Fourier transform and lebesgue integral
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Let $f:mathbb{R}^d rightarrow mathbb{R}^d$ be the function with $f(x) = exp(-frac{1}{2}mid x mid^2)$. Show that the fourier transform of $f$ is given by $hat f = (sqrt{2 pi})^d f$.
The fourier transform is given by $hat f (xi ) := displaystyleint_{mathbb{R}^d} f(x) exp(-ixi cdot x) mu(dx)$.
I would like to start with looking at the case $d = 1$ but I dont know how to proceed.
calculus lebesgue-integral fourier-transform
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Let $f:mathbb{R}^d rightarrow mathbb{R}^d$ be the function with $f(x) = exp(-frac{1}{2}mid x mid^2)$. Show that the fourier transform of $f$ is given by $hat f = (sqrt{2 pi})^d f$.
The fourier transform is given by $hat f (xi ) := displaystyleint_{mathbb{R}^d} f(x) exp(-ixi cdot x) mu(dx)$.
I would like to start with looking at the case $d = 1$ but I dont know how to proceed.
calculus lebesgue-integral fourier-transform
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up vote
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Let $f:mathbb{R}^d rightarrow mathbb{R}^d$ be the function with $f(x) = exp(-frac{1}{2}mid x mid^2)$. Show that the fourier transform of $f$ is given by $hat f = (sqrt{2 pi})^d f$.
The fourier transform is given by $hat f (xi ) := displaystyleint_{mathbb{R}^d} f(x) exp(-ixi cdot x) mu(dx)$.
I would like to start with looking at the case $d = 1$ but I dont know how to proceed.
calculus lebesgue-integral fourier-transform
Let $f:mathbb{R}^d rightarrow mathbb{R}^d$ be the function with $f(x) = exp(-frac{1}{2}mid x mid^2)$. Show that the fourier transform of $f$ is given by $hat f = (sqrt{2 pi})^d f$.
The fourier transform is given by $hat f (xi ) := displaystyleint_{mathbb{R}^d} f(x) exp(-ixi cdot x) mu(dx)$.
I would like to start with looking at the case $d = 1$ but I dont know how to proceed.
calculus lebesgue-integral fourier-transform
calculus lebesgue-integral fourier-transform
asked Nov 19 at 15:20
Arjihad
374111
374111
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2 Answers
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It's a Gaussian integral---complete the square up in the exponential to get $(2pi)^{d/2} e^{-|xi|^2/2}$. Standard result on multivariate Gaussians (and no need to worry about Lebesgue).
1
How do you know that $int_{-infty}^infty e^{- (x-i xi)^2/2}dx =int_{-infty}^infty e^{- x^2/2}dx$
– reuns
Nov 19 at 17:39
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For $d=1$, we have $f(x)=e^{-x^2/2}$ and therefore (remember that $(ixi+x)^2=-xi^2+2ixi x+x^2$)
begin{equation*}
begin{split}
hat{f}(xi) & = int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-1/2(2ixi x + x^2)} {rm d}mu(x) \
& = int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-1/2((ixi+x)^2+xi^2)} {rm d}mu(x) \
& = f(xi) int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-(ixi+x)^2/2} {rm d}mu(x) \
& =f(xi) int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-y^2/2} {rm d}mu(y) \
& = sqrt{2pi} f(xi).
end{split}
end{equation*}
It's pretty similar for $d>1$.
How do you know that $int_{-infty}^infty e^{- (x-i xi)^2/2}dx =int_{-infty}^infty e^{- x^2/2}dx$
– reuns
Nov 19 at 17:39
Change variable and the contribution from the ends of the contour (which gets shifted up or down) is negligible.
– Richard Martin
Nov 19 at 17:49
How do I continue for $d=2$ and so on?
– Arjihad
Nov 20 at 15:40
For any $dgeq 1$ you will get $$hat{f}(xi)=f(xi)int_{mathbb{R}^d} e^{-|y|^2/2} {rm d}mu(y)$$ which is just $hat{f}(xi)=(2pi)^{d/2} f(xi)$.
– rldias
Nov 20 at 23:50
Actually the fourth equality requires complex analysis which is not allowed in this task.
– Arjihad
Nov 21 at 15:53
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
0
down vote
It's a Gaussian integral---complete the square up in the exponential to get $(2pi)^{d/2} e^{-|xi|^2/2}$. Standard result on multivariate Gaussians (and no need to worry about Lebesgue).
1
How do you know that $int_{-infty}^infty e^{- (x-i xi)^2/2}dx =int_{-infty}^infty e^{- x^2/2}dx$
– reuns
Nov 19 at 17:39
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
It's a Gaussian integral---complete the square up in the exponential to get $(2pi)^{d/2} e^{-|xi|^2/2}$. Standard result on multivariate Gaussians (and no need to worry about Lebesgue).
1
How do you know that $int_{-infty}^infty e^{- (x-i xi)^2/2}dx =int_{-infty}^infty e^{- x^2/2}dx$
– reuns
Nov 19 at 17:39
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
It's a Gaussian integral---complete the square up in the exponential to get $(2pi)^{d/2} e^{-|xi|^2/2}$. Standard result on multivariate Gaussians (and no need to worry about Lebesgue).
It's a Gaussian integral---complete the square up in the exponential to get $(2pi)^{d/2} e^{-|xi|^2/2}$. Standard result on multivariate Gaussians (and no need to worry about Lebesgue).
answered Nov 19 at 15:43
Richard Martin
1,6148
1,6148
1
How do you know that $int_{-infty}^infty e^{- (x-i xi)^2/2}dx =int_{-infty}^infty e^{- x^2/2}dx$
– reuns
Nov 19 at 17:39
add a comment |
1
How do you know that $int_{-infty}^infty e^{- (x-i xi)^2/2}dx =int_{-infty}^infty e^{- x^2/2}dx$
– reuns
Nov 19 at 17:39
1
1
How do you know that $int_{-infty}^infty e^{- (x-i xi)^2/2}dx =int_{-infty}^infty e^{- x^2/2}dx$
– reuns
Nov 19 at 17:39
How do you know that $int_{-infty}^infty e^{- (x-i xi)^2/2}dx =int_{-infty}^infty e^{- x^2/2}dx$
– reuns
Nov 19 at 17:39
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
For $d=1$, we have $f(x)=e^{-x^2/2}$ and therefore (remember that $(ixi+x)^2=-xi^2+2ixi x+x^2$)
begin{equation*}
begin{split}
hat{f}(xi) & = int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-1/2(2ixi x + x^2)} {rm d}mu(x) \
& = int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-1/2((ixi+x)^2+xi^2)} {rm d}mu(x) \
& = f(xi) int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-(ixi+x)^2/2} {rm d}mu(x) \
& =f(xi) int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-y^2/2} {rm d}mu(y) \
& = sqrt{2pi} f(xi).
end{split}
end{equation*}
It's pretty similar for $d>1$.
How do you know that $int_{-infty}^infty e^{- (x-i xi)^2/2}dx =int_{-infty}^infty e^{- x^2/2}dx$
– reuns
Nov 19 at 17:39
Change variable and the contribution from the ends of the contour (which gets shifted up or down) is negligible.
– Richard Martin
Nov 19 at 17:49
How do I continue for $d=2$ and so on?
– Arjihad
Nov 20 at 15:40
For any $dgeq 1$ you will get $$hat{f}(xi)=f(xi)int_{mathbb{R}^d} e^{-|y|^2/2} {rm d}mu(y)$$ which is just $hat{f}(xi)=(2pi)^{d/2} f(xi)$.
– rldias
Nov 20 at 23:50
Actually the fourth equality requires complex analysis which is not allowed in this task.
– Arjihad
Nov 21 at 15:53
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
For $d=1$, we have $f(x)=e^{-x^2/2}$ and therefore (remember that $(ixi+x)^2=-xi^2+2ixi x+x^2$)
begin{equation*}
begin{split}
hat{f}(xi) & = int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-1/2(2ixi x + x^2)} {rm d}mu(x) \
& = int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-1/2((ixi+x)^2+xi^2)} {rm d}mu(x) \
& = f(xi) int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-(ixi+x)^2/2} {rm d}mu(x) \
& =f(xi) int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-y^2/2} {rm d}mu(y) \
& = sqrt{2pi} f(xi).
end{split}
end{equation*}
It's pretty similar for $d>1$.
How do you know that $int_{-infty}^infty e^{- (x-i xi)^2/2}dx =int_{-infty}^infty e^{- x^2/2}dx$
– reuns
Nov 19 at 17:39
Change variable and the contribution from the ends of the contour (which gets shifted up or down) is negligible.
– Richard Martin
Nov 19 at 17:49
How do I continue for $d=2$ and so on?
– Arjihad
Nov 20 at 15:40
For any $dgeq 1$ you will get $$hat{f}(xi)=f(xi)int_{mathbb{R}^d} e^{-|y|^2/2} {rm d}mu(y)$$ which is just $hat{f}(xi)=(2pi)^{d/2} f(xi)$.
– rldias
Nov 20 at 23:50
Actually the fourth equality requires complex analysis which is not allowed in this task.
– Arjihad
Nov 21 at 15:53
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
For $d=1$, we have $f(x)=e^{-x^2/2}$ and therefore (remember that $(ixi+x)^2=-xi^2+2ixi x+x^2$)
begin{equation*}
begin{split}
hat{f}(xi) & = int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-1/2(2ixi x + x^2)} {rm d}mu(x) \
& = int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-1/2((ixi+x)^2+xi^2)} {rm d}mu(x) \
& = f(xi) int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-(ixi+x)^2/2} {rm d}mu(x) \
& =f(xi) int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-y^2/2} {rm d}mu(y) \
& = sqrt{2pi} f(xi).
end{split}
end{equation*}
It's pretty similar for $d>1$.
For $d=1$, we have $f(x)=e^{-x^2/2}$ and therefore (remember that $(ixi+x)^2=-xi^2+2ixi x+x^2$)
begin{equation*}
begin{split}
hat{f}(xi) & = int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-1/2(2ixi x + x^2)} {rm d}mu(x) \
& = int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-1/2((ixi+x)^2+xi^2)} {rm d}mu(x) \
& = f(xi) int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-(ixi+x)^2/2} {rm d}mu(x) \
& =f(xi) int_{-infty}^{infty} e^{-y^2/2} {rm d}mu(y) \
& = sqrt{2pi} f(xi).
end{split}
end{equation*}
It's pretty similar for $d>1$.
answered Nov 19 at 15:49
rldias
2,9301522
2,9301522
How do you know that $int_{-infty}^infty e^{- (x-i xi)^2/2}dx =int_{-infty}^infty e^{- x^2/2}dx$
– reuns
Nov 19 at 17:39
Change variable and the contribution from the ends of the contour (which gets shifted up or down) is negligible.
– Richard Martin
Nov 19 at 17:49
How do I continue for $d=2$ and so on?
– Arjihad
Nov 20 at 15:40
For any $dgeq 1$ you will get $$hat{f}(xi)=f(xi)int_{mathbb{R}^d} e^{-|y|^2/2} {rm d}mu(y)$$ which is just $hat{f}(xi)=(2pi)^{d/2} f(xi)$.
– rldias
Nov 20 at 23:50
Actually the fourth equality requires complex analysis which is not allowed in this task.
– Arjihad
Nov 21 at 15:53
add a comment |
How do you know that $int_{-infty}^infty e^{- (x-i xi)^2/2}dx =int_{-infty}^infty e^{- x^2/2}dx$
– reuns
Nov 19 at 17:39
Change variable and the contribution from the ends of the contour (which gets shifted up or down) is negligible.
– Richard Martin
Nov 19 at 17:49
How do I continue for $d=2$ and so on?
– Arjihad
Nov 20 at 15:40
For any $dgeq 1$ you will get $$hat{f}(xi)=f(xi)int_{mathbb{R}^d} e^{-|y|^2/2} {rm d}mu(y)$$ which is just $hat{f}(xi)=(2pi)^{d/2} f(xi)$.
– rldias
Nov 20 at 23:50
Actually the fourth equality requires complex analysis which is not allowed in this task.
– Arjihad
Nov 21 at 15:53
How do you know that $int_{-infty}^infty e^{- (x-i xi)^2/2}dx =int_{-infty}^infty e^{- x^2/2}dx$
– reuns
Nov 19 at 17:39
How do you know that $int_{-infty}^infty e^{- (x-i xi)^2/2}dx =int_{-infty}^infty e^{- x^2/2}dx$
– reuns
Nov 19 at 17:39
Change variable and the contribution from the ends of the contour (which gets shifted up or down) is negligible.
– Richard Martin
Nov 19 at 17:49
Change variable and the contribution from the ends of the contour (which gets shifted up or down) is negligible.
– Richard Martin
Nov 19 at 17:49
How do I continue for $d=2$ and so on?
– Arjihad
Nov 20 at 15:40
How do I continue for $d=2$ and so on?
– Arjihad
Nov 20 at 15:40
For any $dgeq 1$ you will get $$hat{f}(xi)=f(xi)int_{mathbb{R}^d} e^{-|y|^2/2} {rm d}mu(y)$$ which is just $hat{f}(xi)=(2pi)^{d/2} f(xi)$.
– rldias
Nov 20 at 23:50
For any $dgeq 1$ you will get $$hat{f}(xi)=f(xi)int_{mathbb{R}^d} e^{-|y|^2/2} {rm d}mu(y)$$ which is just $hat{f}(xi)=(2pi)^{d/2} f(xi)$.
– rldias
Nov 20 at 23:50
Actually the fourth equality requires complex analysis which is not allowed in this task.
– Arjihad
Nov 21 at 15:53
Actually the fourth equality requires complex analysis which is not allowed in this task.
– Arjihad
Nov 21 at 15:53
add a comment |
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