Show that $lim_{n rightarrow infty}sqrt[n]{n}=1$ using Bernoulli inequality











up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Show that $lim_limits{n rightarrow infty}sqrt[n]{n}=1$ using Bernoulli inequality



I have a hint $epsilon > 0$ and $n=ncdot epsilon/epsilon$ and I need to show $$1leq sqrt[n]{n}leq frac{1}{sqrt[n]{epsilon}}(1+epsilon)$$



What I have done so far is verifying the inequality on the left.
Also $$sqrt[n]{n}= frac{1}{sqrt[n]{epsilon}}sqrt[n]{epsilon}sqrt[n]{n}$$



Thanks for taking your time










share|cite|improve this question
























  • I think $epsilon$ can be $leq 1$ because I have proved alread the left inequality.
    – RM777
    Nov 18 at 20:43










  • Are you forced to use Bernoulli's inequality?
    – gimusi
    Nov 18 at 20:56










  • @gimusi No it was given only as a hint in the excercise but I think other Proofs would be to high for my current understanding
    – RM777
    Nov 19 at 17:54















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Show that $lim_limits{n rightarrow infty}sqrt[n]{n}=1$ using Bernoulli inequality



I have a hint $epsilon > 0$ and $n=ncdot epsilon/epsilon$ and I need to show $$1leq sqrt[n]{n}leq frac{1}{sqrt[n]{epsilon}}(1+epsilon)$$



What I have done so far is verifying the inequality on the left.
Also $$sqrt[n]{n}= frac{1}{sqrt[n]{epsilon}}sqrt[n]{epsilon}sqrt[n]{n}$$



Thanks for taking your time










share|cite|improve this question
























  • I think $epsilon$ can be $leq 1$ because I have proved alread the left inequality.
    – RM777
    Nov 18 at 20:43










  • Are you forced to use Bernoulli's inequality?
    – gimusi
    Nov 18 at 20:56










  • @gimusi No it was given only as a hint in the excercise but I think other Proofs would be to high for my current understanding
    – RM777
    Nov 19 at 17:54













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











Show that $lim_limits{n rightarrow infty}sqrt[n]{n}=1$ using Bernoulli inequality



I have a hint $epsilon > 0$ and $n=ncdot epsilon/epsilon$ and I need to show $$1leq sqrt[n]{n}leq frac{1}{sqrt[n]{epsilon}}(1+epsilon)$$



What I have done so far is verifying the inequality on the left.
Also $$sqrt[n]{n}= frac{1}{sqrt[n]{epsilon}}sqrt[n]{epsilon}sqrt[n]{n}$$



Thanks for taking your time










share|cite|improve this question















Show that $lim_limits{n rightarrow infty}sqrt[n]{n}=1$ using Bernoulli inequality



I have a hint $epsilon > 0$ and $n=ncdot epsilon/epsilon$ and I need to show $$1leq sqrt[n]{n}leq frac{1}{sqrt[n]{epsilon}}(1+epsilon)$$



What I have done so far is verifying the inequality on the left.
Also $$sqrt[n]{n}= frac{1}{sqrt[n]{epsilon}}sqrt[n]{epsilon}sqrt[n]{n}$$



Thanks for taking your time







calculus limits






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 18 at 21:39









Lorenzo B.

1,6622519




1,6622519










asked Nov 18 at 20:41









RM777

1158




1158












  • I think $epsilon$ can be $leq 1$ because I have proved alread the left inequality.
    – RM777
    Nov 18 at 20:43










  • Are you forced to use Bernoulli's inequality?
    – gimusi
    Nov 18 at 20:56










  • @gimusi No it was given only as a hint in the excercise but I think other Proofs would be to high for my current understanding
    – RM777
    Nov 19 at 17:54


















  • I think $epsilon$ can be $leq 1$ because I have proved alread the left inequality.
    – RM777
    Nov 18 at 20:43










  • Are you forced to use Bernoulli's inequality?
    – gimusi
    Nov 18 at 20:56










  • @gimusi No it was given only as a hint in the excercise but I think other Proofs would be to high for my current understanding
    – RM777
    Nov 19 at 17:54
















I think $epsilon$ can be $leq 1$ because I have proved alread the left inequality.
– RM777
Nov 18 at 20:43




I think $epsilon$ can be $leq 1$ because I have proved alread the left inequality.
– RM777
Nov 18 at 20:43












Are you forced to use Bernoulli's inequality?
– gimusi
Nov 18 at 20:56




Are you forced to use Bernoulli's inequality?
– gimusi
Nov 18 at 20:56












@gimusi No it was given only as a hint in the excercise but I think other Proofs would be to high for my current understanding
– RM777
Nov 19 at 17:54




@gimusi No it was given only as a hint in the excercise but I think other Proofs would be to high for my current understanding
– RM777
Nov 19 at 17:54










5 Answers
5






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
3
down vote













$(1+frac1{sqrt{n}})^n
ge 1+frac{n}{sqrt{n}}
gt n^{1/2}
$
.



Raising to the $2/n$ power,
$n^{1/n}
=(n^{1/2})^{2/n}
lt ((1+frac1{sqrt{n}})^n)^{2/n}
= (1+frac1{sqrt{n}})^2
=1+frac{2}{sqrt{n}}+frac1{n}
lt 1+frac{3}{sqrt{n}}
to 1
$
.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Why is $ 1+frac{n}{sqrt{n}} gt n^{1/2} $?
    – RM777
    Nov 19 at 17:50












  • $frac{n}{n^{frac{1}{2}}}=frac{n^{frac{1}{2}}n^{frac{1}{2}}}{n^{frac{1}{2}}}=n^{frac{1}{2}}$ I don't think this is what they had in mind, when they gave the hint, but i have to admit, that it is by far the shortest solution.
    – Martin Erhardt
    Nov 19 at 19:53




















up vote
2
down vote













This is how you are taking advantage of Bernoulli in order to obtain the second inequality:



$frac{(1+epsilon)^n}{epsilon}overset{Bernoulli}{geq} frac{1+nepsilon}{epsilon} = frac{1}{epsilon}+n geq n Rightarrowfrac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}} geq n^{frac{1}{n}}$



Note that: $$lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}left (lim_{nrightarrowinfty}left (frac{1}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}+frac{epsilon}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}right ) right )=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}left (lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{1}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{epsilon}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}} right)$$ $$=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}(lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}})=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}(1+epsilon)=1$$
$lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}=1$ because of $epsilon$ being a constant.



To conclude:
$1=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}} geq lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}n^{frac{1}{n}}=lim_{nrightarrowinfty}n^{frac{1}{n}}$






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Substitute $lim_{epsilon rightarrow 0}$ with $lim_{k rightarrow infty}$, $epsilon$ with $k^{-1}$ and the proof would still be correct. Just in case you are not familiar with this notion your in lecture.
    – Martin Erhardt
    Nov 18 at 21:59










  • why epsillon goes to $0$?
    – RM777
    Nov 19 at 18:01










  • Also the line where you say $lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}(lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}})=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}(1+epsilon)=1 $ , how do you get first equality in particular $lim_{nrightarrow infty} epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}}$?
    – RM777
    Nov 19 at 18:09










  • Suppose I have already proved $lim_{nrightarrow infty} sqrt[n]a = 1 , a in (0,1)$. Can this help to make it easier?
    – RM777
    Nov 19 at 18:35












  • Let me simply link you to math.stackexchange.com/a/488042/254056 . The cases $a in (0,1).a in [1,∞)$ are basically the same. I suppose you can just assume it is known even though the proof is not long.
    – Martin Erhardt
    Nov 19 at 19:30


















up vote
1
down vote













You can prove it like that: $(sqrt n)^{1/n}=1+k_n$
Where $k_n$ is some positive number depending on $n$



Then $sqrt n =(1+k_n)^n geq nk_n$-Bernoulli



So $k_n leq sqrt n/n =1/sqrt n$



And then $1 leq n^{1/n} =(1+k_n)^2=1+2k_n+k_n^2<1+2/sqrt n + 1/n$



And you get what you need using squeeze theorem






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • You introduced an extra square root for no reason.
    – Trevor Gunn
    Nov 18 at 21:44


















up vote
1
down vote













Option.



$x ge 0.$



$(star)$ $(1+x)^n gt (n^2/4)x^2$.



$x=2/√n.$



$(1+2/√n)^n gt n$



$1+2/√n gt n^{1/n} gt 1.$



Proof of $(star).$



$(1+x)^n ge n(n-1)x^2/2...gt$



$(n^2/4)x^2,$ since for $n >2$:



$(n-1) > n/2$.






share|cite|improve this answer




























    up vote
    1
    down vote













    As shown in this answer, using Bernoulli's Inequality, $left(1+frac1nright)^{n+1}$ is decreasing.



    Thus, for $nge1$,
    $$
    begin{align}
    frac{(n+1)^n}{n^{n+1}}
    &=frac1{n+1}left(1+frac1nright)^{n+1}\
    &lefrac4{n+1}
    end{align}
    $$

    Therefore, for $nge3$,
    $$
    begin{align}
    frac{(n+1)^{frac1{n+1}}}{n^{frac1n}}
    &=left(frac{(n+1)^n}{n^{n+1}}right)^{frac1{n(n+1)}}\
    &leleft(frac4{n+1}right)^{frac1{n(n+1)}}\[12pt]
    &le1
    end{align}
    $$

    Thus, for $nge3$, $n^{1/n}$ is decreasing and bounded below by $1$. Therefore, $limlimits_{ntoinfty}n^{1/n}$ exists and is no less than $1$.



    Let $alpha=limlimits_{ntoinfty}n^{1/n}$, then
    $$
    begin{align}
    alpha
    &=lim_{ntoinfty}n^{frac1n}\
    &=lim_{ntoinfty}(2n)^{frac1{2n}}\
    &=lim_{ntoinfty}2^{frac1{2n}}lim_{ntoinfty}n^{frac1{2n}}\[3pt]
    &=1cdotsqrt{alpha}
    end{align}
    $$

    Since $alphage1$ and $alpha=sqrt{alpha}$, we get
    $$
    begin{align}
    lim_{ntoinfty}n^{frac1n}
    &=alpha\
    &=1
    end{align}
    $$






    share|cite|improve this answer





















      Your Answer





      StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
      return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
      StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
      StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
      });
      });
      }, "mathjax-editing");

      StackExchange.ready(function() {
      var channelOptions = {
      tags: "".split(" "),
      id: "69"
      };
      initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

      StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
      // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
      if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
      StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
      createEditor();
      });
      }
      else {
      createEditor();
      }
      });

      function createEditor() {
      StackExchange.prepareEditor({
      heartbeatType: 'answer',
      convertImagesToLinks: true,
      noModals: true,
      showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
      reputationToPostImages: 10,
      bindNavPrevention: true,
      postfix: "",
      imageUploader: {
      brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
      contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
      allowUrls: true
      },
      noCode: true, onDemand: true,
      discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
      ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
      });


      }
      });














      draft saved

      draft discarded


















      StackExchange.ready(
      function () {
      StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3004091%2fshow-that-lim-n-rightarrow-infty-sqrtnn-1-using-bernoulli-inequality%23new-answer', 'question_page');
      }
      );

      Post as a guest















      Required, but never shown

























      5 Answers
      5






      active

      oldest

      votes








      5 Answers
      5






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      3
      down vote













      $(1+frac1{sqrt{n}})^n
      ge 1+frac{n}{sqrt{n}}
      gt n^{1/2}
      $
      .



      Raising to the $2/n$ power,
      $n^{1/n}
      =(n^{1/2})^{2/n}
      lt ((1+frac1{sqrt{n}})^n)^{2/n}
      = (1+frac1{sqrt{n}})^2
      =1+frac{2}{sqrt{n}}+frac1{n}
      lt 1+frac{3}{sqrt{n}}
      to 1
      $
      .






      share|cite|improve this answer





















      • Why is $ 1+frac{n}{sqrt{n}} gt n^{1/2} $?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 17:50












      • $frac{n}{n^{frac{1}{2}}}=frac{n^{frac{1}{2}}n^{frac{1}{2}}}{n^{frac{1}{2}}}=n^{frac{1}{2}}$ I don't think this is what they had in mind, when they gave the hint, but i have to admit, that it is by far the shortest solution.
        – Martin Erhardt
        Nov 19 at 19:53

















      up vote
      3
      down vote













      $(1+frac1{sqrt{n}})^n
      ge 1+frac{n}{sqrt{n}}
      gt n^{1/2}
      $
      .



      Raising to the $2/n$ power,
      $n^{1/n}
      =(n^{1/2})^{2/n}
      lt ((1+frac1{sqrt{n}})^n)^{2/n}
      = (1+frac1{sqrt{n}})^2
      =1+frac{2}{sqrt{n}}+frac1{n}
      lt 1+frac{3}{sqrt{n}}
      to 1
      $
      .






      share|cite|improve this answer





















      • Why is $ 1+frac{n}{sqrt{n}} gt n^{1/2} $?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 17:50












      • $frac{n}{n^{frac{1}{2}}}=frac{n^{frac{1}{2}}n^{frac{1}{2}}}{n^{frac{1}{2}}}=n^{frac{1}{2}}$ I don't think this is what they had in mind, when they gave the hint, but i have to admit, that it is by far the shortest solution.
        – Martin Erhardt
        Nov 19 at 19:53















      up vote
      3
      down vote










      up vote
      3
      down vote









      $(1+frac1{sqrt{n}})^n
      ge 1+frac{n}{sqrt{n}}
      gt n^{1/2}
      $
      .



      Raising to the $2/n$ power,
      $n^{1/n}
      =(n^{1/2})^{2/n}
      lt ((1+frac1{sqrt{n}})^n)^{2/n}
      = (1+frac1{sqrt{n}})^2
      =1+frac{2}{sqrt{n}}+frac1{n}
      lt 1+frac{3}{sqrt{n}}
      to 1
      $
      .






      share|cite|improve this answer












      $(1+frac1{sqrt{n}})^n
      ge 1+frac{n}{sqrt{n}}
      gt n^{1/2}
      $
      .



      Raising to the $2/n$ power,
      $n^{1/n}
      =(n^{1/2})^{2/n}
      lt ((1+frac1{sqrt{n}})^n)^{2/n}
      = (1+frac1{sqrt{n}})^2
      =1+frac{2}{sqrt{n}}+frac1{n}
      lt 1+frac{3}{sqrt{n}}
      to 1
      $
      .







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered Nov 19 at 1:25









      marty cohen

      71.5k546123




      71.5k546123












      • Why is $ 1+frac{n}{sqrt{n}} gt n^{1/2} $?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 17:50












      • $frac{n}{n^{frac{1}{2}}}=frac{n^{frac{1}{2}}n^{frac{1}{2}}}{n^{frac{1}{2}}}=n^{frac{1}{2}}$ I don't think this is what they had in mind, when they gave the hint, but i have to admit, that it is by far the shortest solution.
        – Martin Erhardt
        Nov 19 at 19:53




















      • Why is $ 1+frac{n}{sqrt{n}} gt n^{1/2} $?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 17:50












      • $frac{n}{n^{frac{1}{2}}}=frac{n^{frac{1}{2}}n^{frac{1}{2}}}{n^{frac{1}{2}}}=n^{frac{1}{2}}$ I don't think this is what they had in mind, when they gave the hint, but i have to admit, that it is by far the shortest solution.
        – Martin Erhardt
        Nov 19 at 19:53


















      Why is $ 1+frac{n}{sqrt{n}} gt n^{1/2} $?
      – RM777
      Nov 19 at 17:50






      Why is $ 1+frac{n}{sqrt{n}} gt n^{1/2} $?
      – RM777
      Nov 19 at 17:50














      $frac{n}{n^{frac{1}{2}}}=frac{n^{frac{1}{2}}n^{frac{1}{2}}}{n^{frac{1}{2}}}=n^{frac{1}{2}}$ I don't think this is what they had in mind, when they gave the hint, but i have to admit, that it is by far the shortest solution.
      – Martin Erhardt
      Nov 19 at 19:53






      $frac{n}{n^{frac{1}{2}}}=frac{n^{frac{1}{2}}n^{frac{1}{2}}}{n^{frac{1}{2}}}=n^{frac{1}{2}}$ I don't think this is what they had in mind, when they gave the hint, but i have to admit, that it is by far the shortest solution.
      – Martin Erhardt
      Nov 19 at 19:53












      up vote
      2
      down vote













      This is how you are taking advantage of Bernoulli in order to obtain the second inequality:



      $frac{(1+epsilon)^n}{epsilon}overset{Bernoulli}{geq} frac{1+nepsilon}{epsilon} = frac{1}{epsilon}+n geq n Rightarrowfrac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}} geq n^{frac{1}{n}}$



      Note that: $$lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}left (lim_{nrightarrowinfty}left (frac{1}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}+frac{epsilon}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}right ) right )=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}left (lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{1}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{epsilon}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}} right)$$ $$=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}(lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}})=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}(1+epsilon)=1$$
      $lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}=1$ because of $epsilon$ being a constant.



      To conclude:
      $1=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}} geq lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}n^{frac{1}{n}}=lim_{nrightarrowinfty}n^{frac{1}{n}}$






      share|cite|improve this answer























      • Substitute $lim_{epsilon rightarrow 0}$ with $lim_{k rightarrow infty}$, $epsilon$ with $k^{-1}$ and the proof would still be correct. Just in case you are not familiar with this notion your in lecture.
        – Martin Erhardt
        Nov 18 at 21:59










      • why epsillon goes to $0$?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 18:01










      • Also the line where you say $lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}(lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}})=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}(1+epsilon)=1 $ , how do you get first equality in particular $lim_{nrightarrow infty} epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}}$?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 18:09










      • Suppose I have already proved $lim_{nrightarrow infty} sqrt[n]a = 1 , a in (0,1)$. Can this help to make it easier?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 18:35












      • Let me simply link you to math.stackexchange.com/a/488042/254056 . The cases $a in (0,1).a in [1,∞)$ are basically the same. I suppose you can just assume it is known even though the proof is not long.
        – Martin Erhardt
        Nov 19 at 19:30















      up vote
      2
      down vote













      This is how you are taking advantage of Bernoulli in order to obtain the second inequality:



      $frac{(1+epsilon)^n}{epsilon}overset{Bernoulli}{geq} frac{1+nepsilon}{epsilon} = frac{1}{epsilon}+n geq n Rightarrowfrac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}} geq n^{frac{1}{n}}$



      Note that: $$lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}left (lim_{nrightarrowinfty}left (frac{1}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}+frac{epsilon}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}right ) right )=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}left (lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{1}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{epsilon}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}} right)$$ $$=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}(lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}})=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}(1+epsilon)=1$$
      $lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}=1$ because of $epsilon$ being a constant.



      To conclude:
      $1=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}} geq lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}n^{frac{1}{n}}=lim_{nrightarrowinfty}n^{frac{1}{n}}$






      share|cite|improve this answer























      • Substitute $lim_{epsilon rightarrow 0}$ with $lim_{k rightarrow infty}$, $epsilon$ with $k^{-1}$ and the proof would still be correct. Just in case you are not familiar with this notion your in lecture.
        – Martin Erhardt
        Nov 18 at 21:59










      • why epsillon goes to $0$?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 18:01










      • Also the line where you say $lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}(lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}})=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}(1+epsilon)=1 $ , how do you get first equality in particular $lim_{nrightarrow infty} epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}}$?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 18:09










      • Suppose I have already proved $lim_{nrightarrow infty} sqrt[n]a = 1 , a in (0,1)$. Can this help to make it easier?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 18:35












      • Let me simply link you to math.stackexchange.com/a/488042/254056 . The cases $a in (0,1).a in [1,∞)$ are basically the same. I suppose you can just assume it is known even though the proof is not long.
        – Martin Erhardt
        Nov 19 at 19:30













      up vote
      2
      down vote










      up vote
      2
      down vote









      This is how you are taking advantage of Bernoulli in order to obtain the second inequality:



      $frac{(1+epsilon)^n}{epsilon}overset{Bernoulli}{geq} frac{1+nepsilon}{epsilon} = frac{1}{epsilon}+n geq n Rightarrowfrac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}} geq n^{frac{1}{n}}$



      Note that: $$lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}left (lim_{nrightarrowinfty}left (frac{1}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}+frac{epsilon}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}right ) right )=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}left (lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{1}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{epsilon}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}} right)$$ $$=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}(lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}})=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}(1+epsilon)=1$$
      $lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}=1$ because of $epsilon$ being a constant.



      To conclude:
      $1=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}} geq lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}n^{frac{1}{n}}=lim_{nrightarrowinfty}n^{frac{1}{n}}$






      share|cite|improve this answer














      This is how you are taking advantage of Bernoulli in order to obtain the second inequality:



      $frac{(1+epsilon)^n}{epsilon}overset{Bernoulli}{geq} frac{1+nepsilon}{epsilon} = frac{1}{epsilon}+n geq n Rightarrowfrac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}} geq n^{frac{1}{n}}$



      Note that: $$lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}left (lim_{nrightarrowinfty}left (frac{1}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}+frac{epsilon}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}right ) right )=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}left (lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{1}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{epsilon}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}} right)$$ $$=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}(lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}})=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}(1+epsilon)=1$$
      $lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}=1$ because of $epsilon$ being a constant.



      To conclude:
      $1=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}} geq lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}n^{frac{1}{n}}=lim_{nrightarrowinfty}n^{frac{1}{n}}$







      share|cite|improve this answer














      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer








      edited Nov 19 at 19:26

























      answered Nov 18 at 21:00









      Martin Erhardt

      1859




      1859












      • Substitute $lim_{epsilon rightarrow 0}$ with $lim_{k rightarrow infty}$, $epsilon$ with $k^{-1}$ and the proof would still be correct. Just in case you are not familiar with this notion your in lecture.
        – Martin Erhardt
        Nov 18 at 21:59










      • why epsillon goes to $0$?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 18:01










      • Also the line where you say $lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}(lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}})=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}(1+epsilon)=1 $ , how do you get first equality in particular $lim_{nrightarrow infty} epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}}$?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 18:09










      • Suppose I have already proved $lim_{nrightarrow infty} sqrt[n]a = 1 , a in (0,1)$. Can this help to make it easier?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 18:35












      • Let me simply link you to math.stackexchange.com/a/488042/254056 . The cases $a in (0,1).a in [1,∞)$ are basically the same. I suppose you can just assume it is known even though the proof is not long.
        – Martin Erhardt
        Nov 19 at 19:30


















      • Substitute $lim_{epsilon rightarrow 0}$ with $lim_{k rightarrow infty}$, $epsilon$ with $k^{-1}$ and the proof would still be correct. Just in case you are not familiar with this notion your in lecture.
        – Martin Erhardt
        Nov 18 at 21:59










      • why epsillon goes to $0$?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 18:01










      • Also the line where you say $lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}(lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}})=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}(1+epsilon)=1 $ , how do you get first equality in particular $lim_{nrightarrow infty} epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}}$?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 18:09










      • Suppose I have already proved $lim_{nrightarrow infty} sqrt[n]a = 1 , a in (0,1)$. Can this help to make it easier?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 18:35












      • Let me simply link you to math.stackexchange.com/a/488042/254056 . The cases $a in (0,1).a in [1,∞)$ are basically the same. I suppose you can just assume it is known even though the proof is not long.
        – Martin Erhardt
        Nov 19 at 19:30
















      Substitute $lim_{epsilon rightarrow 0}$ with $lim_{k rightarrow infty}$, $epsilon$ with $k^{-1}$ and the proof would still be correct. Just in case you are not familiar with this notion your in lecture.
      – Martin Erhardt
      Nov 18 at 21:59




      Substitute $lim_{epsilon rightarrow 0}$ with $lim_{k rightarrow infty}$, $epsilon$ with $k^{-1}$ and the proof would still be correct. Just in case you are not familiar with this notion your in lecture.
      – Martin Erhardt
      Nov 18 at 21:59












      why epsillon goes to $0$?
      – RM777
      Nov 19 at 18:01




      why epsillon goes to $0$?
      – RM777
      Nov 19 at 18:01












      Also the line where you say $lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}(lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}})=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}(1+epsilon)=1 $ , how do you get first equality in particular $lim_{nrightarrow infty} epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}}$?
      – RM777
      Nov 19 at 18:09




      Also the line where you say $lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}(lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}})=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}(1+epsilon)=1 $ , how do you get first equality in particular $lim_{nrightarrow infty} epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}}$?
      – RM777
      Nov 19 at 18:09












      Suppose I have already proved $lim_{nrightarrow infty} sqrt[n]a = 1 , a in (0,1)$. Can this help to make it easier?
      – RM777
      Nov 19 at 18:35






      Suppose I have already proved $lim_{nrightarrow infty} sqrt[n]a = 1 , a in (0,1)$. Can this help to make it easier?
      – RM777
      Nov 19 at 18:35














      Let me simply link you to math.stackexchange.com/a/488042/254056 . The cases $a in (0,1).a in [1,∞)$ are basically the same. I suppose you can just assume it is known even though the proof is not long.
      – Martin Erhardt
      Nov 19 at 19:30




      Let me simply link you to math.stackexchange.com/a/488042/254056 . The cases $a in (0,1).a in [1,∞)$ are basically the same. I suppose you can just assume it is known even though the proof is not long.
      – Martin Erhardt
      Nov 19 at 19:30










      up vote
      1
      down vote













      You can prove it like that: $(sqrt n)^{1/n}=1+k_n$
      Where $k_n$ is some positive number depending on $n$



      Then $sqrt n =(1+k_n)^n geq nk_n$-Bernoulli



      So $k_n leq sqrt n/n =1/sqrt n$



      And then $1 leq n^{1/n} =(1+k_n)^2=1+2k_n+k_n^2<1+2/sqrt n + 1/n$



      And you get what you need using squeeze theorem






      share|cite|improve this answer





















      • You introduced an extra square root for no reason.
        – Trevor Gunn
        Nov 18 at 21:44















      up vote
      1
      down vote













      You can prove it like that: $(sqrt n)^{1/n}=1+k_n$
      Where $k_n$ is some positive number depending on $n$



      Then $sqrt n =(1+k_n)^n geq nk_n$-Bernoulli



      So $k_n leq sqrt n/n =1/sqrt n$



      And then $1 leq n^{1/n} =(1+k_n)^2=1+2k_n+k_n^2<1+2/sqrt n + 1/n$



      And you get what you need using squeeze theorem






      share|cite|improve this answer





















      • You introduced an extra square root for no reason.
        – Trevor Gunn
        Nov 18 at 21:44













      up vote
      1
      down vote










      up vote
      1
      down vote









      You can prove it like that: $(sqrt n)^{1/n}=1+k_n$
      Where $k_n$ is some positive number depending on $n$



      Then $sqrt n =(1+k_n)^n geq nk_n$-Bernoulli



      So $k_n leq sqrt n/n =1/sqrt n$



      And then $1 leq n^{1/n} =(1+k_n)^2=1+2k_n+k_n^2<1+2/sqrt n + 1/n$



      And you get what you need using squeeze theorem






      share|cite|improve this answer












      You can prove it like that: $(sqrt n)^{1/n}=1+k_n$
      Where $k_n$ is some positive number depending on $n$



      Then $sqrt n =(1+k_n)^n geq nk_n$-Bernoulli



      So $k_n leq sqrt n/n =1/sqrt n$



      And then $1 leq n^{1/n} =(1+k_n)^2=1+2k_n+k_n^2<1+2/sqrt n + 1/n$



      And you get what you need using squeeze theorem







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered Nov 18 at 21:19









      Anton Zagrivin

      1257




      1257












      • You introduced an extra square root for no reason.
        – Trevor Gunn
        Nov 18 at 21:44


















      • You introduced an extra square root for no reason.
        – Trevor Gunn
        Nov 18 at 21:44
















      You introduced an extra square root for no reason.
      – Trevor Gunn
      Nov 18 at 21:44




      You introduced an extra square root for no reason.
      – Trevor Gunn
      Nov 18 at 21:44










      up vote
      1
      down vote













      Option.



      $x ge 0.$



      $(star)$ $(1+x)^n gt (n^2/4)x^2$.



      $x=2/√n.$



      $(1+2/√n)^n gt n$



      $1+2/√n gt n^{1/n} gt 1.$



      Proof of $(star).$



      $(1+x)^n ge n(n-1)x^2/2...gt$



      $(n^2/4)x^2,$ since for $n >2$:



      $(n-1) > n/2$.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        1
        down vote













        Option.



        $x ge 0.$



        $(star)$ $(1+x)^n gt (n^2/4)x^2$.



        $x=2/√n.$



        $(1+2/√n)^n gt n$



        $1+2/√n gt n^{1/n} gt 1.$



        Proof of $(star).$



        $(1+x)^n ge n(n-1)x^2/2...gt$



        $(n^2/4)x^2,$ since for $n >2$:



        $(n-1) > n/2$.






        share|cite|improve this answer























          up vote
          1
          down vote










          up vote
          1
          down vote









          Option.



          $x ge 0.$



          $(star)$ $(1+x)^n gt (n^2/4)x^2$.



          $x=2/√n.$



          $(1+2/√n)^n gt n$



          $1+2/√n gt n^{1/n} gt 1.$



          Proof of $(star).$



          $(1+x)^n ge n(n-1)x^2/2...gt$



          $(n^2/4)x^2,$ since for $n >2$:



          $(n-1) > n/2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Option.



          $x ge 0.$



          $(star)$ $(1+x)^n gt (n^2/4)x^2$.



          $x=2/√n.$



          $(1+2/√n)^n gt n$



          $1+2/√n gt n^{1/n} gt 1.$



          Proof of $(star).$



          $(1+x)^n ge n(n-1)x^2/2...gt$



          $(n^2/4)x^2,$ since for $n >2$:



          $(n-1) > n/2$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 18 at 21:54









          Peter Szilas

          10.2k2720




          10.2k2720






















              up vote
              1
              down vote













              As shown in this answer, using Bernoulli's Inequality, $left(1+frac1nright)^{n+1}$ is decreasing.



              Thus, for $nge1$,
              $$
              begin{align}
              frac{(n+1)^n}{n^{n+1}}
              &=frac1{n+1}left(1+frac1nright)^{n+1}\
              &lefrac4{n+1}
              end{align}
              $$

              Therefore, for $nge3$,
              $$
              begin{align}
              frac{(n+1)^{frac1{n+1}}}{n^{frac1n}}
              &=left(frac{(n+1)^n}{n^{n+1}}right)^{frac1{n(n+1)}}\
              &leleft(frac4{n+1}right)^{frac1{n(n+1)}}\[12pt]
              &le1
              end{align}
              $$

              Thus, for $nge3$, $n^{1/n}$ is decreasing and bounded below by $1$. Therefore, $limlimits_{ntoinfty}n^{1/n}$ exists and is no less than $1$.



              Let $alpha=limlimits_{ntoinfty}n^{1/n}$, then
              $$
              begin{align}
              alpha
              &=lim_{ntoinfty}n^{frac1n}\
              &=lim_{ntoinfty}(2n)^{frac1{2n}}\
              &=lim_{ntoinfty}2^{frac1{2n}}lim_{ntoinfty}n^{frac1{2n}}\[3pt]
              &=1cdotsqrt{alpha}
              end{align}
              $$

              Since $alphage1$ and $alpha=sqrt{alpha}$, we get
              $$
              begin{align}
              lim_{ntoinfty}n^{frac1n}
              &=alpha\
              &=1
              end{align}
              $$






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                1
                down vote













                As shown in this answer, using Bernoulli's Inequality, $left(1+frac1nright)^{n+1}$ is decreasing.



                Thus, for $nge1$,
                $$
                begin{align}
                frac{(n+1)^n}{n^{n+1}}
                &=frac1{n+1}left(1+frac1nright)^{n+1}\
                &lefrac4{n+1}
                end{align}
                $$

                Therefore, for $nge3$,
                $$
                begin{align}
                frac{(n+1)^{frac1{n+1}}}{n^{frac1n}}
                &=left(frac{(n+1)^n}{n^{n+1}}right)^{frac1{n(n+1)}}\
                &leleft(frac4{n+1}right)^{frac1{n(n+1)}}\[12pt]
                &le1
                end{align}
                $$

                Thus, for $nge3$, $n^{1/n}$ is decreasing and bounded below by $1$. Therefore, $limlimits_{ntoinfty}n^{1/n}$ exists and is no less than $1$.



                Let $alpha=limlimits_{ntoinfty}n^{1/n}$, then
                $$
                begin{align}
                alpha
                &=lim_{ntoinfty}n^{frac1n}\
                &=lim_{ntoinfty}(2n)^{frac1{2n}}\
                &=lim_{ntoinfty}2^{frac1{2n}}lim_{ntoinfty}n^{frac1{2n}}\[3pt]
                &=1cdotsqrt{alpha}
                end{align}
                $$

                Since $alphage1$ and $alpha=sqrt{alpha}$, we get
                $$
                begin{align}
                lim_{ntoinfty}n^{frac1n}
                &=alpha\
                &=1
                end{align}
                $$






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote









                  As shown in this answer, using Bernoulli's Inequality, $left(1+frac1nright)^{n+1}$ is decreasing.



                  Thus, for $nge1$,
                  $$
                  begin{align}
                  frac{(n+1)^n}{n^{n+1}}
                  &=frac1{n+1}left(1+frac1nright)^{n+1}\
                  &lefrac4{n+1}
                  end{align}
                  $$

                  Therefore, for $nge3$,
                  $$
                  begin{align}
                  frac{(n+1)^{frac1{n+1}}}{n^{frac1n}}
                  &=left(frac{(n+1)^n}{n^{n+1}}right)^{frac1{n(n+1)}}\
                  &leleft(frac4{n+1}right)^{frac1{n(n+1)}}\[12pt]
                  &le1
                  end{align}
                  $$

                  Thus, for $nge3$, $n^{1/n}$ is decreasing and bounded below by $1$. Therefore, $limlimits_{ntoinfty}n^{1/n}$ exists and is no less than $1$.



                  Let $alpha=limlimits_{ntoinfty}n^{1/n}$, then
                  $$
                  begin{align}
                  alpha
                  &=lim_{ntoinfty}n^{frac1n}\
                  &=lim_{ntoinfty}(2n)^{frac1{2n}}\
                  &=lim_{ntoinfty}2^{frac1{2n}}lim_{ntoinfty}n^{frac1{2n}}\[3pt]
                  &=1cdotsqrt{alpha}
                  end{align}
                  $$

                  Since $alphage1$ and $alpha=sqrt{alpha}$, we get
                  $$
                  begin{align}
                  lim_{ntoinfty}n^{frac1n}
                  &=alpha\
                  &=1
                  end{align}
                  $$






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  As shown in this answer, using Bernoulli's Inequality, $left(1+frac1nright)^{n+1}$ is decreasing.



                  Thus, for $nge1$,
                  $$
                  begin{align}
                  frac{(n+1)^n}{n^{n+1}}
                  &=frac1{n+1}left(1+frac1nright)^{n+1}\
                  &lefrac4{n+1}
                  end{align}
                  $$

                  Therefore, for $nge3$,
                  $$
                  begin{align}
                  frac{(n+1)^{frac1{n+1}}}{n^{frac1n}}
                  &=left(frac{(n+1)^n}{n^{n+1}}right)^{frac1{n(n+1)}}\
                  &leleft(frac4{n+1}right)^{frac1{n(n+1)}}\[12pt]
                  &le1
                  end{align}
                  $$

                  Thus, for $nge3$, $n^{1/n}$ is decreasing and bounded below by $1$. Therefore, $limlimits_{ntoinfty}n^{1/n}$ exists and is no less than $1$.



                  Let $alpha=limlimits_{ntoinfty}n^{1/n}$, then
                  $$
                  begin{align}
                  alpha
                  &=lim_{ntoinfty}n^{frac1n}\
                  &=lim_{ntoinfty}(2n)^{frac1{2n}}\
                  &=lim_{ntoinfty}2^{frac1{2n}}lim_{ntoinfty}n^{frac1{2n}}\[3pt]
                  &=1cdotsqrt{alpha}
                  end{align}
                  $$

                  Since $alphage1$ and $alpha=sqrt{alpha}$, we get
                  $$
                  begin{align}
                  lim_{ntoinfty}n^{frac1n}
                  &=alpha\
                  &=1
                  end{align}
                  $$







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Nov 18 at 23:25









                  robjohn

                  263k27301622




                  263k27301622






























                      draft saved

                      draft discarded




















































                      Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


                      • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

                      But avoid



                      • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

                      • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


                      Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


                      To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.





                      Some of your past answers have not been well-received, and you're in danger of being blocked from answering.


                      Please pay close attention to the following guidance:


                      • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

                      But avoid



                      • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

                      • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


                      To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




                      draft saved


                      draft discarded














                      StackExchange.ready(
                      function () {
                      StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3004091%2fshow-that-lim-n-rightarrow-infty-sqrtnn-1-using-bernoulli-inequality%23new-answer', 'question_page');
                      }
                      );

                      Post as a guest















                      Required, but never shown





















































                      Required, but never shown














                      Required, but never shown












                      Required, but never shown







                      Required, but never shown

































                      Required, but never shown














                      Required, but never shown












                      Required, but never shown







                      Required, but never shown







                      Popular posts from this blog

                      Le Mesnil-Réaume

                      Ida-Boy-Ed-Garten

                      web3.py web3.isConnected() returns false always