Hardy Littlewood maximal function $|h(x)|<|h^*(x)|$ for almost every x
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Suppose $h: Bbb R to : Bbb R$; Hardy Littlewood maximal function $h^*: Bbb R to [0, infty]$ defined by $h^*(x)=sup_{t>0}frac 1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t}|h|$.
Now to prove $|h(x)|leq|h^*(x)|$ for almost every $x in Bbb R$
I am thinking that I have to use Lebesgue differentiation theorem, first version that states "Suppose $fin L^{1}Bbb R$. Then
$lim_{ t to 0}frac 1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t}|f-f(b)|=0$ for all most all $b in Bbb R$.
My attempt: $||h(x)|-|h^*(x)||leq |h(x)-h^*(x)|=|h(x)-sup_{t>0}frac 1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t}|h(y)|dy|leq sup_{t>0}frac 1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t}|h(x)-h(y)|dy=0$ for almost every $x$. So, we get $|h(x)|leq h^*(x)$ for allmost every $x$.
Is my attempt coorect or is there any other way to approach? Please help
real-analysis integration measure-theory lebesgue-integral lebesgue-measure
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Suppose $h: Bbb R to : Bbb R$; Hardy Littlewood maximal function $h^*: Bbb R to [0, infty]$ defined by $h^*(x)=sup_{t>0}frac 1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t}|h|$.
Now to prove $|h(x)|leq|h^*(x)|$ for almost every $x in Bbb R$
I am thinking that I have to use Lebesgue differentiation theorem, first version that states "Suppose $fin L^{1}Bbb R$. Then
$lim_{ t to 0}frac 1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t}|f-f(b)|=0$ for all most all $b in Bbb R$.
My attempt: $||h(x)|-|h^*(x)||leq |h(x)-h^*(x)|=|h(x)-sup_{t>0}frac 1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t}|h(y)|dy|leq sup_{t>0}frac 1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t}|h(x)-h(y)|dy=0$ for almost every $x$. So, we get $|h(x)|leq h^*(x)$ for allmost every $x$.
Is my attempt coorect or is there any other way to approach? Please help
real-analysis integration measure-theory lebesgue-integral lebesgue-measure
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Suppose $h: Bbb R to : Bbb R$; Hardy Littlewood maximal function $h^*: Bbb R to [0, infty]$ defined by $h^*(x)=sup_{t>0}frac 1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t}|h|$.
Now to prove $|h(x)|leq|h^*(x)|$ for almost every $x in Bbb R$
I am thinking that I have to use Lebesgue differentiation theorem, first version that states "Suppose $fin L^{1}Bbb R$. Then
$lim_{ t to 0}frac 1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t}|f-f(b)|=0$ for all most all $b in Bbb R$.
My attempt: $||h(x)|-|h^*(x)||leq |h(x)-h^*(x)|=|h(x)-sup_{t>0}frac 1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t}|h(y)|dy|leq sup_{t>0}frac 1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t}|h(x)-h(y)|dy=0$ for almost every $x$. So, we get $|h(x)|leq h^*(x)$ for allmost every $x$.
Is my attempt coorect or is there any other way to approach? Please help
real-analysis integration measure-theory lebesgue-integral lebesgue-measure
Suppose $h: Bbb R to : Bbb R$; Hardy Littlewood maximal function $h^*: Bbb R to [0, infty]$ defined by $h^*(x)=sup_{t>0}frac 1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t}|h|$.
Now to prove $|h(x)|leq|h^*(x)|$ for almost every $x in Bbb R$
I am thinking that I have to use Lebesgue differentiation theorem, first version that states "Suppose $fin L^{1}Bbb R$. Then
$lim_{ t to 0}frac 1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t}|f-f(b)|=0$ for all most all $b in Bbb R$.
My attempt: $||h(x)|-|h^*(x)||leq |h(x)-h^*(x)|=|h(x)-sup_{t>0}frac 1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t}|h(y)|dy|leq sup_{t>0}frac 1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t}|h(x)-h(y)|dy=0$ for almost every $x$. So, we get $|h(x)|leq h^*(x)$ for allmost every $x$.
Is my attempt coorect or is there any other way to approach? Please help
real-analysis integration measure-theory lebesgue-integral lebesgue-measure
real-analysis integration measure-theory lebesgue-integral lebesgue-measure
asked Nov 16 at 23:25
Gimgim
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535
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1 Answer
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This version of Lebesgue differentiation, which correctly stated is
$$lim_{ t to 0}frac 1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t}|f-f(x)|=0 quad(text{a.e.} x)$$ immediately implies the weaker one ($frac1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t} f to f(x)$ a.e.) via triangle inequality
$$ left| frac1{2t} int_{x-t}^{x+t} f(y) dy - f(x)right|le lim_{ t to 0}frac 1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t}|f-f(x)|to 0$$
Therefore, for almost every $x$,
$$ |f(x)| = lim_{tto 0}frac1{2t} int_{x-t}^{x+t } |f| le sup_{t> 0} frac1{2t} int_{x-t}^{x+t } |f| = f^*(x)$$
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
This version of Lebesgue differentiation, which correctly stated is
$$lim_{ t to 0}frac 1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t}|f-f(x)|=0 quad(text{a.e.} x)$$ immediately implies the weaker one ($frac1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t} f to f(x)$ a.e.) via triangle inequality
$$ left| frac1{2t} int_{x-t}^{x+t} f(y) dy - f(x)right|le lim_{ t to 0}frac 1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t}|f-f(x)|to 0$$
Therefore, for almost every $x$,
$$ |f(x)| = lim_{tto 0}frac1{2t} int_{x-t}^{x+t } |f| le sup_{t> 0} frac1{2t} int_{x-t}^{x+t } |f| = f^*(x)$$
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
This version of Lebesgue differentiation, which correctly stated is
$$lim_{ t to 0}frac 1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t}|f-f(x)|=0 quad(text{a.e.} x)$$ immediately implies the weaker one ($frac1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t} f to f(x)$ a.e.) via triangle inequality
$$ left| frac1{2t} int_{x-t}^{x+t} f(y) dy - f(x)right|le lim_{ t to 0}frac 1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t}|f-f(x)|to 0$$
Therefore, for almost every $x$,
$$ |f(x)| = lim_{tto 0}frac1{2t} int_{x-t}^{x+t } |f| le sup_{t> 0} frac1{2t} int_{x-t}^{x+t } |f| = f^*(x)$$
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
This version of Lebesgue differentiation, which correctly stated is
$$lim_{ t to 0}frac 1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t}|f-f(x)|=0 quad(text{a.e.} x)$$ immediately implies the weaker one ($frac1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t} f to f(x)$ a.e.) via triangle inequality
$$ left| frac1{2t} int_{x-t}^{x+t} f(y) dy - f(x)right|le lim_{ t to 0}frac 1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t}|f-f(x)|to 0$$
Therefore, for almost every $x$,
$$ |f(x)| = lim_{tto 0}frac1{2t} int_{x-t}^{x+t } |f| le sup_{t> 0} frac1{2t} int_{x-t}^{x+t } |f| = f^*(x)$$
This version of Lebesgue differentiation, which correctly stated is
$$lim_{ t to 0}frac 1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t}|f-f(x)|=0 quad(text{a.e.} x)$$ immediately implies the weaker one ($frac1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t} f to f(x)$ a.e.) via triangle inequality
$$ left| frac1{2t} int_{x-t}^{x+t} f(y) dy - f(x)right|le lim_{ t to 0}frac 1{2t}int_{x-t}^{x+t}|f-f(x)|to 0$$
Therefore, for almost every $x$,
$$ |f(x)| = lim_{tto 0}frac1{2t} int_{x-t}^{x+t } |f| le sup_{t> 0} frac1{2t} int_{x-t}^{x+t } |f| = f^*(x)$$
answered Nov 17 at 10:07
Calvin Khor
10.6k21436
10.6k21436
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