Are projective measurement bases always orthonormal?











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Are projective measurement bases always orthonormal?










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  • Related: What is the difference between general measurement and projective measurement? & Wikipedia: POVM
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Are projective measurement bases always orthonormal?










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  • Related: What is the difference between general measurement and projective measurement? & Wikipedia: POVM
    – Blue
    18 mins ago















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Are projective measurement bases always orthonormal?










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Are projective measurement bases always orthonormal?







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edited 36 mins ago









Blue

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  • Related: What is the difference between general measurement and projective measurement? & Wikipedia: POVM
    – Blue
    18 mins ago




















  • Related: What is the difference between general measurement and projective measurement? & Wikipedia: POVM
    – Blue
    18 mins ago


















Related: What is the difference between general measurement and projective measurement? & Wikipedia: POVM
– Blue
18 mins ago






Related: What is the difference between general measurement and projective measurement? & Wikipedia: POVM
– Blue
18 mins ago












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Yes.



Remember that you require several properties including $P_i^2=P_i$ and
$$
sum_iP_i=mathbb{I}.
$$

The first of these show you that the $P_i$ have eigenvalues 0 and 1. Now take a $|phirangle$ that is an eigenvalue 1 of a particular projector $P_i$.
$$
left(sum_jP_jright)|phirangle=mathbb{I}|phirangle
$$

Clearly, this simplifies to
$$
|phirangle+sum_{jneq i}P_j|phirangle=|phirangle.
$$

Hence,
$$
sum_{jneq i}P_j|phirangle=0.
$$

The $P_j$ are all non-negative, so the only way that this can be 0 is if $P_j|phirangle=0$ for all $jneq i$. (To expand upon this, assume there's a $P_k$ such that $P_k|phirangle=|psirangleneq 0$. This means that
$$
sum_{jneq i,k}langlepsi|P_j|phirangle=-langlepsi|P_k|phirangle,
$$

so some terms must be negative, which is impossible if the eigenvalues are all 0 and 1.)






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    1 Answer
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    down vote













    Yes.



    Remember that you require several properties including $P_i^2=P_i$ and
    $$
    sum_iP_i=mathbb{I}.
    $$

    The first of these show you that the $P_i$ have eigenvalues 0 and 1. Now take a $|phirangle$ that is an eigenvalue 1 of a particular projector $P_i$.
    $$
    left(sum_jP_jright)|phirangle=mathbb{I}|phirangle
    $$

    Clearly, this simplifies to
    $$
    |phirangle+sum_{jneq i}P_j|phirangle=|phirangle.
    $$

    Hence,
    $$
    sum_{jneq i}P_j|phirangle=0.
    $$

    The $P_j$ are all non-negative, so the only way that this can be 0 is if $P_j|phirangle=0$ for all $jneq i$. (To expand upon this, assume there's a $P_k$ such that $P_k|phirangle=|psirangleneq 0$. This means that
    $$
    sum_{jneq i,k}langlepsi|P_j|phirangle=-langlepsi|P_k|phirangle,
    $$

    so some terms must be negative, which is impossible if the eigenvalues are all 0 and 1.)






    share|improve this answer

























      up vote
      2
      down vote













      Yes.



      Remember that you require several properties including $P_i^2=P_i$ and
      $$
      sum_iP_i=mathbb{I}.
      $$

      The first of these show you that the $P_i$ have eigenvalues 0 and 1. Now take a $|phirangle$ that is an eigenvalue 1 of a particular projector $P_i$.
      $$
      left(sum_jP_jright)|phirangle=mathbb{I}|phirangle
      $$

      Clearly, this simplifies to
      $$
      |phirangle+sum_{jneq i}P_j|phirangle=|phirangle.
      $$

      Hence,
      $$
      sum_{jneq i}P_j|phirangle=0.
      $$

      The $P_j$ are all non-negative, so the only way that this can be 0 is if $P_j|phirangle=0$ for all $jneq i$. (To expand upon this, assume there's a $P_k$ such that $P_k|phirangle=|psirangleneq 0$. This means that
      $$
      sum_{jneq i,k}langlepsi|P_j|phirangle=-langlepsi|P_k|phirangle,
      $$

      so some terms must be negative, which is impossible if the eigenvalues are all 0 and 1.)






      share|improve this answer























        up vote
        2
        down vote










        up vote
        2
        down vote









        Yes.



        Remember that you require several properties including $P_i^2=P_i$ and
        $$
        sum_iP_i=mathbb{I}.
        $$

        The first of these show you that the $P_i$ have eigenvalues 0 and 1. Now take a $|phirangle$ that is an eigenvalue 1 of a particular projector $P_i$.
        $$
        left(sum_jP_jright)|phirangle=mathbb{I}|phirangle
        $$

        Clearly, this simplifies to
        $$
        |phirangle+sum_{jneq i}P_j|phirangle=|phirangle.
        $$

        Hence,
        $$
        sum_{jneq i}P_j|phirangle=0.
        $$

        The $P_j$ are all non-negative, so the only way that this can be 0 is if $P_j|phirangle=0$ for all $jneq i$. (To expand upon this, assume there's a $P_k$ such that $P_k|phirangle=|psirangleneq 0$. This means that
        $$
        sum_{jneq i,k}langlepsi|P_j|phirangle=-langlepsi|P_k|phirangle,
        $$

        so some terms must be negative, which is impossible if the eigenvalues are all 0 and 1.)






        share|improve this answer












        Yes.



        Remember that you require several properties including $P_i^2=P_i$ and
        $$
        sum_iP_i=mathbb{I}.
        $$

        The first of these show you that the $P_i$ have eigenvalues 0 and 1. Now take a $|phirangle$ that is an eigenvalue 1 of a particular projector $P_i$.
        $$
        left(sum_jP_jright)|phirangle=mathbb{I}|phirangle
        $$

        Clearly, this simplifies to
        $$
        |phirangle+sum_{jneq i}P_j|phirangle=|phirangle.
        $$

        Hence,
        $$
        sum_{jneq i}P_j|phirangle=0.
        $$

        The $P_j$ are all non-negative, so the only way that this can be 0 is if $P_j|phirangle=0$ for all $jneq i$. (To expand upon this, assume there's a $P_k$ such that $P_k|phirangle=|psirangleneq 0$. This means that
        $$
        sum_{jneq i,k}langlepsi|P_j|phirangle=-langlepsi|P_k|phirangle,
        $$

        so some terms must be negative, which is impossible if the eigenvalues are all 0 and 1.)







        share|improve this answer












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        answered 14 mins ago









        DaftWullie

        11.2k1536




        11.2k1536






























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