Theorem on abelian groups when the factor is free











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Lemma: Suppose that factor group $A/B=bigoplus limits_{i=1}^{n}(A_i/B)$ - direct sum, where $B$ - direct addend in
each subgroup $A_i$, i.e. $A_i=Boplus J_i$. Then
$$A=Boplusleft(bigopluslimits_{i=1}^{n}J_i right).$$



Theorem: Suppose that $A$ - abelian group, $B$ - subgroup of $A$. If the factor group $A/B$ is free then $A$ is direct sum of $B$ and
free group $F^{ab}$, i.e. $A=Boplus F^{ab}.$



Proof: Since $A/B$ - direct sum of infinite cyclic groups, then by lemma it is enough to consider the case when $A/Bcong
mathbb{Z}$
. Thus, $A/B=langle bar{a}rangle cong mathbb{Z}.$
Taking $0neq a_0in bar{a}$ (element of coset $bar{a}$, which does
not lie in $B$). Then elements $ka_0$ be representatives of cosets
$kbar{a}$, $k=0,pm 1,pm 2,dots,$ i.e. $A=Boplus langle a_0rangle
$
.




Let me ask you some questions which I was not able to answer by myself, please.



1) I spent some time in order to understand why it suffices to consider the case when $A/Bcong mathbb{Z}$? How the lemma 4 is applied here? I mean since $A/B$ is free then $A/B=bigopluslimits_{i=1}^{n}a_imathbb{Z}$ but I am not able to understand what is $A_i, B$ and $J_i$ here with respect to the notations of lemma ?



2) I have shown that $A=B+langle a_0rangle$. But how to show that the sum is direct? In other words, $Bcap langle a_0rangle={0}$? Suppose that $x$ lies in the intersection then $x=ka_0=b$ but I don't know what to do next?



I would be very grateful for help! I have spent some hours trying to write down everything accurately but nothing.



EDIT: Possible answer to question 2. We have shown that $A=B+langle a_0rangle$. In order to show that the sum is direct we have to show that $Bcaplangle a_0rangle={0}$. Suppose $xin Bcaplangle a_0rangle$ then $x=b=ka_0$ and since $a_0in bar{a}=a+B$ then $a_0=a+b'$ where $b'in B$ then from $b=ka_0$ we have $b=ka+kb'$ hence $b'':=b-kb'=ka$ i.e. $kain B$ but since $bar{a}=a+B$ has order infinite order then $k=0$. Thus $x=0$. Right?










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    Lemma: Suppose that factor group $A/B=bigoplus limits_{i=1}^{n}(A_i/B)$ - direct sum, where $B$ - direct addend in
    each subgroup $A_i$, i.e. $A_i=Boplus J_i$. Then
    $$A=Boplusleft(bigopluslimits_{i=1}^{n}J_i right).$$



    Theorem: Suppose that $A$ - abelian group, $B$ - subgroup of $A$. If the factor group $A/B$ is free then $A$ is direct sum of $B$ and
    free group $F^{ab}$, i.e. $A=Boplus F^{ab}.$



    Proof: Since $A/B$ - direct sum of infinite cyclic groups, then by lemma it is enough to consider the case when $A/Bcong
    mathbb{Z}$
    . Thus, $A/B=langle bar{a}rangle cong mathbb{Z}.$
    Taking $0neq a_0in bar{a}$ (element of coset $bar{a}$, which does
    not lie in $B$). Then elements $ka_0$ be representatives of cosets
    $kbar{a}$, $k=0,pm 1,pm 2,dots,$ i.e. $A=Boplus langle a_0rangle
    $
    .




    Let me ask you some questions which I was not able to answer by myself, please.



    1) I spent some time in order to understand why it suffices to consider the case when $A/Bcong mathbb{Z}$? How the lemma 4 is applied here? I mean since $A/B$ is free then $A/B=bigopluslimits_{i=1}^{n}a_imathbb{Z}$ but I am not able to understand what is $A_i, B$ and $J_i$ here with respect to the notations of lemma ?



    2) I have shown that $A=B+langle a_0rangle$. But how to show that the sum is direct? In other words, $Bcap langle a_0rangle={0}$? Suppose that $x$ lies in the intersection then $x=ka_0=b$ but I don't know what to do next?



    I would be very grateful for help! I have spent some hours trying to write down everything accurately but nothing.



    EDIT: Possible answer to question 2. We have shown that $A=B+langle a_0rangle$. In order to show that the sum is direct we have to show that $Bcaplangle a_0rangle={0}$. Suppose $xin Bcaplangle a_0rangle$ then $x=b=ka_0$ and since $a_0in bar{a}=a+B$ then $a_0=a+b'$ where $b'in B$ then from $b=ka_0$ we have $b=ka+kb'$ hence $b'':=b-kb'=ka$ i.e. $kain B$ but since $bar{a}=a+B$ has order infinite order then $k=0$. Thus $x=0$. Right?










    share|cite|improve this question


























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      Lemma: Suppose that factor group $A/B=bigoplus limits_{i=1}^{n}(A_i/B)$ - direct sum, where $B$ - direct addend in
      each subgroup $A_i$, i.e. $A_i=Boplus J_i$. Then
      $$A=Boplusleft(bigopluslimits_{i=1}^{n}J_i right).$$



      Theorem: Suppose that $A$ - abelian group, $B$ - subgroup of $A$. If the factor group $A/B$ is free then $A$ is direct sum of $B$ and
      free group $F^{ab}$, i.e. $A=Boplus F^{ab}.$



      Proof: Since $A/B$ - direct sum of infinite cyclic groups, then by lemma it is enough to consider the case when $A/Bcong
      mathbb{Z}$
      . Thus, $A/B=langle bar{a}rangle cong mathbb{Z}.$
      Taking $0neq a_0in bar{a}$ (element of coset $bar{a}$, which does
      not lie in $B$). Then elements $ka_0$ be representatives of cosets
      $kbar{a}$, $k=0,pm 1,pm 2,dots,$ i.e. $A=Boplus langle a_0rangle
      $
      .




      Let me ask you some questions which I was not able to answer by myself, please.



      1) I spent some time in order to understand why it suffices to consider the case when $A/Bcong mathbb{Z}$? How the lemma 4 is applied here? I mean since $A/B$ is free then $A/B=bigopluslimits_{i=1}^{n}a_imathbb{Z}$ but I am not able to understand what is $A_i, B$ and $J_i$ here with respect to the notations of lemma ?



      2) I have shown that $A=B+langle a_0rangle$. But how to show that the sum is direct? In other words, $Bcap langle a_0rangle={0}$? Suppose that $x$ lies in the intersection then $x=ka_0=b$ but I don't know what to do next?



      I would be very grateful for help! I have spent some hours trying to write down everything accurately but nothing.



      EDIT: Possible answer to question 2. We have shown that $A=B+langle a_0rangle$. In order to show that the sum is direct we have to show that $Bcaplangle a_0rangle={0}$. Suppose $xin Bcaplangle a_0rangle$ then $x=b=ka_0$ and since $a_0in bar{a}=a+B$ then $a_0=a+b'$ where $b'in B$ then from $b=ka_0$ we have $b=ka+kb'$ hence $b'':=b-kb'=ka$ i.e. $kain B$ but since $bar{a}=a+B$ has order infinite order then $k=0$. Thus $x=0$. Right?










      share|cite|improve this question
















      Lemma: Suppose that factor group $A/B=bigoplus limits_{i=1}^{n}(A_i/B)$ - direct sum, where $B$ - direct addend in
      each subgroup $A_i$, i.e. $A_i=Boplus J_i$. Then
      $$A=Boplusleft(bigopluslimits_{i=1}^{n}J_i right).$$



      Theorem: Suppose that $A$ - abelian group, $B$ - subgroup of $A$. If the factor group $A/B$ is free then $A$ is direct sum of $B$ and
      free group $F^{ab}$, i.e. $A=Boplus F^{ab}.$



      Proof: Since $A/B$ - direct sum of infinite cyclic groups, then by lemma it is enough to consider the case when $A/Bcong
      mathbb{Z}$
      . Thus, $A/B=langle bar{a}rangle cong mathbb{Z}.$
      Taking $0neq a_0in bar{a}$ (element of coset $bar{a}$, which does
      not lie in $B$). Then elements $ka_0$ be representatives of cosets
      $kbar{a}$, $k=0,pm 1,pm 2,dots,$ i.e. $A=Boplus langle a_0rangle
      $
      .




      Let me ask you some questions which I was not able to answer by myself, please.



      1) I spent some time in order to understand why it suffices to consider the case when $A/Bcong mathbb{Z}$? How the lemma 4 is applied here? I mean since $A/B$ is free then $A/B=bigopluslimits_{i=1}^{n}a_imathbb{Z}$ but I am not able to understand what is $A_i, B$ and $J_i$ here with respect to the notations of lemma ?



      2) I have shown that $A=B+langle a_0rangle$. But how to show that the sum is direct? In other words, $Bcap langle a_0rangle={0}$? Suppose that $x$ lies in the intersection then $x=ka_0=b$ but I don't know what to do next?



      I would be very grateful for help! I have spent some hours trying to write down everything accurately but nothing.



      EDIT: Possible answer to question 2. We have shown that $A=B+langle a_0rangle$. In order to show that the sum is direct we have to show that $Bcaplangle a_0rangle={0}$. Suppose $xin Bcaplangle a_0rangle$ then $x=b=ka_0$ and since $a_0in bar{a}=a+B$ then $a_0=a+b'$ where $b'in B$ then from $b=ka_0$ we have $b=ka+kb'$ hence $b'':=b-kb'=ka$ i.e. $kain B$ but since $bar{a}=a+B$ has order infinite order then $k=0$. Thus $x=0$. Right?







      group-theory






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      edited Nov 18 at 3:09

























      asked Nov 17 at 23:53









      ZFR

      4,89831337




      4,89831337






















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          Elements of $A/B$ are cosets. In lemma we suppose that we can write all these cosets as direct sum of $A_{i} / B$, where $A_{i}$ is a subgroup of $A$ and $A_{i}$ has $B$ as a direct summand. This is applied to the situation in theorem as follows:



          $,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,, A / B = bigopluslimits_{i=1}^{n}mathbb{Z}$ (here we keep in mind that copies of $mathbb{Z}$ are numerated)



          $,,,,,,$It is enough to find $A_{i}$ as in lemma with $A_{i} = mathbb{Z} oplus B$. But now we can restrict ourselves to the case $pi^{-1}(mathbb{Z}) / B cong mathbb{Z}$, where $pi: A to A / B$ is a canonical projection and $mathbb{Z}$ is the $i$-th copy of $mathbb{Z}$ in $A / B$. This way we can find $A_{i}$ separatly. So this was the reduction to the case $A / B = mathbb{Z}$.



          $,,,,,,$About your second question: $ka_{0}$ is a representative of a coset $kB$ in $mathbb{Z} = A / B$, so it is in $B$ only for $k = 0$, meaning that $langle a_0rangle cap B = lbrace 0rbrace$.






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            Elements of $A/B$ are cosets. In lemma we suppose that we can write all these cosets as direct sum of $A_{i} / B$, where $A_{i}$ is a subgroup of $A$ and $A_{i}$ has $B$ as a direct summand. This is applied to the situation in theorem as follows:



            $,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,, A / B = bigopluslimits_{i=1}^{n}mathbb{Z}$ (here we keep in mind that copies of $mathbb{Z}$ are numerated)



            $,,,,,,$It is enough to find $A_{i}$ as in lemma with $A_{i} = mathbb{Z} oplus B$. But now we can restrict ourselves to the case $pi^{-1}(mathbb{Z}) / B cong mathbb{Z}$, where $pi: A to A / B$ is a canonical projection and $mathbb{Z}$ is the $i$-th copy of $mathbb{Z}$ in $A / B$. This way we can find $A_{i}$ separatly. So this was the reduction to the case $A / B = mathbb{Z}$.



            $,,,,,,$About your second question: $ka_{0}$ is a representative of a coset $kB$ in $mathbb{Z} = A / B$, so it is in $B$ only for $k = 0$, meaning that $langle a_0rangle cap B = lbrace 0rbrace$.






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              Elements of $A/B$ are cosets. In lemma we suppose that we can write all these cosets as direct sum of $A_{i} / B$, where $A_{i}$ is a subgroup of $A$ and $A_{i}$ has $B$ as a direct summand. This is applied to the situation in theorem as follows:



              $,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,, A / B = bigopluslimits_{i=1}^{n}mathbb{Z}$ (here we keep in mind that copies of $mathbb{Z}$ are numerated)



              $,,,,,,$It is enough to find $A_{i}$ as in lemma with $A_{i} = mathbb{Z} oplus B$. But now we can restrict ourselves to the case $pi^{-1}(mathbb{Z}) / B cong mathbb{Z}$, where $pi: A to A / B$ is a canonical projection and $mathbb{Z}$ is the $i$-th copy of $mathbb{Z}$ in $A / B$. This way we can find $A_{i}$ separatly. So this was the reduction to the case $A / B = mathbb{Z}$.



              $,,,,,,$About your second question: $ka_{0}$ is a representative of a coset $kB$ in $mathbb{Z} = A / B$, so it is in $B$ only for $k = 0$, meaning that $langle a_0rangle cap B = lbrace 0rbrace$.






              share|cite|improve this answer























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                up vote
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                Elements of $A/B$ are cosets. In lemma we suppose that we can write all these cosets as direct sum of $A_{i} / B$, where $A_{i}$ is a subgroup of $A$ and $A_{i}$ has $B$ as a direct summand. This is applied to the situation in theorem as follows:



                $,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,, A / B = bigopluslimits_{i=1}^{n}mathbb{Z}$ (here we keep in mind that copies of $mathbb{Z}$ are numerated)



                $,,,,,,$It is enough to find $A_{i}$ as in lemma with $A_{i} = mathbb{Z} oplus B$. But now we can restrict ourselves to the case $pi^{-1}(mathbb{Z}) / B cong mathbb{Z}$, where $pi: A to A / B$ is a canonical projection and $mathbb{Z}$ is the $i$-th copy of $mathbb{Z}$ in $A / B$. This way we can find $A_{i}$ separatly. So this was the reduction to the case $A / B = mathbb{Z}$.



                $,,,,,,$About your second question: $ka_{0}$ is a representative of a coset $kB$ in $mathbb{Z} = A / B$, so it is in $B$ only for $k = 0$, meaning that $langle a_0rangle cap B = lbrace 0rbrace$.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                Elements of $A/B$ are cosets. In lemma we suppose that we can write all these cosets as direct sum of $A_{i} / B$, where $A_{i}$ is a subgroup of $A$ and $A_{i}$ has $B$ as a direct summand. This is applied to the situation in theorem as follows:



                $,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,, A / B = bigopluslimits_{i=1}^{n}mathbb{Z}$ (here we keep in mind that copies of $mathbb{Z}$ are numerated)



                $,,,,,,$It is enough to find $A_{i}$ as in lemma with $A_{i} = mathbb{Z} oplus B$. But now we can restrict ourselves to the case $pi^{-1}(mathbb{Z}) / B cong mathbb{Z}$, where $pi: A to A / B$ is a canonical projection and $mathbb{Z}$ is the $i$-th copy of $mathbb{Z}$ in $A / B$. This way we can find $A_{i}$ separatly. So this was the reduction to the case $A / B = mathbb{Z}$.



                $,,,,,,$About your second question: $ka_{0}$ is a representative of a coset $kB$ in $mathbb{Z} = A / B$, so it is in $B$ only for $k = 0$, meaning that $langle a_0rangle cap B = lbrace 0rbrace$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












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                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Nov 18 at 12:20









                Rybin Dmitry

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