Show that $lim_{n rightarrow infty}sqrt[n]{n}=1$ using Bernoulli inequality











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Show that $lim_limits{n rightarrow infty}sqrt[n]{n}=1$ using Bernoulli inequality



I have a hint $epsilon > 0$ and $n=ncdot epsilon/epsilon$ and I need to show $$1leq sqrt[n]{n}leq frac{1}{sqrt[n]{epsilon}}(1+epsilon)$$



What I have done so far is verifying the inequality on the left.
Also $$sqrt[n]{n}= frac{1}{sqrt[n]{epsilon}}sqrt[n]{epsilon}sqrt[n]{n}$$



Thanks for taking your time










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  • I think $epsilon$ can be $leq 1$ because I have proved alread the left inequality.
    – RM777
    Nov 18 at 20:43










  • Are you forced to use Bernoulli's inequality?
    – gimusi
    Nov 18 at 20:56










  • @gimusi No it was given only as a hint in the excercise but I think other Proofs would be to high for my current understanding
    – RM777
    Nov 19 at 17:54















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Show that $lim_limits{n rightarrow infty}sqrt[n]{n}=1$ using Bernoulli inequality



I have a hint $epsilon > 0$ and $n=ncdot epsilon/epsilon$ and I need to show $$1leq sqrt[n]{n}leq frac{1}{sqrt[n]{epsilon}}(1+epsilon)$$



What I have done so far is verifying the inequality on the left.
Also $$sqrt[n]{n}= frac{1}{sqrt[n]{epsilon}}sqrt[n]{epsilon}sqrt[n]{n}$$



Thanks for taking your time










share|cite|improve this question
























  • I think $epsilon$ can be $leq 1$ because I have proved alread the left inequality.
    – RM777
    Nov 18 at 20:43










  • Are you forced to use Bernoulli's inequality?
    – gimusi
    Nov 18 at 20:56










  • @gimusi No it was given only as a hint in the excercise but I think other Proofs would be to high for my current understanding
    – RM777
    Nov 19 at 17:54













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











Show that $lim_limits{n rightarrow infty}sqrt[n]{n}=1$ using Bernoulli inequality



I have a hint $epsilon > 0$ and $n=ncdot epsilon/epsilon$ and I need to show $$1leq sqrt[n]{n}leq frac{1}{sqrt[n]{epsilon}}(1+epsilon)$$



What I have done so far is verifying the inequality on the left.
Also $$sqrt[n]{n}= frac{1}{sqrt[n]{epsilon}}sqrt[n]{epsilon}sqrt[n]{n}$$



Thanks for taking your time










share|cite|improve this question















Show that $lim_limits{n rightarrow infty}sqrt[n]{n}=1$ using Bernoulli inequality



I have a hint $epsilon > 0$ and $n=ncdot epsilon/epsilon$ and I need to show $$1leq sqrt[n]{n}leq frac{1}{sqrt[n]{epsilon}}(1+epsilon)$$



What I have done so far is verifying the inequality on the left.
Also $$sqrt[n]{n}= frac{1}{sqrt[n]{epsilon}}sqrt[n]{epsilon}sqrt[n]{n}$$



Thanks for taking your time







calculus limits






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edited Nov 18 at 21:39









Lorenzo B.

1,6622519




1,6622519










asked Nov 18 at 20:41









RM777

1158




1158












  • I think $epsilon$ can be $leq 1$ because I have proved alread the left inequality.
    – RM777
    Nov 18 at 20:43










  • Are you forced to use Bernoulli's inequality?
    – gimusi
    Nov 18 at 20:56










  • @gimusi No it was given only as a hint in the excercise but I think other Proofs would be to high for my current understanding
    – RM777
    Nov 19 at 17:54


















  • I think $epsilon$ can be $leq 1$ because I have proved alread the left inequality.
    – RM777
    Nov 18 at 20:43










  • Are you forced to use Bernoulli's inequality?
    – gimusi
    Nov 18 at 20:56










  • @gimusi No it was given only as a hint in the excercise but I think other Proofs would be to high for my current understanding
    – RM777
    Nov 19 at 17:54
















I think $epsilon$ can be $leq 1$ because I have proved alread the left inequality.
– RM777
Nov 18 at 20:43




I think $epsilon$ can be $leq 1$ because I have proved alread the left inequality.
– RM777
Nov 18 at 20:43












Are you forced to use Bernoulli's inequality?
– gimusi
Nov 18 at 20:56




Are you forced to use Bernoulli's inequality?
– gimusi
Nov 18 at 20:56












@gimusi No it was given only as a hint in the excercise but I think other Proofs would be to high for my current understanding
– RM777
Nov 19 at 17:54




@gimusi No it was given only as a hint in the excercise but I think other Proofs would be to high for my current understanding
– RM777
Nov 19 at 17:54










5 Answers
5






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
3
down vote













$(1+frac1{sqrt{n}})^n
ge 1+frac{n}{sqrt{n}}
gt n^{1/2}
$
.



Raising to the $2/n$ power,
$n^{1/n}
=(n^{1/2})^{2/n}
lt ((1+frac1{sqrt{n}})^n)^{2/n}
= (1+frac1{sqrt{n}})^2
=1+frac{2}{sqrt{n}}+frac1{n}
lt 1+frac{3}{sqrt{n}}
to 1
$
.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Why is $ 1+frac{n}{sqrt{n}} gt n^{1/2} $?
    – RM777
    Nov 19 at 17:50












  • $frac{n}{n^{frac{1}{2}}}=frac{n^{frac{1}{2}}n^{frac{1}{2}}}{n^{frac{1}{2}}}=n^{frac{1}{2}}$ I don't think this is what they had in mind, when they gave the hint, but i have to admit, that it is by far the shortest solution.
    – Martin Erhardt
    Nov 19 at 19:53




















up vote
2
down vote













This is how you are taking advantage of Bernoulli in order to obtain the second inequality:



$frac{(1+epsilon)^n}{epsilon}overset{Bernoulli}{geq} frac{1+nepsilon}{epsilon} = frac{1}{epsilon}+n geq n Rightarrowfrac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}} geq n^{frac{1}{n}}$



Note that: $$lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}left (lim_{nrightarrowinfty}left (frac{1}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}+frac{epsilon}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}right ) right )=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}left (lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{1}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{epsilon}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}} right)$$ $$=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}(lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}})=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}(1+epsilon)=1$$
$lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}=1$ because of $epsilon$ being a constant.



To conclude:
$1=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}} geq lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}n^{frac{1}{n}}=lim_{nrightarrowinfty}n^{frac{1}{n}}$






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Substitute $lim_{epsilon rightarrow 0}$ with $lim_{k rightarrow infty}$, $epsilon$ with $k^{-1}$ and the proof would still be correct. Just in case you are not familiar with this notion your in lecture.
    – Martin Erhardt
    Nov 18 at 21:59










  • why epsillon goes to $0$?
    – RM777
    Nov 19 at 18:01










  • Also the line where you say $lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}(lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}})=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}(1+epsilon)=1 $ , how do you get first equality in particular $lim_{nrightarrow infty} epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}}$?
    – RM777
    Nov 19 at 18:09










  • Suppose I have already proved $lim_{nrightarrow infty} sqrt[n]a = 1 , a in (0,1)$. Can this help to make it easier?
    – RM777
    Nov 19 at 18:35












  • Let me simply link you to math.stackexchange.com/a/488042/254056 . The cases $a in (0,1).a in [1,∞)$ are basically the same. I suppose you can just assume it is known even though the proof is not long.
    – Martin Erhardt
    Nov 19 at 19:30


















up vote
1
down vote













You can prove it like that: $(sqrt n)^{1/n}=1+k_n$
Where $k_n$ is some positive number depending on $n$



Then $sqrt n =(1+k_n)^n geq nk_n$-Bernoulli



So $k_n leq sqrt n/n =1/sqrt n$



And then $1 leq n^{1/n} =(1+k_n)^2=1+2k_n+k_n^2<1+2/sqrt n + 1/n$



And you get what you need using squeeze theorem






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • You introduced an extra square root for no reason.
    – Trevor Gunn
    Nov 18 at 21:44


















up vote
1
down vote













Option.



$x ge 0.$



$(star)$ $(1+x)^n gt (n^2/4)x^2$.



$x=2/√n.$



$(1+2/√n)^n gt n$



$1+2/√n gt n^{1/n} gt 1.$



Proof of $(star).$



$(1+x)^n ge n(n-1)x^2/2...gt$



$(n^2/4)x^2,$ since for $n >2$:



$(n-1) > n/2$.






share|cite|improve this answer




























    up vote
    1
    down vote













    As shown in this answer, using Bernoulli's Inequality, $left(1+frac1nright)^{n+1}$ is decreasing.



    Thus, for $nge1$,
    $$
    begin{align}
    frac{(n+1)^n}{n^{n+1}}
    &=frac1{n+1}left(1+frac1nright)^{n+1}\
    &lefrac4{n+1}
    end{align}
    $$

    Therefore, for $nge3$,
    $$
    begin{align}
    frac{(n+1)^{frac1{n+1}}}{n^{frac1n}}
    &=left(frac{(n+1)^n}{n^{n+1}}right)^{frac1{n(n+1)}}\
    &leleft(frac4{n+1}right)^{frac1{n(n+1)}}\[12pt]
    &le1
    end{align}
    $$

    Thus, for $nge3$, $n^{1/n}$ is decreasing and bounded below by $1$. Therefore, $limlimits_{ntoinfty}n^{1/n}$ exists and is no less than $1$.



    Let $alpha=limlimits_{ntoinfty}n^{1/n}$, then
    $$
    begin{align}
    alpha
    &=lim_{ntoinfty}n^{frac1n}\
    &=lim_{ntoinfty}(2n)^{frac1{2n}}\
    &=lim_{ntoinfty}2^{frac1{2n}}lim_{ntoinfty}n^{frac1{2n}}\[3pt]
    &=1cdotsqrt{alpha}
    end{align}
    $$

    Since $alphage1$ and $alpha=sqrt{alpha}$, we get
    $$
    begin{align}
    lim_{ntoinfty}n^{frac1n}
    &=alpha\
    &=1
    end{align}
    $$






    share|cite|improve this answer





















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      5 Answers
      5






      active

      oldest

      votes








      5 Answers
      5






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      3
      down vote













      $(1+frac1{sqrt{n}})^n
      ge 1+frac{n}{sqrt{n}}
      gt n^{1/2}
      $
      .



      Raising to the $2/n$ power,
      $n^{1/n}
      =(n^{1/2})^{2/n}
      lt ((1+frac1{sqrt{n}})^n)^{2/n}
      = (1+frac1{sqrt{n}})^2
      =1+frac{2}{sqrt{n}}+frac1{n}
      lt 1+frac{3}{sqrt{n}}
      to 1
      $
      .






      share|cite|improve this answer





















      • Why is $ 1+frac{n}{sqrt{n}} gt n^{1/2} $?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 17:50












      • $frac{n}{n^{frac{1}{2}}}=frac{n^{frac{1}{2}}n^{frac{1}{2}}}{n^{frac{1}{2}}}=n^{frac{1}{2}}$ I don't think this is what they had in mind, when they gave the hint, but i have to admit, that it is by far the shortest solution.
        – Martin Erhardt
        Nov 19 at 19:53

















      up vote
      3
      down vote













      $(1+frac1{sqrt{n}})^n
      ge 1+frac{n}{sqrt{n}}
      gt n^{1/2}
      $
      .



      Raising to the $2/n$ power,
      $n^{1/n}
      =(n^{1/2})^{2/n}
      lt ((1+frac1{sqrt{n}})^n)^{2/n}
      = (1+frac1{sqrt{n}})^2
      =1+frac{2}{sqrt{n}}+frac1{n}
      lt 1+frac{3}{sqrt{n}}
      to 1
      $
      .






      share|cite|improve this answer





















      • Why is $ 1+frac{n}{sqrt{n}} gt n^{1/2} $?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 17:50












      • $frac{n}{n^{frac{1}{2}}}=frac{n^{frac{1}{2}}n^{frac{1}{2}}}{n^{frac{1}{2}}}=n^{frac{1}{2}}$ I don't think this is what they had in mind, when they gave the hint, but i have to admit, that it is by far the shortest solution.
        – Martin Erhardt
        Nov 19 at 19:53















      up vote
      3
      down vote










      up vote
      3
      down vote









      $(1+frac1{sqrt{n}})^n
      ge 1+frac{n}{sqrt{n}}
      gt n^{1/2}
      $
      .



      Raising to the $2/n$ power,
      $n^{1/n}
      =(n^{1/2})^{2/n}
      lt ((1+frac1{sqrt{n}})^n)^{2/n}
      = (1+frac1{sqrt{n}})^2
      =1+frac{2}{sqrt{n}}+frac1{n}
      lt 1+frac{3}{sqrt{n}}
      to 1
      $
      .






      share|cite|improve this answer












      $(1+frac1{sqrt{n}})^n
      ge 1+frac{n}{sqrt{n}}
      gt n^{1/2}
      $
      .



      Raising to the $2/n$ power,
      $n^{1/n}
      =(n^{1/2})^{2/n}
      lt ((1+frac1{sqrt{n}})^n)^{2/n}
      = (1+frac1{sqrt{n}})^2
      =1+frac{2}{sqrt{n}}+frac1{n}
      lt 1+frac{3}{sqrt{n}}
      to 1
      $
      .







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered Nov 19 at 1:25









      marty cohen

      71.5k546123




      71.5k546123












      • Why is $ 1+frac{n}{sqrt{n}} gt n^{1/2} $?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 17:50












      • $frac{n}{n^{frac{1}{2}}}=frac{n^{frac{1}{2}}n^{frac{1}{2}}}{n^{frac{1}{2}}}=n^{frac{1}{2}}$ I don't think this is what they had in mind, when they gave the hint, but i have to admit, that it is by far the shortest solution.
        – Martin Erhardt
        Nov 19 at 19:53




















      • Why is $ 1+frac{n}{sqrt{n}} gt n^{1/2} $?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 17:50












      • $frac{n}{n^{frac{1}{2}}}=frac{n^{frac{1}{2}}n^{frac{1}{2}}}{n^{frac{1}{2}}}=n^{frac{1}{2}}$ I don't think this is what they had in mind, when they gave the hint, but i have to admit, that it is by far the shortest solution.
        – Martin Erhardt
        Nov 19 at 19:53


















      Why is $ 1+frac{n}{sqrt{n}} gt n^{1/2} $?
      – RM777
      Nov 19 at 17:50






      Why is $ 1+frac{n}{sqrt{n}} gt n^{1/2} $?
      – RM777
      Nov 19 at 17:50














      $frac{n}{n^{frac{1}{2}}}=frac{n^{frac{1}{2}}n^{frac{1}{2}}}{n^{frac{1}{2}}}=n^{frac{1}{2}}$ I don't think this is what they had in mind, when they gave the hint, but i have to admit, that it is by far the shortest solution.
      – Martin Erhardt
      Nov 19 at 19:53






      $frac{n}{n^{frac{1}{2}}}=frac{n^{frac{1}{2}}n^{frac{1}{2}}}{n^{frac{1}{2}}}=n^{frac{1}{2}}$ I don't think this is what they had in mind, when they gave the hint, but i have to admit, that it is by far the shortest solution.
      – Martin Erhardt
      Nov 19 at 19:53












      up vote
      2
      down vote













      This is how you are taking advantage of Bernoulli in order to obtain the second inequality:



      $frac{(1+epsilon)^n}{epsilon}overset{Bernoulli}{geq} frac{1+nepsilon}{epsilon} = frac{1}{epsilon}+n geq n Rightarrowfrac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}} geq n^{frac{1}{n}}$



      Note that: $$lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}left (lim_{nrightarrowinfty}left (frac{1}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}+frac{epsilon}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}right ) right )=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}left (lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{1}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{epsilon}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}} right)$$ $$=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}(lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}})=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}(1+epsilon)=1$$
      $lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}=1$ because of $epsilon$ being a constant.



      To conclude:
      $1=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}} geq lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}n^{frac{1}{n}}=lim_{nrightarrowinfty}n^{frac{1}{n}}$






      share|cite|improve this answer























      • Substitute $lim_{epsilon rightarrow 0}$ with $lim_{k rightarrow infty}$, $epsilon$ with $k^{-1}$ and the proof would still be correct. Just in case you are not familiar with this notion your in lecture.
        – Martin Erhardt
        Nov 18 at 21:59










      • why epsillon goes to $0$?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 18:01










      • Also the line where you say $lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}(lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}})=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}(1+epsilon)=1 $ , how do you get first equality in particular $lim_{nrightarrow infty} epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}}$?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 18:09










      • Suppose I have already proved $lim_{nrightarrow infty} sqrt[n]a = 1 , a in (0,1)$. Can this help to make it easier?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 18:35












      • Let me simply link you to math.stackexchange.com/a/488042/254056 . The cases $a in (0,1).a in [1,∞)$ are basically the same. I suppose you can just assume it is known even though the proof is not long.
        – Martin Erhardt
        Nov 19 at 19:30















      up vote
      2
      down vote













      This is how you are taking advantage of Bernoulli in order to obtain the second inequality:



      $frac{(1+epsilon)^n}{epsilon}overset{Bernoulli}{geq} frac{1+nepsilon}{epsilon} = frac{1}{epsilon}+n geq n Rightarrowfrac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}} geq n^{frac{1}{n}}$



      Note that: $$lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}left (lim_{nrightarrowinfty}left (frac{1}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}+frac{epsilon}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}right ) right )=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}left (lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{1}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{epsilon}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}} right)$$ $$=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}(lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}})=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}(1+epsilon)=1$$
      $lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}=1$ because of $epsilon$ being a constant.



      To conclude:
      $1=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}} geq lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}n^{frac{1}{n}}=lim_{nrightarrowinfty}n^{frac{1}{n}}$






      share|cite|improve this answer























      • Substitute $lim_{epsilon rightarrow 0}$ with $lim_{k rightarrow infty}$, $epsilon$ with $k^{-1}$ and the proof would still be correct. Just in case you are not familiar with this notion your in lecture.
        – Martin Erhardt
        Nov 18 at 21:59










      • why epsillon goes to $0$?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 18:01










      • Also the line where you say $lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}(lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}})=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}(1+epsilon)=1 $ , how do you get first equality in particular $lim_{nrightarrow infty} epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}}$?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 18:09










      • Suppose I have already proved $lim_{nrightarrow infty} sqrt[n]a = 1 , a in (0,1)$. Can this help to make it easier?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 18:35












      • Let me simply link you to math.stackexchange.com/a/488042/254056 . The cases $a in (0,1).a in [1,∞)$ are basically the same. I suppose you can just assume it is known even though the proof is not long.
        – Martin Erhardt
        Nov 19 at 19:30













      up vote
      2
      down vote










      up vote
      2
      down vote









      This is how you are taking advantage of Bernoulli in order to obtain the second inequality:



      $frac{(1+epsilon)^n}{epsilon}overset{Bernoulli}{geq} frac{1+nepsilon}{epsilon} = frac{1}{epsilon}+n geq n Rightarrowfrac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}} geq n^{frac{1}{n}}$



      Note that: $$lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}left (lim_{nrightarrowinfty}left (frac{1}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}+frac{epsilon}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}right ) right )=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}left (lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{1}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{epsilon}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}} right)$$ $$=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}(lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}})=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}(1+epsilon)=1$$
      $lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}=1$ because of $epsilon$ being a constant.



      To conclude:
      $1=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}} geq lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}n^{frac{1}{n}}=lim_{nrightarrowinfty}n^{frac{1}{n}}$






      share|cite|improve this answer














      This is how you are taking advantage of Bernoulli in order to obtain the second inequality:



      $frac{(1+epsilon)^n}{epsilon}overset{Bernoulli}{geq} frac{1+nepsilon}{epsilon} = frac{1}{epsilon}+n geq n Rightarrowfrac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}} geq n^{frac{1}{n}}$



      Note that: $$lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}left (lim_{nrightarrowinfty}left (frac{1}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}+frac{epsilon}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}right ) right )=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}left (lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{1}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{epsilon}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}} right)$$ $$=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}(lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}})=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}(1+epsilon)=1$$
      $lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}=1$ because of $epsilon$ being a constant.



      To conclude:
      $1=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}} geq lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}n^{frac{1}{n}}=lim_{nrightarrowinfty}n^{frac{1}{n}}$







      share|cite|improve this answer














      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer








      edited Nov 19 at 19:26

























      answered Nov 18 at 21:00









      Martin Erhardt

      1859




      1859












      • Substitute $lim_{epsilon rightarrow 0}$ with $lim_{k rightarrow infty}$, $epsilon$ with $k^{-1}$ and the proof would still be correct. Just in case you are not familiar with this notion your in lecture.
        – Martin Erhardt
        Nov 18 at 21:59










      • why epsillon goes to $0$?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 18:01










      • Also the line where you say $lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}(lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}})=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}(1+epsilon)=1 $ , how do you get first equality in particular $lim_{nrightarrow infty} epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}}$?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 18:09










      • Suppose I have already proved $lim_{nrightarrow infty} sqrt[n]a = 1 , a in (0,1)$. Can this help to make it easier?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 18:35












      • Let me simply link you to math.stackexchange.com/a/488042/254056 . The cases $a in (0,1).a in [1,∞)$ are basically the same. I suppose you can just assume it is known even though the proof is not long.
        – Martin Erhardt
        Nov 19 at 19:30


















      • Substitute $lim_{epsilon rightarrow 0}$ with $lim_{k rightarrow infty}$, $epsilon$ with $k^{-1}$ and the proof would still be correct. Just in case you are not familiar with this notion your in lecture.
        – Martin Erhardt
        Nov 18 at 21:59










      • why epsillon goes to $0$?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 18:01










      • Also the line where you say $lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}(lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}})=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}(1+epsilon)=1 $ , how do you get first equality in particular $lim_{nrightarrow infty} epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}}$?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 18:09










      • Suppose I have already proved $lim_{nrightarrow infty} sqrt[n]a = 1 , a in (0,1)$. Can this help to make it easier?
        – RM777
        Nov 19 at 18:35












      • Let me simply link you to math.stackexchange.com/a/488042/254056 . The cases $a in (0,1).a in [1,∞)$ are basically the same. I suppose you can just assume it is known even though the proof is not long.
        – Martin Erhardt
        Nov 19 at 19:30
















      Substitute $lim_{epsilon rightarrow 0}$ with $lim_{k rightarrow infty}$, $epsilon$ with $k^{-1}$ and the proof would still be correct. Just in case you are not familiar with this notion your in lecture.
      – Martin Erhardt
      Nov 18 at 21:59




      Substitute $lim_{epsilon rightarrow 0}$ with $lim_{k rightarrow infty}$, $epsilon$ with $k^{-1}$ and the proof would still be correct. Just in case you are not familiar with this notion your in lecture.
      – Martin Erhardt
      Nov 18 at 21:59












      why epsillon goes to $0$?
      – RM777
      Nov 19 at 18:01




      why epsillon goes to $0$?
      – RM777
      Nov 19 at 18:01












      Also the line where you say $lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}(lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}})=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}(1+epsilon)=1 $ , how do you get first equality in particular $lim_{nrightarrow infty} epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}}$?
      – RM777
      Nov 19 at 18:09




      Also the line where you say $lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}lim_{nrightarrowinfty}frac{(1+epsilon)}{epsilon^{frac{1}{n}}}=lim_{epsilonrightarrow 0}(lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{-frac{1}{n}}+lim_{nrightarrowinfty}epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}})=lim_{epsilonrightarrow0}(1+epsilon)=1 $ , how do you get first equality in particular $lim_{nrightarrow infty} epsilon^{1-frac{1}{n}}$?
      – RM777
      Nov 19 at 18:09












      Suppose I have already proved $lim_{nrightarrow infty} sqrt[n]a = 1 , a in (0,1)$. Can this help to make it easier?
      – RM777
      Nov 19 at 18:35






      Suppose I have already proved $lim_{nrightarrow infty} sqrt[n]a = 1 , a in (0,1)$. Can this help to make it easier?
      – RM777
      Nov 19 at 18:35














      Let me simply link you to math.stackexchange.com/a/488042/254056 . The cases $a in (0,1).a in [1,∞)$ are basically the same. I suppose you can just assume it is known even though the proof is not long.
      – Martin Erhardt
      Nov 19 at 19:30




      Let me simply link you to math.stackexchange.com/a/488042/254056 . The cases $a in (0,1).a in [1,∞)$ are basically the same. I suppose you can just assume it is known even though the proof is not long.
      – Martin Erhardt
      Nov 19 at 19:30










      up vote
      1
      down vote













      You can prove it like that: $(sqrt n)^{1/n}=1+k_n$
      Where $k_n$ is some positive number depending on $n$



      Then $sqrt n =(1+k_n)^n geq nk_n$-Bernoulli



      So $k_n leq sqrt n/n =1/sqrt n$



      And then $1 leq n^{1/n} =(1+k_n)^2=1+2k_n+k_n^2<1+2/sqrt n + 1/n$



      And you get what you need using squeeze theorem






      share|cite|improve this answer





















      • You introduced an extra square root for no reason.
        – Trevor Gunn
        Nov 18 at 21:44















      up vote
      1
      down vote













      You can prove it like that: $(sqrt n)^{1/n}=1+k_n$
      Where $k_n$ is some positive number depending on $n$



      Then $sqrt n =(1+k_n)^n geq nk_n$-Bernoulli



      So $k_n leq sqrt n/n =1/sqrt n$



      And then $1 leq n^{1/n} =(1+k_n)^2=1+2k_n+k_n^2<1+2/sqrt n + 1/n$



      And you get what you need using squeeze theorem






      share|cite|improve this answer





















      • You introduced an extra square root for no reason.
        – Trevor Gunn
        Nov 18 at 21:44













      up vote
      1
      down vote










      up vote
      1
      down vote









      You can prove it like that: $(sqrt n)^{1/n}=1+k_n$
      Where $k_n$ is some positive number depending on $n$



      Then $sqrt n =(1+k_n)^n geq nk_n$-Bernoulli



      So $k_n leq sqrt n/n =1/sqrt n$



      And then $1 leq n^{1/n} =(1+k_n)^2=1+2k_n+k_n^2<1+2/sqrt n + 1/n$



      And you get what you need using squeeze theorem






      share|cite|improve this answer












      You can prove it like that: $(sqrt n)^{1/n}=1+k_n$
      Where $k_n$ is some positive number depending on $n$



      Then $sqrt n =(1+k_n)^n geq nk_n$-Bernoulli



      So $k_n leq sqrt n/n =1/sqrt n$



      And then $1 leq n^{1/n} =(1+k_n)^2=1+2k_n+k_n^2<1+2/sqrt n + 1/n$



      And you get what you need using squeeze theorem







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered Nov 18 at 21:19









      Anton Zagrivin

      1257




      1257












      • You introduced an extra square root for no reason.
        – Trevor Gunn
        Nov 18 at 21:44


















      • You introduced an extra square root for no reason.
        – Trevor Gunn
        Nov 18 at 21:44
















      You introduced an extra square root for no reason.
      – Trevor Gunn
      Nov 18 at 21:44




      You introduced an extra square root for no reason.
      – Trevor Gunn
      Nov 18 at 21:44










      up vote
      1
      down vote













      Option.



      $x ge 0.$



      $(star)$ $(1+x)^n gt (n^2/4)x^2$.



      $x=2/√n.$



      $(1+2/√n)^n gt n$



      $1+2/√n gt n^{1/n} gt 1.$



      Proof of $(star).$



      $(1+x)^n ge n(n-1)x^2/2...gt$



      $(n^2/4)x^2,$ since for $n >2$:



      $(n-1) > n/2$.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        1
        down vote













        Option.



        $x ge 0.$



        $(star)$ $(1+x)^n gt (n^2/4)x^2$.



        $x=2/√n.$



        $(1+2/√n)^n gt n$



        $1+2/√n gt n^{1/n} gt 1.$



        Proof of $(star).$



        $(1+x)^n ge n(n-1)x^2/2...gt$



        $(n^2/4)x^2,$ since for $n >2$:



        $(n-1) > n/2$.






        share|cite|improve this answer























          up vote
          1
          down vote










          up vote
          1
          down vote









          Option.



          $x ge 0.$



          $(star)$ $(1+x)^n gt (n^2/4)x^2$.



          $x=2/√n.$



          $(1+2/√n)^n gt n$



          $1+2/√n gt n^{1/n} gt 1.$



          Proof of $(star).$



          $(1+x)^n ge n(n-1)x^2/2...gt$



          $(n^2/4)x^2,$ since for $n >2$:



          $(n-1) > n/2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Option.



          $x ge 0.$



          $(star)$ $(1+x)^n gt (n^2/4)x^2$.



          $x=2/√n.$



          $(1+2/√n)^n gt n$



          $1+2/√n gt n^{1/n} gt 1.$



          Proof of $(star).$



          $(1+x)^n ge n(n-1)x^2/2...gt$



          $(n^2/4)x^2,$ since for $n >2$:



          $(n-1) > n/2$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 18 at 21:54









          Peter Szilas

          10.2k2720




          10.2k2720






















              up vote
              1
              down vote













              As shown in this answer, using Bernoulli's Inequality, $left(1+frac1nright)^{n+1}$ is decreasing.



              Thus, for $nge1$,
              $$
              begin{align}
              frac{(n+1)^n}{n^{n+1}}
              &=frac1{n+1}left(1+frac1nright)^{n+1}\
              &lefrac4{n+1}
              end{align}
              $$

              Therefore, for $nge3$,
              $$
              begin{align}
              frac{(n+1)^{frac1{n+1}}}{n^{frac1n}}
              &=left(frac{(n+1)^n}{n^{n+1}}right)^{frac1{n(n+1)}}\
              &leleft(frac4{n+1}right)^{frac1{n(n+1)}}\[12pt]
              &le1
              end{align}
              $$

              Thus, for $nge3$, $n^{1/n}$ is decreasing and bounded below by $1$. Therefore, $limlimits_{ntoinfty}n^{1/n}$ exists and is no less than $1$.



              Let $alpha=limlimits_{ntoinfty}n^{1/n}$, then
              $$
              begin{align}
              alpha
              &=lim_{ntoinfty}n^{frac1n}\
              &=lim_{ntoinfty}(2n)^{frac1{2n}}\
              &=lim_{ntoinfty}2^{frac1{2n}}lim_{ntoinfty}n^{frac1{2n}}\[3pt]
              &=1cdotsqrt{alpha}
              end{align}
              $$

              Since $alphage1$ and $alpha=sqrt{alpha}$, we get
              $$
              begin{align}
              lim_{ntoinfty}n^{frac1n}
              &=alpha\
              &=1
              end{align}
              $$






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                1
                down vote













                As shown in this answer, using Bernoulli's Inequality, $left(1+frac1nright)^{n+1}$ is decreasing.



                Thus, for $nge1$,
                $$
                begin{align}
                frac{(n+1)^n}{n^{n+1}}
                &=frac1{n+1}left(1+frac1nright)^{n+1}\
                &lefrac4{n+1}
                end{align}
                $$

                Therefore, for $nge3$,
                $$
                begin{align}
                frac{(n+1)^{frac1{n+1}}}{n^{frac1n}}
                &=left(frac{(n+1)^n}{n^{n+1}}right)^{frac1{n(n+1)}}\
                &leleft(frac4{n+1}right)^{frac1{n(n+1)}}\[12pt]
                &le1
                end{align}
                $$

                Thus, for $nge3$, $n^{1/n}$ is decreasing and bounded below by $1$. Therefore, $limlimits_{ntoinfty}n^{1/n}$ exists and is no less than $1$.



                Let $alpha=limlimits_{ntoinfty}n^{1/n}$, then
                $$
                begin{align}
                alpha
                &=lim_{ntoinfty}n^{frac1n}\
                &=lim_{ntoinfty}(2n)^{frac1{2n}}\
                &=lim_{ntoinfty}2^{frac1{2n}}lim_{ntoinfty}n^{frac1{2n}}\[3pt]
                &=1cdotsqrt{alpha}
                end{align}
                $$

                Since $alphage1$ and $alpha=sqrt{alpha}$, we get
                $$
                begin{align}
                lim_{ntoinfty}n^{frac1n}
                &=alpha\
                &=1
                end{align}
                $$






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote









                  As shown in this answer, using Bernoulli's Inequality, $left(1+frac1nright)^{n+1}$ is decreasing.



                  Thus, for $nge1$,
                  $$
                  begin{align}
                  frac{(n+1)^n}{n^{n+1}}
                  &=frac1{n+1}left(1+frac1nright)^{n+1}\
                  &lefrac4{n+1}
                  end{align}
                  $$

                  Therefore, for $nge3$,
                  $$
                  begin{align}
                  frac{(n+1)^{frac1{n+1}}}{n^{frac1n}}
                  &=left(frac{(n+1)^n}{n^{n+1}}right)^{frac1{n(n+1)}}\
                  &leleft(frac4{n+1}right)^{frac1{n(n+1)}}\[12pt]
                  &le1
                  end{align}
                  $$

                  Thus, for $nge3$, $n^{1/n}$ is decreasing and bounded below by $1$. Therefore, $limlimits_{ntoinfty}n^{1/n}$ exists and is no less than $1$.



                  Let $alpha=limlimits_{ntoinfty}n^{1/n}$, then
                  $$
                  begin{align}
                  alpha
                  &=lim_{ntoinfty}n^{frac1n}\
                  &=lim_{ntoinfty}(2n)^{frac1{2n}}\
                  &=lim_{ntoinfty}2^{frac1{2n}}lim_{ntoinfty}n^{frac1{2n}}\[3pt]
                  &=1cdotsqrt{alpha}
                  end{align}
                  $$

                  Since $alphage1$ and $alpha=sqrt{alpha}$, we get
                  $$
                  begin{align}
                  lim_{ntoinfty}n^{frac1n}
                  &=alpha\
                  &=1
                  end{align}
                  $$






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  As shown in this answer, using Bernoulli's Inequality, $left(1+frac1nright)^{n+1}$ is decreasing.



                  Thus, for $nge1$,
                  $$
                  begin{align}
                  frac{(n+1)^n}{n^{n+1}}
                  &=frac1{n+1}left(1+frac1nright)^{n+1}\
                  &lefrac4{n+1}
                  end{align}
                  $$

                  Therefore, for $nge3$,
                  $$
                  begin{align}
                  frac{(n+1)^{frac1{n+1}}}{n^{frac1n}}
                  &=left(frac{(n+1)^n}{n^{n+1}}right)^{frac1{n(n+1)}}\
                  &leleft(frac4{n+1}right)^{frac1{n(n+1)}}\[12pt]
                  &le1
                  end{align}
                  $$

                  Thus, for $nge3$, $n^{1/n}$ is decreasing and bounded below by $1$. Therefore, $limlimits_{ntoinfty}n^{1/n}$ exists and is no less than $1$.



                  Let $alpha=limlimits_{ntoinfty}n^{1/n}$, then
                  $$
                  begin{align}
                  alpha
                  &=lim_{ntoinfty}n^{frac1n}\
                  &=lim_{ntoinfty}(2n)^{frac1{2n}}\
                  &=lim_{ntoinfty}2^{frac1{2n}}lim_{ntoinfty}n^{frac1{2n}}\[3pt]
                  &=1cdotsqrt{alpha}
                  end{align}
                  $$

                  Since $alphage1$ and $alpha=sqrt{alpha}$, we get
                  $$
                  begin{align}
                  lim_{ntoinfty}n^{frac1n}
                  &=alpha\
                  &=1
                  end{align}
                  $$







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Nov 18 at 23:25









                  robjohn

                  263k27301622




                  263k27301622






























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