi^2+2ixi x+x^2$)
          begin{equation*}
          begin{split}
          hat{f}(xi) & = int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-1/2(2ixi x + x^2)} {rm d}mu(x) \
          & = int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-1/2((ixi+x)^2+xi^2)} {rm d}mu(x) \
          & = f(xi) int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-(ixi+x)^2/2} {rm d}mu(x) \
          & =f(xi) int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-y^2/2} {rm d}mu(y) \
          & = sqrt{2pi} f(xi).
          end{split}
          end{equation*}



          It's pretty similar for $d>1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          For $d=1$, we have $f(x)=e^{-x^2/2}$ and therefore (remember that $(ixi+x)^2=-xi^2+2ixi x+x^2$)
          begin{equation*}
          begin{split}
          hat{f}(xi) & = int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-1/2(2ixi x + x^2)} {rm d}mu(x) \
          & = int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-1/2((ixi+x)^2+xi^2)} {rm d}mu(x) \
          & = f(xi) int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-(ixi+x)^2/2} {rm d}mu(x) \
          & =f(xi) int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-y^2/2} {rm d}mu(y) \
          & = sqrt{2pi} f(xi).
          end{split}
          end{equation*}



          It's pretty similar for $d>1$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 19 at 15:49









          rldias

          2,9301522




          2,9301522












          • How do you know that $int_{-infty}^infty e^{- (x-i xi)^2/2}dx =int_{-infty}^infty e^{- x^2/2}dx$
            – reuns
            Nov 19 at 17:39










          • Change variable and the contribution from the ends of the contour (which gets shifted up or down) is negligible.
            – Richard Martin
            Nov 19 at 17:49










          • How do I continue for $d=2$ and so on?
            – Arjihad
            Nov 20 at 15:40










          • For any $dgeq 1$ you will get $$hat{f}(xi)=f(xi)int_{mathbb{R}^d} e^{-|y|^2/2} {rm d}mu(y)$$ which is just $hat{f}(xi)=(2pi)^{d/2} f(xi)$.
            – rldias
            Nov 20 at 23:50










          • Actually the fourth equality requires complex analysis which is not allowed in this task.
            – Arjihad
            Nov 21 at 15:53


















          • How do you know that $int_{-infty}^infty e^{- (x-i xi)^2/2}dx =int_{-infty}^infty e^{- x^2/2}dx$
            – reuns
            Nov 19 at 17:39










          • Change variable and the contribution from the ends of the contour (which gets shifted up or down) is negligible.
            – Richard Martin
            Nov 19 at 17:49










          • How do I continue for $d=2$ and so on?
            – Arjihad
            Nov 20 at 15:40










          • For any $dgeq 1$ you will get $$hat{f}(xi)=f(xi)int_{mathbb{R}^d} e^{-|y|^2/2} {rm d}mu(y)$$ which is just $hat{f}(xi)=(2pi)^{d/2} f(xi)$.
            – rldias
            Nov 20 at 23:50










          • Actually the fourth equality requires complex analysis which is not allowed in this task.
            – Arjihad
            Nov 21 at 15:53
















          How do you know that $int_{-infty}^infty e^{- (x-i xi)^2/2}dx =int_{-infty}^infty e^{- x^2/2}dx$
          – reuns
          Nov 19 at 17:39




          How do you know that $int_{-infty}^infty e^{- (x-i xi)^2/2}dx =int_{-infty}^infty e^{- x^2/2}dx$
          – reuns
          Nov 19 at 17:39












          Change variable and the contribution from the ends of the contour (which gets shifted up or down) is negligible.
          – Richard Martin
          Nov 19 at 17:49




          Change variable and the contribution from the ends of the contour (which gets shifted up or down) is negligible.
          – Richard Martin
          Nov 19 at 17:49












          How do I continue for $d=2$ and so on?
          – Arjihad
          Nov 20 at 15:40




          How do I continue for $d=2$ and so on?
          – Arjihad
          Nov 20 at 15:40












          For any $dgeq 1$ you will get $$hat{f}(xi)=f(xi)int_{mathbb{R}^d} e^{-|y|^2/2} {rm d}mu(y)$$ which is just $hat{f}(xi)=(2pi)^{d/2} f(xi)$.
          – rldias
          Nov 20 at 23:50




          For any $dgeq 1$ you will get $$hat{f}(xi)=f(xi)int_{mathbb{R}^d} e^{-|y|^2/2} {rm d}mu(y)$$ which is just $hat{f}(xi)=(2pi)^{d/2} f(xi)$.
          – rldias
          Nov 20 at 23:50












          Actually the fourth equality requires complex analysis which is not allowed in this task.
          – Arjihad
          Nov 21 at 15:53




          Actually the fourth equality requires complex analysis which is not allowed in this task.
          – Arjihad
          Nov 21 at 15:53


















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