LaSalle for time varying systems
I am looking for an explanation, why LaSalles theorem is in general not applicable to time varying systems. Can someone provide an example system with
$$
dot{x}(t) = A(t)x(t) tag{1}
$$
I.e., why can't LaSalles theorem be used if I have a Lyapunov function $V(t, x)$ for the system $(1)$ with $dot{V}(t, x) leq 0$?
dynamical-systems control-theory stability-in-odes
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I am looking for an explanation, why LaSalles theorem is in general not applicable to time varying systems. Can someone provide an example system with
$$
dot{x}(t) = A(t)x(t) tag{1}
$$
I.e., why can't LaSalles theorem be used if I have a Lyapunov function $V(t, x)$ for the system $(1)$ with $dot{V}(t, x) leq 0$?
dynamical-systems control-theory stability-in-odes
add a comment |
I am looking for an explanation, why LaSalles theorem is in general not applicable to time varying systems. Can someone provide an example system with
$$
dot{x}(t) = A(t)x(t) tag{1}
$$
I.e., why can't LaSalles theorem be used if I have a Lyapunov function $V(t, x)$ for the system $(1)$ with $dot{V}(t, x) leq 0$?
dynamical-systems control-theory stability-in-odes
I am looking for an explanation, why LaSalles theorem is in general not applicable to time varying systems. Can someone provide an example system with
$$
dot{x}(t) = A(t)x(t) tag{1}
$$
I.e., why can't LaSalles theorem be used if I have a Lyapunov function $V(t, x)$ for the system $(1)$ with $dot{V}(t, x) leq 0$?
dynamical-systems control-theory stability-in-odes
dynamical-systems control-theory stability-in-odes
asked Nov 28 '18 at 20:38
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52539
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1 Answer
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Consider the system
$$
left{begin{array}{lll}tag{1}
dot x&=&0\
dot y&=&0\
end{array}right.
$$
and the function $V(t,x,y)=e^{-t}(x^2+y^2)$. The directional derivative is negative definite:
$$
dot V= -e^{-t}(x^2+y^2)+e^{-t}(2xdot x+2ydot y)=-e^{-t}(x^2+y^2),
$$
but the solutions of (1) do not approach the set
$$
E={ (x,y):; dot V= 0}={(0,0)}.
$$
This example is possible because $V(t,x)$ may decrease due to the explicit dependence on $t$, regardless of the approaching of the solution to the set $E$.
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
Consider the system
$$
left{begin{array}{lll}tag{1}
dot x&=&0\
dot y&=&0\
end{array}right.
$$
and the function $V(t,x,y)=e^{-t}(x^2+y^2)$. The directional derivative is negative definite:
$$
dot V= -e^{-t}(x^2+y^2)+e^{-t}(2xdot x+2ydot y)=-e^{-t}(x^2+y^2),
$$
but the solutions of (1) do not approach the set
$$
E={ (x,y):; dot V= 0}={(0,0)}.
$$
This example is possible because $V(t,x)$ may decrease due to the explicit dependence on $t$, regardless of the approaching of the solution to the set $E$.
add a comment |
Consider the system
$$
left{begin{array}{lll}tag{1}
dot x&=&0\
dot y&=&0\
end{array}right.
$$
and the function $V(t,x,y)=e^{-t}(x^2+y^2)$. The directional derivative is negative definite:
$$
dot V= -e^{-t}(x^2+y^2)+e^{-t}(2xdot x+2ydot y)=-e^{-t}(x^2+y^2),
$$
but the solutions of (1) do not approach the set
$$
E={ (x,y):; dot V= 0}={(0,0)}.
$$
This example is possible because $V(t,x)$ may decrease due to the explicit dependence on $t$, regardless of the approaching of the solution to the set $E$.
add a comment |
Consider the system
$$
left{begin{array}{lll}tag{1}
dot x&=&0\
dot y&=&0\
end{array}right.
$$
and the function $V(t,x,y)=e^{-t}(x^2+y^2)$. The directional derivative is negative definite:
$$
dot V= -e^{-t}(x^2+y^2)+e^{-t}(2xdot x+2ydot y)=-e^{-t}(x^2+y^2),
$$
but the solutions of (1) do not approach the set
$$
E={ (x,y):; dot V= 0}={(0,0)}.
$$
This example is possible because $V(t,x)$ may decrease due to the explicit dependence on $t$, regardless of the approaching of the solution to the set $E$.
Consider the system
$$
left{begin{array}{lll}tag{1}
dot x&=&0\
dot y&=&0\
end{array}right.
$$
and the function $V(t,x,y)=e^{-t}(x^2+y^2)$. The directional derivative is negative definite:
$$
dot V= -e^{-t}(x^2+y^2)+e^{-t}(2xdot x+2ydot y)=-e^{-t}(x^2+y^2),
$$
but the solutions of (1) do not approach the set
$$
E={ (x,y):; dot V= 0}={(0,0)}.
$$
This example is possible because $V(t,x)$ may decrease due to the explicit dependence on $t$, regardless of the approaching of the solution to the set $E$.
answered Nov 29 '18 at 19:06
AVK
2,0961517
2,0961517
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