Does the FTC apply on a function of two variables?












2














I am doing a project on traffic flow, and am deriving the conservation equation between density and flux. I have got to this line in my calculations, and am unsure how to justify the step.



$$q(x_1,t)-q(x_2,t)=-int_{x_1}^{x_2}frac{partial q(x,t)}{partial x} dx $$



Does the FTC apply? I wasn't sure since we have a function of two variables in this case. In all of the sources I have used, they have taken this step as purely trivial, but I would like to know for certain why we are allowed to do this. Out of curiosity, is this always possible?



Many thanks in advance!










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  • 1




    It would be $q(x_2,t) - q(x_1,t)$, not $q(x_1,t)-q(x_2,t)$. Yes fundamental theorem of calculus applies (under mild assumptions that the derivative is continuous that are likely automatically satisfied for your problem) since if we fix time $t$ then we can write $f(x)=q(x,t)$ and $f'(x)$ is the partial derivative you use.
    – Michael
    Nov 28 '18 at 20:41












  • Yes sorry, my error, the integral was supposed to have a minus sign in front! Many thanks for your help!
    – kinga120
    Nov 28 '18 at 20:52
















2














I am doing a project on traffic flow, and am deriving the conservation equation between density and flux. I have got to this line in my calculations, and am unsure how to justify the step.



$$q(x_1,t)-q(x_2,t)=-int_{x_1}^{x_2}frac{partial q(x,t)}{partial x} dx $$



Does the FTC apply? I wasn't sure since we have a function of two variables in this case. In all of the sources I have used, they have taken this step as purely trivial, but I would like to know for certain why we are allowed to do this. Out of curiosity, is this always possible?



Many thanks in advance!










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    It would be $q(x_2,t) - q(x_1,t)$, not $q(x_1,t)-q(x_2,t)$. Yes fundamental theorem of calculus applies (under mild assumptions that the derivative is continuous that are likely automatically satisfied for your problem) since if we fix time $t$ then we can write $f(x)=q(x,t)$ and $f'(x)$ is the partial derivative you use.
    – Michael
    Nov 28 '18 at 20:41












  • Yes sorry, my error, the integral was supposed to have a minus sign in front! Many thanks for your help!
    – kinga120
    Nov 28 '18 at 20:52














2












2








2


1





I am doing a project on traffic flow, and am deriving the conservation equation between density and flux. I have got to this line in my calculations, and am unsure how to justify the step.



$$q(x_1,t)-q(x_2,t)=-int_{x_1}^{x_2}frac{partial q(x,t)}{partial x} dx $$



Does the FTC apply? I wasn't sure since we have a function of two variables in this case. In all of the sources I have used, they have taken this step as purely trivial, but I would like to know for certain why we are allowed to do this. Out of curiosity, is this always possible?



Many thanks in advance!










share|cite|improve this question















I am doing a project on traffic flow, and am deriving the conservation equation between density and flux. I have got to this line in my calculations, and am unsure how to justify the step.



$$q(x_1,t)-q(x_2,t)=-int_{x_1}^{x_2}frac{partial q(x,t)}{partial x} dx $$



Does the FTC apply? I wasn't sure since we have a function of two variables in this case. In all of the sources I have used, they have taken this step as purely trivial, but I would like to know for certain why we are allowed to do this. Out of curiosity, is this always possible?



Many thanks in advance!







calculus real-analysis pde






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 28 '18 at 20:53

























asked Nov 28 '18 at 20:39









kinga120

112




112








  • 1




    It would be $q(x_2,t) - q(x_1,t)$, not $q(x_1,t)-q(x_2,t)$. Yes fundamental theorem of calculus applies (under mild assumptions that the derivative is continuous that are likely automatically satisfied for your problem) since if we fix time $t$ then we can write $f(x)=q(x,t)$ and $f'(x)$ is the partial derivative you use.
    – Michael
    Nov 28 '18 at 20:41












  • Yes sorry, my error, the integral was supposed to have a minus sign in front! Many thanks for your help!
    – kinga120
    Nov 28 '18 at 20:52














  • 1




    It would be $q(x_2,t) - q(x_1,t)$, not $q(x_1,t)-q(x_2,t)$. Yes fundamental theorem of calculus applies (under mild assumptions that the derivative is continuous that are likely automatically satisfied for your problem) since if we fix time $t$ then we can write $f(x)=q(x,t)$ and $f'(x)$ is the partial derivative you use.
    – Michael
    Nov 28 '18 at 20:41












  • Yes sorry, my error, the integral was supposed to have a minus sign in front! Many thanks for your help!
    – kinga120
    Nov 28 '18 at 20:52








1




1




It would be $q(x_2,t) - q(x_1,t)$, not $q(x_1,t)-q(x_2,t)$. Yes fundamental theorem of calculus applies (under mild assumptions that the derivative is continuous that are likely automatically satisfied for your problem) since if we fix time $t$ then we can write $f(x)=q(x,t)$ and $f'(x)$ is the partial derivative you use.
– Michael
Nov 28 '18 at 20:41






It would be $q(x_2,t) - q(x_1,t)$, not $q(x_1,t)-q(x_2,t)$. Yes fundamental theorem of calculus applies (under mild assumptions that the derivative is continuous that are likely automatically satisfied for your problem) since if we fix time $t$ then we can write $f(x)=q(x,t)$ and $f'(x)$ is the partial derivative you use.
– Michael
Nov 28 '18 at 20:41














Yes sorry, my error, the integral was supposed to have a minus sign in front! Many thanks for your help!
– kinga120
Nov 28 '18 at 20:52




Yes sorry, my error, the integral was supposed to have a minus sign in front! Many thanks for your help!
– kinga120
Nov 28 '18 at 20:52










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